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Contemporary Physical Science explores the fundamental concepts and recent developments within the fields of physics, chemistry, astronomy, and earth sciences. The course emphasizes the scientific method and the interplay between science, technology, and society, highlighting how modern discoveries impact our daily lives and global challenges. Through inquiry-based labs, critical analysis of current scientific issues, and real-world applications, students gain a broad understanding of the principles governing the physical world and their relevance to contemporary scientific debates.
Recommended Textbook
An Introduction to Physical Science 13th Edition by James Shipman
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Q1) The ratio of mass to volume is known as ______________.
Answer: density
Q2) A cubic container 40 cm on a side is filled with water. What is the mass of the water?
Answer: 64 kg
Q3) A derived unit
A) involves only length.
B) is a combination of units.
C) applies only to density.
D) is not found in the metric system.
Answer: B
Q4) The most information about our environment comes to us through the sense of A) smell.
B) sight.
C) hearing.
D) touch.
Answer: B
Q5) There are 10 mm in a(n) ______________. Answer: centimeter
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Q1) An automobile's acceleration cannot be changed by using the A) gas pedal.
B) brake pedal.
C) steering wheel.
D) stick shift.
E) turn signal.
Answer: E
Q2) If the magnitude of the velocity of an object increases, we may be sure that during the time of this increase,
A) the object is accelerated.
B) the acceleration of the object increases.
C) the object is moving in a straight path.
D) the object is changing direction.
E) none of these
Answer: A
Q3) A rifle bullet shot horizontally has a vertical acceleration of ______________. Answer: 8 m/s<sup>2</sup>, or 32 ft/s<sup>2 </sup>(gravity)
Q4) Dropped objects on the Moon fall at a slower rate than on Earth because of a smaller ______________.
Answer: acceleration due to gravity

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Q1) The constant G that appears in the equation F = Gm<sub>1</sub>m<sub>2</sub>/r<sup>2</sup> is
A) smaller on the Moon than on Earth.
B) the force of gravity.
C) equal to g.
D) the acceleration due to gravity.
E) a universal constant.
Answer: E
Q2) An automobile travels due north with a constant speed of 76 km/h. All forces considered, the unbalanced force acting on the auto is A) zero.
B) southward.
C) northward.
D) downward.
E) upward.
Answer: A
Q3) Linear momentum is the product of mass times ______________.
Answer: velocity
Q4) Calculate the force on a string tied to a ceiling with a 9.0-kg mass attached.
Answer: 88 N
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Q1) Which of the following four objects has different kinetic energy?
A) An object of mass m moving with speed 4v
B) An object of mass 4m moving with speed 2v
C) An object of mass 16m moving with speed v
D) An object of mass 2m moving with speed 3v
E) None of these; all four objects have the same kinetic energy.
Q2) Work is defined as force times
A) distance.
B) time.
C) parallel distance.
D) perpendicular distance.
Q3) The kinetic energy of a pendulum is ______________ at the bottom of its swing.
Q4) The largest reserve of energy in the United States is in what form?
A) Oil
B) Natural gas
C) Coal
D) Nuclear
Q5) A ball is dropped from an upper-story dorm window. Neglecting air resistance, what is the speed of the ball when it has fallen 2.5 m?
Page 6
Q6) A system for which there are no outside effects is said to be ______________.
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Q1) The latent heat of fusion is the amount of energy per kilogram necessary to go from point ______________ to point ______________.
Q2) Below 4°C, water ______________ with decreasing temperature.
Q3) Which of the following is not directly involved in the second law of thermodynamics?
A) Spontaneous heat flow
B) Converting all heat input into work
C) Conservation of energy
D) Entropy
Q4) The Fahrenheit scale has a ___________ degree size than the Celsius scale.
Q5) A liter of water at room temperature (20°C) is heated to its boiling temperature. How many kilocalories of heat are required?
Q6) A quantity of ideal gas in a rigid container has a pressure of 1.00 \(\times\) 10<sup>6</sup> Pa at 0°C. If the pressure is increased to 1.75 \(\times\) 10<sup>6 </sup>Pa, what is the temperature of the gas after this is done?
Q7) The second law of thermodynamics forbids a heat engine to have thermal efficiency of ______________.
Q8) The ______________ temperature scale has no negative readings.
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Q1) If a sound level increases by 30 dB, the intensity increases by a factor of ______________.
Q2) During a thunderstorm, an observer notes that 20 s elapsed between the lightning flash and the sound of the thunder. What is the approximate distance, in miles, from the observer to the lightning?
A) 20 mi
B) 100 mi
C) 4 mi
D) 400 mi
Q3) The radiation given off by the nucleus of an atom is called A) a microwave.
B) a gamma ray.
C) an X-ray.
D) any of these.
Q4) A particular sound with large intensity is reduced 1000-fold. What is the decibel reduction?
Q5) A sound level of 93 dB is how many times as intense as one of 73 dB?
Q6) Light in a vacuum has a speed of ______________ m/s.
Q7) The frequency and the wavelength of a wave are ______________ proportional.
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Q8) What is the frequency of yellow-green light that has a wavelength of 550 nm?

