Contemporary Physical Science
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Contemporary Physical Science explores the fundamental principles and current developments in physics, chemistry, earth science, and astronomy as they relate to daily life and emerging technologies. This course provides a broad overview of scientific concepts including matter and energy, the structure of the atom, chemical reactions, forces and motion, the earth's systems, and the universe. Emphasis is placed on understanding the scientific method, analyzing real-world applications, and considering the impact of scientific advancements on society and the environment. The course is designed for non-science majors seeking to develop scientific literacy and a deeper appreciation for the role of physical science in the modern world.
Recommended Textbook
Conceptual Physical Science 5th Edition by Paul G. Hewitt
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Chapter 1: Patterns of Motion and Equilibrium
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Q1) Galileo's demonstration at the Leaning Tower of Pisa A)confirmed Aristotle's teachings.
B)refuted Aristotle's teachings.
C)failed in their purpose.
D)none of the above
Answer: B
Q2) Whenever the net force on an object is zero, its acceleration A)may be zero.
B)is zero.
C)and velocity are the same.
D)none of the above
Answer: B
Q3) When a crate slides down an incline at a constant velocity it is A)in dynamic equilibrium.
B)not in dynamic equilibrium.
C)in a state of being in and out of dynamic equilibrium.
D)none of the above
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Newtons Laws of Motion
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Q1) Newton's second law directly involves A)speed.
B)velocity.
C)acceleration.
D)none of the above
Answer: C
Q2) A particle is being accelerated through space by a 10-N force. Suddenly the particle encounters a head-on second force of 10 N in the opposite direction. The particle with both forces acting on it
A)is brought to a rapid halt.
B)decelerates gradually to a halt.
C)continues at the speed it had when it encountered the second force.
D)theoretically tends to accelerate toward the speed of light.
E)none of the above
Answer: C
Q3) When an object falls through the air and gains velocity, the net force actually A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)remains the same whether in air or in a vacuum.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Momentum and Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A piece of taffy slams into and sticks to another identical piece of taffy that is at rest. The momentum of the two pieces of taffy stuck together after the collision is the same as it was before the collision. Kinetic energy is a different story, for part of it turns into heat. What percentage of the kinetic energy converts into heat?
A)0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
E)not enough information
Answer: C
Q2) Exert 1 N for a distance of 1 m in 1 s and you deliver a power of
A)1 W.
B)2 W.
C)1/3 W.
D)3 W.
E)none of the above
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Gravity, Projectiles, and Satellites
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Q1) If the mass of Earth somehow increased with no change in radius, your weight would A)increase also.
B)decrease.
C)remain the same.
Q2) Tangential velocity is velocity
A)parallel to the surface of the Earth.
B)perpendicular to the surface of the Earth.
C)attributed to satellites moving in any direction.
Q3) The circular orbit of a satellite orbiting the Earth is characterized by a constant A)speed.
B)acceleration.
C)radial distance.
D)all the above
E)none of the above
Q4) What is the magnitude and direction of the gravitational force that acts on a person who weighs 500 N at the Earth's surface?
Q5) Why do satellites remain in orbit while the force of gravity pulls downward on them?
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Chapter 5: Fluid Mechanics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A boat loaded with wood floats in a swimming pool. When the wood is thrown overboard, the pool level
A)rises.
B)falls.
C)remains unchanged.
Q2) A rock suspended by a weighing scale weighs 3 N when submerged in water and 5 N out of water. What is the buoyant force on the rock?
A)8 N
B)5 N
C)3 N
D)2 N
E)none of the above
Q3) Consider two tubes filled with water at the same height, one with fresh water and the other tube with salt water. The pressure is greater at the bottom of the tube with A)fresh water.
B)salt water.
C)both the same
D)depends on whether the tubes have the same cross-sectional area.
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Chapter 6: Thermal Energy and Thermodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heat is simply another word for A)temperature.
B)thermal energy.
C)thermal energy that flows from hot to cold.
D)radiant energy.
Q2) Entropy is most closely related to the A)first law of thermodynamics.
B)second law of thermodynamics.
C)both
D)neither
Q3) Ice tends to form at the A)surface of bodies of water.
B)layer of water slightly below the surface.
C)bottom of bodies of water.
Q4) Absolute zero corresponds to a temperature of A)0 K.
B)-273° C.
C)both
D)neither
Q5) Explain what is meant by saying a thermometer measures its own temperature.
