

Contemporary Nutrition Test Questions
Course Introduction
Contemporary Nutrition explores the science of nutrition and its impact on human health, focusing on current topics, trends, and issues in the field. This course examines the role of nutrients in the body, dietary guidelines, food choices, and the connection between nutrition and chronic diseases such as obesity, diabetes, and cardiovascular disease. Students will analyze emerging research, evaluate popular diets, and discuss the influence of social, economic, and cultural factors on eating habits. Emphasis is placed on developing practical skills for making informed dietary decisions and promoting wellness in a rapidly changing food landscape.
Recommended Textbook
NUTR 1st Edition by Michelle McGuire
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15 Chapters
825 Verified Questions
825 Flashcards
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Page 2

Chapter 1: Why Does Nutrition Matter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Functional foods are foods that
A) are sterile.
B) are organic.
C) have a long shelf-life.
D) contain large concentrations of nutrients or phytochemicals or zoochemicals.
Answer: D
Q2) If an investigator designs an intervention study with a control group, that group will receive a _____ instead of the study treatment.
A) panacea
B) placebo
C) half-dose
D) None of the above
Answer: B
Q3) The relationship between the time children go to bed and the time the sun goes down is best described as
A) an intervention.
B) a cause-and-effect relationship.
C) a correlation.
D) an epidemiological relationship.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Choosing Foods Wisely
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nutrient deficiency and nutrient toxicity are examples of A) malnutrition.
B) overnutrition.
C) undernutrition.
D) normal day-to-day changes in nutritional status.
Answer: A
Q2) You can use _____ to find out how many servings of each food group would be needed to meet nutritional needs.
A) the USDA food patterns
B) the DRIs
C) the MyPlate food guide
D) All of the above
E) A and C
Answer: E
Q3) An Estimated Energy Requirement (EER) is
A) the average energy intake needed for a person to maintain a healthy weight.
B) calculated using age, sex, weight, height, and physical activity level.
C) expressed as kilocalories.
D) All of the above
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Body Basics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of mucus secretion by stomach cells is
A) to protect the stomach against damage from destructive chemicals secreted in gastric juice.
B) to initiate the digestion of foods.
C) to anchor foods against the stomach wall.
D) unknown.
Answer: A
Q2) Peristalsis is the
A) wavelike muscular contractions that propel food from one region of the GI tract to the next.
B) process of chewing food.
C) process of churning food in the stomach.
D) final muscular movement that results in the elimination of waste.
Answer: A
Q3) Secretions from the pancreas and gallbladder enter the small intestine in the A) duodenum.
B) jejunum.
C) ileum.
D) pyloric sphincter.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glucagon is released from the pancreas in response to A) low blood glucose levels.
B) high blood glucose levels.
C) an increase in food intake.
D) stress.
Q2) Insulin is released from the pancreas in response to
A) low blood glucose levels.
B) high blood glucose levels.
C) a reduction in food intake.
D) stress.
Q3) Catabolism of glucose yields 2 ATP molecules under _____ conditions, and about 36 ATP molecules under _____ conditions.
A) hyperglycemic, hypoglycemic
B) hypoglycemic, hyperglycemic
C) anaerobic, aerobic
D) aerobic, anaerobic
Q4) Diabetes mellitus is a group of metabolic disorders characterized by elevated levels of glucose in the blood.
A)True
B)False

Page 6
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Chapter 5: Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person's _____ is found inside the cell. In contrast, a person's _____ is what is outwardly apparent to another person.
A) genotype, phenotype
B) phenotype, genotype
C) DNA, protein profile
D) genetic mutation, genotype
Q2) Pepsinogen is an example of a proenzyme. This means it is
A) an inactive form an enzyme.
B) an enzyme needed for protein digestion.
C) a protease.
D) an enzyme that leads the way for a different enzyme to have activity.
Q3) Protein-rich food sources include meats, fish, nuts, and beans.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A person's _____ is largely determined by their _____.
A) phenotype, genotype
B) genotype, phenotype
C) height, phenotype
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Chapter 6: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lipoproteins all have similar structures. The outer surface of all lipoproteins consists of phospholipids, cholesterol, and at least one special protein called
A) an apolipoprotein.
B) a lipid transport protein.
C) a lipo-protein.
D) an activating protein.
Q2) During infancy, the ability to process the essential fatty acids to other fatty acids such as arachidonic acid and DHA may be impaired due to immature production of the required enzymes. In this situation, arachidonic acid and DHA are considered
A) dispensable.
B) nonessential.
C) conditionally essential.
D) provisionally essential.
Q3) Eicosanoids are hormone-like compounds produced from A) saturated fatty acids.
B) the essential fatty acids.
C) omega-3 fatty acids.
D) omega-6 fatty acids.
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8
Chapter 7: The Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) The condition of thiamin deficiency is called A) beriberi.
B) scurvy.
C) pellagra.
D) anemia.
Q2) Adequate folate intake during pregnancy can help to prevent A) neural tube defects.
B) preterm labor.
C) morning sickness.
Q3) According to the FDA, a dietary supplement is a product that contains vitamins, minerals, or other compounds. A supplement is intended to A) replace certain foods in the diet.
B) replace certain meals in the diet.
C) supplement the diet.
D) increase the potency of a typical multivitamin supplement.
Q4) The form of vitamin A important for vision is A) retinol.
B) retinal.
C) retinoic acid.
D) beta-carotene.