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Q1) When an object is inside the focal point of a concave mirror, a(n) _______________ image always results.
Q2) The photoreceptors responsible for color vision are called A) rods.
B) cylinders.
C) cones.
D) cans.
Q3) Light traveling from a more dense to a less dense medium is refracted ______________ the normal.
Q4) The speed of light in a material is 2.35 \(\times\) 10<sup>8 </sup>m/s. What is the index of refraction of this material?
A) 1.28
B) 0.783
C) 2.35
D) 0.294
Q5) A double convex lens has a focal length of 0.10 m. An object 0.05 m high is placed 0.15 m from the lens surface on the principal axis. Sketch a ray diagram and give the characteristics of the image.
Q6) The photoreceptors responsible for color vision are called ______________.
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Q1) An object may be electrically neutral, but regions may be charged by _____________.
Q2) The resistances are added in a(n) ______________ circuit.
Q3) The direction of the magnetic field of a bar magnet is
A) in the direction a compass would point.
B) in any direction.
C) away from the south pole.
D) toward the north pole.
Q4) A step-down transformer has more windings on the ________ coil.
Q5) In a conductor, what moves?
A) Electrons
B) Neutrons
C) Quarks
D) Protons
Q6) Three resistors, 10 \(\Omega\), 20 \(\Omega\), and 30 \(\Omega\), are wired in series and connected to a 120-V battery. How much current flows in the circuit?
Q7) The law of poles states that like magnetic poles ______________ and unlike magnetic poles ______________.
Q8) The expression V = IR is called ______________.
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Q1) When a hydrogen atom's electron goes from an energy state of n = 1 to n = 3,
A) the radius of the electron's orbit is unchanged.
B) the radius of the electron's orbit is increased.
C) the radius of the electron's orbit is decreased.
D) the radius of the electron's orbit is infinite.
Q2) The development of physics prior to 1900 is called A) classical physics.
B) neoclassical physics.
C) Galilean physics.
D) ancient physics.
Q3) Removal of an electron from an atom leaves a A) neutron.
B) positive ion.
C) free quark.
D) negative ion.
Q4) The dilemma known as the ultraviolet catastrophe was resolved in 1900 by A) Bohr.
B) Rutherford.
C) Einstein.
D) Planck.

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Q1) Any nuclear process that leads ______________ on the "mass defect per nucleon versus mass number" curve will release nuclear energy.
A) right
B) up
C) down
D) left
Q2) The common unit of radiation absorbed dosage is the ______________.
Q3) Who discovered radium?
A) Marie and Pierre Curie
B) Ernest Rutherford
C) Henri Becquerel
D) Niels Bohr
Q4) The half-life of <sup>3</sup>H is 12 years. About how long does it take for 7/8 of a sample of that radionuclide to decay?
A) 3 years
B) 24 years
C) 4 years
D) 36 years
Q5) A scientist named ______________ discovered radioactivity in 1896.
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Q1) The elements of Group ______________ are the most chemically active metals.
Q2) Which of the following is the shell electron configuration for sulfur?
A) 2, 4, 10
B) 10, 6
C) 2, 8, 6
D) None of these
Q3) Take a cup of water, add sugar, and stir. If the resulting solution contains sugar crystals that do not dissolve, the solution is said to be
A) an unsaturated solution.
B) a saturated solution.
C) a homogeneous solution.
D) none of these.
Q4) The ______________ of a given solute is the amount of solute that will dissolve in a specified mass of solvent at a given temperature to produce a saturated solution.
Q5) The element ______________ is a soft, active metal and forms a compound called lye.
Q6) A solid solution of two or more metals is called a(n) ______________.
Q7) Earth's atmosphere is 78% ______________.
Q8) The formula for sulfuric acid is _________________.
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Q1) Which type of reaction is AlCl<sub>3</sub> + 3KOH \(\to\) Al(OH)<sub>3</sub> + 3KCl?
A) Single-replacement
B) Double-replacement
C) Decomposition
D) Combination
Q2) When solutions of AgNO<sub>3 </sub> and CaCl<sub>2</sub> are mixed, which type of reaction is likely?
A) Combination
B) Double-replacement
C) Decomposition
D) Single-replacement
Q3) The substances that are diminished in a chemical reaction are called the A) products.
B) reactants.
C) chemicals.
D) precipitates.
Q4) The original substances in a chemical reaction are called the ______________.
Q5) When an acid reacts with a carbonate or hydrogen carbonate, the products are water, ______________, and a salt.
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Q1) The local solar time at 75°W is 12:00 noon. What is the longitude of an observer who sees the full moon on her meridian at this time?
Q2) The first mate of a pirate ship shoots the noonday Sun with a sextant and measures the altitude to be 50<sup>o</sup> to the south on December 21. The time on the ship's clock is 4 P.M. (GMT). What are the longitude and latitude of the ship?
Q3) Daylight hours and night hours are equal in duration throughout the year at the ______________.
Q4) The ______________ angle added to the altitude angle equals 90°.
A) inclination
B) declination
C) altitude
D) zenith
Q5) The 75°W longitude meridian is the center of the ______________ Standard Time zone in the United States.
A) Pacific
B) Mountain
C) Eastern
D) Central
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Q1) In 1851, Earth's rotation was demonstrated using a(n) ______________.
Q2) The Great White Spot is a feature of ______________.
Q3) The motion of a Foucault pendulum proves that Earth is A) rotating. B) revolving. C) precessing.
D) an oblate spheroid.
Q4) The planet with the Great Dark Spot is A) Jupiter.
B) Saturn.
C) Uranus.
D) Neptune.
Q5) The most distant planet that can be seen with the unaided eye is A) Jupiter.
B) Saturn. C) Uranus.
D) Neptune.
Q6) Suppose a small, new planet were discovered at a distance of 4 AU from the Sun. According to Kepler's third law, what would be its period?
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Q7) The Earth-centered model of the solar system is called the ______________ model.