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Chapter 7: Heat Transfer and Change of Phase
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Q1) If an object radiates more energy than it absorbs, its A)thermal energy decreases.
B)temperature decreases.
C)both
D)neither
Q2) When steam condenses to water, energy is
A)absorbed.
B)released.
C)conserved as the phase change occurs.
D)transformed to a different form.
Q3) Evaporation is a cooling process because A)heat is radiated during the process.
B)of conduction and convection.
C)the more energetic molecules are able to escape the liquid.
D)the temperature of the remaining liquid decreases.
E)none of the above
Q4) Cold water will warm to room temperature faster in a A)black pot.
B)silver pot.
C)depends on size, not color.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Static and Current Electricity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electrical resistance is greater for A)dry skin.
B)wet skin.
C)both the same
Q2) As more lamps are put into a series circuit, the overall current in the power source A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)stays the same.
Q3) The electric current in a copper wire is normally composed of A)electrons.
B)protons.
C)ions.
D)all or any of the above
Q4) A pair of positively-charged plastic straws tend to A)attract each other. B)repel each other.
C)neutralize each other.
Q5) What are the similarities and differences between Coulomb's law and Newton's law of gravitation?
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Chapter 9: Magnetism and Electromagnetic Induction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The energy source for a generator may be A)a waterfall.
B)steam from a turbine. C)wind.
D)any of these E)none of the above
Q2) Magnetic domains normally occur in A)iron.
B)copper.
C)silver.
D)all of the above E)none of the above
Q3) An electric generator of itself
A)can produce enough energy to light cities.
B)cannot produce energy, but convert energy of other forms to electric energy.
C)neither
Q4) The rate at which a transformer transfers energy is called A)electromagnetic induction.
B)transformer efficiency. C)power.
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Chapter 10: Waves and Sound
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Q1) Resonance can be viewed as forced vibration with the A)least amount of energy input.
B)maximum amount of energy input.
C)matching of wave amplitudes.
D)matching of constructive and destructive interference.
E)minimum beat frequency.
Q2) Repeatedly tap the side of a drinking glass with a spoon while filling it with water and you will notice that the pitch of the sound
A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)remains relatively constant.
Q3) Some singers are able to shatter a crystal chandelier with their voice, which illustrates A)an echo.
B)sound refraction.
C)beats.
D)resonance.
E)interference.
Q4) What are beats and how are they produced?
Q5) What is wave interference, and the two types of wave interference?
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Chapter 11: Light
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Q1) Humans see best in the yellow-green region of the spectrum. So the efficiency of sodium yellow-green lamps that illuminate highways is A)higher.
B)lower.
C)not affected.
Q2) A beam of light emerges from water into air at an angle bent
A)towards the normal
B)away from the normal.
C)in a direction parallel to the normal.
D)in a direction perpendicular to the normal.
E)not at all.
Q3) Infrared waves are often called heat waves because they
A)emanate from relatively hot sources.
B)consist of frequencies lower than those of visible light.
C)induce resonance in molecules and increase thermal energy in the skin.
D)are absorbed rather than reflected by the skin.
E)are the predominant waves emitted by the Sun.
Q4) What accounts for the additional few minutes of sunlight we experience daily, before sunrise and after sunset?
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Chapter 12: Atoms and the Periodic Table
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Q1) Where did the atoms that make up a newborn baby originate?
A)In the womb of the baby's mother.
B)In the digestion of the food that the mother .
C)In the Earth through geological processes.
D)In the explosions of ancient .
Q2) The following statement describes which subatomic particle best? It is electrically charged.
A)an electron
B)a proton
C)a neutron
D)A and B
E)B and C
Q3) Which of the following is not the name of a chemical family?
A)heavy metals
B)transition metals
C)alkali metals
D)alkaline-earth metals
E)noble gases
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14
Chapter 13: The Atomic Nucleus and Radioactivity
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Q1) Just after an alpha particle leaves the nucleus, would you expect it to speed up? Why?
A)No. Once the alpha particle leaves the nucleus it is slowed by the repulsion of the next closest atom's nucleus.
B)No. As the alpha particle leaves the nucleus it is slowed by the constant attraction of the electrons surrounding the nucleus.
C)Yes. Once the alpha particle leaves the nucleus there are no more forces acting on it and it therefore accelerates.
D)Yes. Once the alpha particle leaves the nucleus it accelerates because of mutual electric repulsion with the nucleus from which it escaped.
Q2) Which of the following statements best describes the role of neutrons in the nucleus?