Page 9
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Chapter 8: Water and the Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) In response to renin,
A) angiotensin II is converted to angiotensin I.
B) aldosterone cleaves angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I.
C) angiotensin II stimulates the adrenal glands to secrete aldosterone.
D) aldosterone stimulates the adrenal glands to secrete angiotensin II.
Q2) The majority of fluid in the body is located
A) in the blood.
B) inside cells.
C) outside cells.
D) in tissues.
Q3) A primary role for iron in the human body is to
A) become incorporated in to bone.
B) regulate cell membrane permeability.
C) transport oxygen in the blood.
D) become incorporated into connective tissue.
Q4) Only women are susceptible to age-related bone loss.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Energy Balance and Body Weight Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Central obesity is best described as
A) the predominant accumulation of subcutaneous adipose tissue around the torso.
B) the predominant accumulation of visceral adipose tissue within the torso.
C) the classic "pear shape" of adipose tissue distribution.
D) the accumulation of adipose tissue around the brainstem and spinal cord.
Q2) The premise of low-fat, high-carbohydrate weight-loss diets includes all of the following except:
A) Lower fat intake results in lower energy intake since fat contains more calories per gram than carbohydrates or proteins..
B) High-fat foods are more flavorful, leading to greater intake.
C) Storage of fat is extremely efficient; therefore, consuming less means less efficient fat storage.
D) High carbohydrate intake reduces the desire for fat-containing foods.
Q3) In response to changes in body fat mass, the brain signals changes in food intake but not energy expenditure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Life Cycle Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why should dehydration always be considered when assessing older adults?
A) Because of a blunted thirst response that develops during aging
B) Because certain medications may increase fluid losses
C) Because some older adults may limit fluid intake due to poor bladder control
D) All of the above
Q2) Breastfeeding shortly after birth is beneficial for the mother because it
A) initiates menstruation quickly after birth.
B) stimulates the uterus to contract and return to its pre-pregnancy size.
C) maintains the weight gain experienced during pregnancy to support milk production.
D) results in 100% protection against getting pregnant until the termination of breastfeeding.
Q3) In order to support infant needs, it is recommended that infant formulas consumed prior to 1 year of age contain
A) cow milk.
B) human milk.
C) iron and DHA.
D) cow milk treated with antibiotics.
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Chapter 11: Nutrition and Physical Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major difference between anaerobic and aerobic pathways is that
A) anaerobic pathways can generate a tremendous amount of ATP over an extended period of time.
B) anaerobic pathways use a mixture of fuels to generate ATP.
C) aerobic pathways use a mixture of fuels to generate ATP.
D) anaerobic pathways can utilize stored fat to generate ATP.
Q2) The creatine phosphate system can supply all the energy needed for activities that take several minutes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Two main concerns for people who participate in athletics are
A) to consume adequate fluids and calories.
B) to maintain a low body mass or maintain weight.
C) to maximize fat stores to ensure ATP production
D) to optimize water consumption and obtain vitamins and minerals from supplements rather than food.
Q4) Muscles that are not frequently challenged by physical activity undergo hypertrophy.
A)True
B)False

13
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Chapter 12: Disordered Eating
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electrolyte imbalances, nutrient deficiencies, impaired thermoregulation, and growth of lanugo are some of the outcomes associated with A) binge eating.
B) bulimia nervosa.
C) anorexia nervosa.
D) muscle dysmorphia.
Q2) A person with an eating disorder is likely to think about food
A) only when it's time for a food ritual.
B) all the time.
C) only around the holidays.
D) when and if the new food is introduced.
Q3) Tooth decay can be a sign of bulimia nervosa because A) of malnutrition.
B) the acidity of gastric juice damages enamel.
C) binging on sweets can be bad for your teeth.
D) poor personal hygiene is a characteristic of someone with bulimia.
Q4) Someone with bulimia nervosa will always purge by vomiting.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Alcohol, Health, and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who among the following categories should completely avoid drinking alcohol?
A) Pregnant women
B) Lactating women
C) People operating machinery
D) All of the above
Q2) The primary site of alcohol absorption is
A) the mouth.
B) the stomach.
C) the small intestine.
D) the large intestine.
Q3) Alcohol must be broken down through digestion prior to being absorbed into the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When alcohol contributes to nutrient deficiencies it is because it interferes with the _____ of nutrients.
A) digestion
B) absorption
C) utilization
D) All of the above

Page 15
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Chapter 14: Keeping Food Safe
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Sample Questions
Q1) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
A) results from normal Staphylococcus aureus growth and division.
B) is resistant to bacterial toxins.
C) is an antibiotic-resistant strain of Staphylococcus aureus.
D) is a benign strain of Staphylococcus aureus.
Q2) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus cannot be spread by consumption of contaminated foods.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pathogens that produce preformed toxins include Staphylococcus aureus, Clostridium botulinum, and _____.
A) Aspergillus
B) the norovirus
C) Salmonella
D) Giardia intestinalis
Q4) Enteric toxins or intestinal toxins
A) are formed by organisms after they enter the GI tract.
B) are consumed in foods.
C) are toxins produced in the intestinal tract to fight bacteria.
D) are destroyed by heat in cooking.

Page 16
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Chapter 15: Food Security, Hunger, and Malnutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The range of causes of food insecurity throughout the world that makes the problem so challenging to address includes all of the following except:
A) political climate and economic policy.
B) population growth and life stage.
C) insufficient food available to feed every person.
D) ethnicity and gender.
Q2) It is estimated that malnutrition causes _____ percent of deaths in infants and young children worldwide.
A) 15
B) 30
C) 45
D) 60
Q3) According to the U.S. Department of Labor, American households spend _____ per person on food each week.
A) $11
B) $22
C) $44
D) $88
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