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Q1) A lunar eclipse can occur only when the Moon is in or near the ______________ phase.
A) new
B) first-quarter
C) last-quarter
D) full
Q2) The full moon by definition occurs
A) for only a day.
B) for 7-3/8 days.
C) only for an instant.
D) only once every month.
Q3) The local solar time at 75°W is 12:00 noon. What is the longitude of an observer who sees the full moon on her meridian at this time?
Q4) Long-period comets are believed to come from the ______________.
Q5) ______________ is the largest known asteroid.
A) Pluto
B) Mars
C) Ceres
D) Vesta
E) Mercury
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Q1) Precipitation is measured with A) a psychrometer.
B) an anemometer.
C) a rain gauge.
D) a barometer.
Q2) The inventor of the mercury barometer was A) Newton.
B) Galileo.
C) Bergeron.
D) Torricelli.
Q3) Air circulation around a cyclone in the Northern Hemisphere as viewed from above is A) counterclockwise.
B) the same as in the Southern Hemisphere.
C) toward the center of the low-pressure area.
D) along isobars.
Q4) The relative humidity is 100% at the ______________ temperature.
Q5) Stratocumulus clouds belong to the ______________ cloud family.
Q6) Meteorologists commonly measure and report (on radio and television) pressure in units of ______________.
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Q1) What is the name of the surface along which rock formations move?
A) Fault plane
B) Transform plane
C) Tension plane
D) Fold plane
Q2) The three principal types of mountain building are volcanic, fault-block, and ______________.
Q3) The place, or zone, where one plate descends under another plate and into the asthenosphere is called a ______________ zone.
A) subduction
B) convection
C) Mohorovic
D) none of these
Q4) Pangaea is believed to have broken up about how many years ago?
A) 2000 million
B) 2 million
C) 20 million
D) 200 million
Q5) Mountains characterized by folded rock strata are known as ______________ mountains.
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Q1) Intrusive igneous rock formations that cut more or less vertically across older formations are said to be ______________.
A) recordant
B) discordant
C) concordant
D) precordant
Q2) About what percent of Earth's surface is covered by land?
A) 70%
B) 10%
C) 50%
D) 30%
Q3) Rhombohedral cleavage is displayed by the mineral named A) quartz.
B) fluorite.
C) calcite.
D) hematite.
Q4) Solids emitted by volcanoes can range in size from fine dust to boulders. Such solids are known collectively as ______________.
Q5) A general name for an intrusive igneous rock formation is ______________.
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Q1) The unsaturated zone of soil above the water table is known as the zone of A) permeability.
B) unsaturation.
C) presaturation.
D) aeration.
Q2) A river's suspended and bed loads may accumulate at its mouth and form A) a delta.
B) a meander.
C) a stream.
D) none of the above.
Q3) The most important climatic factors that affect the rate of chemical weathering are heat and ______________.
Q4) If a water sample contains 2 ppm of dissolved salt, it contains 2 g of salt in every ______________ g of water.
Q5) The physical disintegration and chemical decomposition of rock at or near Earth's surface is called
A) the disintegration chain.
B) erosion.
C) the decomposition cycle.
D) weathering.

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Q1) The time before the Phanerozoic eon is collectively called ______________ time.
Q2) Geologists have principally used which class of rocks for radiometric dating?
A) Sedimentary
B) Igneous
C) Foliated
D) Metamorphic
Q3) The Cretaceous is a(n)
A) epoch.
B) era.
C) eon.
D) period.
Q4) In Europe, the combined Mississippian and Pennsylvanian periods are known as the A) Carboniferous.
B) Devonian.
C) Pliocene.
D) Tertiary.
Q5) The Phanerozoic eon and the Paleozoic era began about ______________ million years ago.
Q6) The earliest (oldest) period in the Paleozoic era is the ______________.
Q7) Sea lilies are more scientifically called _________________.
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