A)The neutrons stabilize the nucleus by attracting other nucleons.
B)The neutrons stabilize the nucleus by forming bonds with other neutrons.
C)The neutrons stabilize the nucleus by attracting protons.
D)The neutrons stabilize the nucleus by balancing charge.
E)The neutrons stabilize the nucleus by adding mass.
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15
Chapter 14: Elements of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you eat metallic sodium or inhale chlorine gas, you stand a strong chance of dying. Let these two elements react with each other, however, and you can safely sprinkle the compound on your popcorn for better taste. What is going on?
A)After these two elements react they lose the potential energy to cause harm.
B)All elements are inherently dangerous
C)Sodium and chlorine from the elemental form is more concentrated than the sodium and chlorine we get from sodium chloride.
D)Sodium chloride has nothing in common with sodium and chlorine.
Q2) If you have two molecules of TiO<sub>2,</sub> how many oxygen atoms would you have?
A)4
B)2
C)3
D)6
E)none
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Chapter 15: How Atoms Bond and Molecules Attract
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Q1) Given the above diagram, describe what happens electronically between these two molecules.
A)Oxygen B becomes slightly positively charged due to the electrons on the water molecule.
B)Oxygen A becomes slightly positively charged due to the electrons on the water molecule.
C)Oxygen W becomes slightly negatively charged due to the oxygen molecule.
D)Oxygen W becomes slightly positively charged due to the oxygen molecule.
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following molecules has the highest boiling point?
A)BH<sub>3</sub>
B)NH<sub>3</sub>
C)CH<sub>4</sub>
D)All of the above should have the same boiling point.
Q3) Which of the following would be an ion with a double positive charge?
A)an Mg atom that gains two electrons
B)an Mg atom that gains one electron
C)an Mg atom that loses two electrons
D)an Mg atom that loses one electron
E)none of the above
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Chapter 16: Mixtures
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Q1) Treating water with chlorine or ozone during water purification is an example of
A)a physical change
B)a chemical reaction
C)ion exchange
D)a solid dissolving in a liquid
E)only a and b
Q2) What is the main difference between a soap and a detergent?
A)Soaps are made from fatty acids, detergents are synthetic.
B)Soaps are biodegradable, detergents are not.
C)Detergents are better than soaps.
D)Soaps are all natural.
E)Soaps and detergents are exactly the same.
Q3) If you need 10 moles of sucrose, how many liters of a 4.0 molar solution would you need?
A)2.5 L
B)0.25 L
C)25 L
D)10. L
E)none of the above
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Chapter 17: How Chemicals React
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Q1) Given that the above energy profiles have the same scale, which of the reactions is the most exothermic?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following statements about ozone is true?
A)Ozone in the stratosphere is beneficial.
B)Ozone in the troposphere is a pollutant.
C)Ozone is generated from photochemical reactions of hydrocarbons.
D)none of the above
E)both a and b
Q3) Which of the following statements best describes the concept of entropy?
A)Energy has a tendency to disperse.
B)Energy is neither created nor destroyed.
C)The entropy of the universe is constantly decreasing.
D)The energy released in a chemical reaction is the same as the difference in the energy of the bonds broken and formed.
E)Energy has a tendency to remain in one place.
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Chapter 18: Two Classes of Chemical Reactions
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Q1) According to the following reaction, which molecule is acting as an acid?
OH<sup>-</sup> + NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup> H<sub>2</sub>O + NH<sub>3</sub>
A)H<sub>2</sub>O
B)NH<sub>3</sub>
C)OH<sup>-</sup>
D)NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>
E)none of the above
Q2) According to the following reaction, which molecule is acting as an acid?
H<sub>2</sub>O + NH<sub>3</sub> OH<sup>-</sup> + NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>
A)H<sub>2</sub>O
B)NH<sub>3</sub>
C)OH<sup>-</sup>
D)NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>
E)none of the above
Q3) Sodium metal is
A)oxidized in the production of aluminum.
B)reduced in the production of aluminum.
C)both oxidized and reduced in the production of aluminum.
D)neither oxidized nor reduced in the production of aluminum.
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Chapter 19: Organic Compounds
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Q1) Explain why caprylic acid, CH<sub>3</sub> (CH<sub>2</sub>)<sup>6</sup>COOH, dissolves in a 5 percent aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide but caprylaldehyde, CH<sub>3</sub> (CH<sub>2</sub>)<sup>6</sup>CHO, does not.
A)With two oxygens the caprylic acid is about twice as polar the caprylaldehyde.
B)The caprylaldehyde is a gas at room temperature.
C)The caprylaldehyde behaves as a reducing agent, which neutralizes the sodium hydroxide.
D)The caprylic acid reacts to form the water soluble salt.
Q2) Which of the following statements best describes the effect of heteroatoms on hydrocarbons?
A)Heteroatoms greatly alter the chemical and physical properties of a hydrocarbon.
B)Heteroatoms have little effect on the chemical and physical properties of a hydrocarbon.
C)Heteroatoms have very similar properties to hydrocarbons.
D)The properties of the heteroatom compounds depend only on the atom, not how it is bonded to the hydrocarbon.
E)none of the above
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Chapter 20: Rocks and Minerals
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Q1) What are the chief types of metamorphic rocks?
Q2) Minerals are composed of A)silicon compounds.
B)common types of rocks.
C)homogenous solids.
D)inorganic solids.
Q3) The metamorphic equivalent of limestone is A)gneiss.
B)marble.
C)quartzite.
D)schist.
Q4) Plutons form from magma
A)at Earth's surface.
B)below Earth's surface.
C)ejected from volcanoes.
D)all of these
Q5) A mineral's hardness depends on the strength of its chemical bonds. Name and describe the factors that influence hardness.
Q6) Describe two sources from which minerals can crystallize.
Q7) What is the difference between intrusive and extrusive igneous rocks?
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Chapter 21: Plate Tectonics and Earths Interior
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Q1) Detailed mapping of the ocean floors revealed
A)huge mountain ranges beneath the oceans.
B)deep trenches near some of the continents.
C)that the oceans are equally deep at all locations.
D)huge mountain ranges on the ocean floor, and deep trenches near some of the continents.
Q2) What geologic features are explained by plate tectonics?
Q3) The theory of continental drift is supported by paleoclimate data, paleontology, and A)paleomagnetic data.
B)seafloor spreading.
C)transform boundaries.
D)the jig-saw fit of the continents at their continental margins.
Q4) Earth's core is probably composed of A)silicate minerals.
B)aluminum oxides.
C)an iron-nickel alloy.
D)calcium magnesium sulfate.
Q5) How does erosion and wearing away of a mountain affect the depth to which the crust extends into the asthenosphere?
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Chapter 22: Shaping Earths Surface
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Q1) Striations are long parallel scratches in A)glaciers that show flow direction.
B)bedrock that show the direction of the glaciers flow.
C)bedrock that form next to roches moutonnées.
D)bedrock that show outwash flow direction.
Q2) In the formation of a river delta, why is it that coarser material is deposited first, followed by medium and finer material farther out?
Q3) The transport of large particle sizes is greatest A)in turbulent streams.
B)when stream speed is very fast.
C)where the gradient exceeds the base level.
D)on the inside of a meander.
Q4) Most of Earth's accessible fresh water is located in A)polar ice caps and glaciers.
B)groundwater.
C)rivers, lakes, and streams.
D)the atmosphere.
Q5) How do glaciers form and how do they move?
Q6) Are sand dunes stationary or do they move and migrate?
Q7) How do glaciers affect underlying rock?
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Chapter 23: Geologic Timereading the Rock Record
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Q1) An assumption that Earth processes occurring today have always occurred is called
A)the principle of superposition.
B)uniformitarianism.
C)the principle of original horizontality.
D)theory of unconformity.
Q2) Development of Earth's early oceans was likely due to
A)water-rich meteors bombarding Earth's surface.
B)volcanic outgassing in Precambrian time.
C)intense convection in the mantle, and severe heat dissipation from Earth's interior.
D)cooler temperatures that promoted the condensation of water vapor in the atmosphere.
Q3) Iridium is an element that is relatively
A)abundant on Earth, but very rare in meteorites.
B)rare on Earth, but very common in meteorites.
C)abundant on both the Earth and the Moon.
D)rare on both Earth and in meteorites.
Q4) What is the evidence that a meteorite impact caused the great extinction at the end of the Mesozoic?
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Chapter 24: The Oceans, Atmosphere, and Climatic Effects
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Q1) At lower elevations the air is generally
A)warm and heavy.
B)warm and light.
C)cool and heavy.
D)cool and light.
Q2) Why do your ears pop when you ascend to higher altitudes? Explain.
Q3) Which is most responsible for the ocean tides?
A)The Moon.
B)The Sun.
C)Both contribute equally.
Q4) The extremely hot temperature of the thermosphere has very little significance because
A)the dense air molecules in this region move too quickly to absorb much solar radiation.
B)there is very little ozone in the air to absorb the solar radiation.
C)there are not enough air molecules and atoms colliding with one another to generate heat energy.
D)the thermosphere is very far from Earth's surface.
Q5) What type of pressure system is needed for upwelling to occur along the western coast of North America? Explain.
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Chapter 25: Driving Forces of Weather
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Q1) The fundamental source of energy released by a tropical hurricane comes from
A)the trade winds.
B)the Sun.
C)warm moist air.
D)the convergence of maritime polar and maritime tropical air masses.
Q2) Why is it usually necessary for an air mass to rise if it is to produce precipitation?
Q3) Although tornadoes occur in many parts of the world, they are very common
A)along the Gulf Coast.
B)in the northeastern part of the United States.
C)in the Central Plains.
D)on the western slopes of the Rockies.
Q4) Explain how a convection cycle is generated.
Q5) Clouds inhibit the outflow of terrestrial radiation. This acts to
A)insulate Earth's surface temperature.
B)warm Earth's surface temperature at night.
C)cool Earth's surface temperature during the day.
D)insulate Earth's surface temperature, keeping it warmer at night and cooler in the day.
Q6) Why do cumulus clouds often form, disappear, and then reform in the same place?
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Chapter 26: The Solar System
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Q1) Evidence of the solar wind on Earth is the
A)meteor showers in the upper atmosphere.
B)solar sunspots.
C)preponderance of hurricanes at lower latitudes.
D)higher ocean tides in winter.
E)Aurora Borealis.
Q2) The gravity lock of the Moon to Earth is similar to the action of a A)tidal wave.
B)giant pendulum.
C)master key.
D)magnetic compass.
E)spinning top.
Q3) About how deep is the photosphere?
A)300 meters
B)500 meters
C)300 km
D)500 km
Q4) Only one side of the Moon faces Earth. Is this because the Moon spins about its axis, or doesn't spin about its axis? Defend your answer.
Q5) Distinguish between a star and a planet. Which glows, or do they both glow?
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Chapter 27: Stars and Galaxies
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Q1) Which one of these elements is normally the remnant of a supernova?
A)hydrogen
B)helium
C)silver
D)none of these
Q2) What do astronomers expect will be left at the center of our solar system once the Sun has gone through all its life stages?
A)A planet sized diamond
B)A red giant
C)A black hole
D)A wormhole
Q3) How does the mass of a giant star compare with the mass of the black hole it may become? How do the densities compare?
Q4) What will halt the collapsing Sun's core once its fuel has been exhausted?
A)The inability of electrons to enter into neighboring electrons quantum state
B)Outward thermal pressure
C)Random quantum fluctuations
D)The shift from fusion to fission nuclear reactions
Q5) Describe the fate of planet Earth if the Sun were to collapse to a black hole.
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Chapter 28: The Structure of Space and Time
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Q1) A person on the ground floor of a skyscraper ages
A)faster than a person on the top floor.
B)slower than a person on the top floor.
C)at the same speed as a person on the top floor.
Q2) Heat death refers to the universe
A)reaching the lowest energy state possible, which will mean the greatest level of entropy.
B)ending after a massive fire.
C)reaching a state where all stars expand and merge into each other.
D)reaching the point where the process of radioactive decay is no longer possible.
Q3) Suppose at the surface of the Earth a person can do 20 pushups. In a spaceship far away from any gravitational influence, accelerating at g, the same person could do
A)less than 20 pushups.
B)20 pushups.
C)more than 20 pushups.
Q4) Space and time are
A)bound together.
B)independent entities.
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Chapter 29: Prologue: the Nature of Science
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67579
Sample Questions
Q1) A scientific hypothesis can be disproved with A)one reproducible experiment.
B)disapproval of other scientists.
C)many tests by many scientists.
D)philosophical reasoning.
Q2) Which of the following is a scientific statement?
A)the Moon is made of green cheese
B)matter is filled with undetectable particles
C)there are parts of the universe that will never be found by humans
D)none of the above
Q3) Technology is mainly
A)a body of scientific knowledge.
B)a tool of science.
C)what is wrong with the world.
D)a solution to all of mankind's problems.
Q4) When a scientist is dishonest and reports false information, he or she
A)will usually be excused by the scientific community.
B)after an apology, will be excused by the scientific community.
C)gets no second chance in the scientific community.
D)will likely be burned at the stake.
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