Contemporary Management Question
Bank
Course Introduction
Contemporary Management explores modern theories, tools, and practices that drive effective management in todays dynamic organizations. The course examines the roles and responsibilities of managers, focusing on planning, organizing, leading, and controlling in a rapidly changing, global business environment. Students analyze real-world cases to understand how factors such as technology, diversity, ethics, and sustainability influence managerial decision-making. Emphasis is placed on developing practical leadership, critical thinking, and communication skills to solve current organizational challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Management An Integrated Approach 2nd Edition by Ranjay Gulati
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Harriet, a manager of a steel company, wants to design formal processes and systems to deal with the firm's various stakeholders. Which of the following tools will best serve this purpose?
A) Stakeholder mapping
B) Scientific management
C) Strategic positioning
D) Trend analysis
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following individuals is the best example of a frontline supervisor?
A) A person who, along with other senior executives, develops the organization's strategy using conceptual skills
B) A person who develops and motivates his team using interpersonal skills
C) A person who focuses on technical issues to ensure that operations are running smoothly
D) A person who sets the vision and objectives of an organization
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Global Business Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ was formed to deal with the rules of trade between nations and is responsible for negotiating and implementing new trade agreements and policing member countries' adherence to them.
A) General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
B) World Trade Organization
C) Association of South East Asian Nations
D) European Union
Answer: B
Q2) In contrast to the dimensions of the task environment, the general environment has the ability to exert a greater and more immediate influence over a firm.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Social values often pose a much lesser challenge than language barriers for a company wanting to expand globally.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Ethics and Corporate Social Responsibility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain economic responsibilities of a firm.
Answer: Economic responsibilities refer to a business's duty to make a profit and increase shareholder value. Business institutions are the basic economic units in society; therefore, they have a duty to produce goods and services that people want and to sell them at a profit. Everything else in business is built on this fundamental assumption. Companies engage in a variety of activities to increase profits, both directly and indirectly. Direct activities can include decreasing production costs and improving efficiency. Indirect actions refer to the intangible things that, over time, improve economic performance.
Q2) Milton Friedman believed that a firm's exclusive duty is to
A) maximize its profits within the law.
B) implement CSR practices to be consumer friendly.
C) implement CSR practices to maximize profits.
D) use CSR to develop socialism
Answer: A
Q3) In business, members of a partnership are fiduciaries to one another.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Introduction to Strategy
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Sample Questions
Q1) XYZ Company sells the same standard product in all nations throughout the world. This is an example of a(n)
A) multinational strategy.
B) global strategy.
C) international strategy.
D) transnational strategy.
Q2) In the formulation of strategy, managers must create a solid fit among the activities to
A) make a competitive strategy that is different from others.
B) offer a service that cannot be easily copied by competitors.
C) decide what the company will not be doing.
D) operate more effectively than its competitors.
Q3) For a fee, Green Health Supplements, Inc. (GHS) allowed another company in Britain to use its formula for a men's tonic. In this case, GHS is using which of the following market entry strategies?
A) Exporting
B) Licensing and franchising
C) Joint venture
D) Wholly owned subsidiaries
Q4) Outline the features of exporting.
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Chapter 5: Business-Level Strategy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inside Patagonia, Inc., there is a culture that encourages innovation and risk taking. Employees are encouraged to experiment with products and fabrics to produce better designs. In addition, Patagonia encourages employees to leave work early to surf or rock-climb. Patagonia is likely using a
A) differentiation strategy.
B) cost leadership strategy.
C) low-cost focus strategy.
D) stuck in the middle strategy.
Q2) Which of the following belongs to the primary activities of a firm's value chain?
A) Technological development
B) Human resource management
C) Firm infrastructure
D) Marketing and sales
Q3) Define value chain analysis. Discuss the two types of activities in a firm's value chain.
Q4) What are the tangible and intangible resources of an organization? Give examples.
Q5) Describe the three strategies of competitive advantage.
Q6) Outline the features of SWOT analysis.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Corporate-Level Strategy
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Q1) Foxx Company wished to share resources with Chixx Company. An analysis of their potential relationship passed both the better-off test and the ownership test. The managers of Foxx Company should
A) enter into a partnership with Chixx Company.
B) enter into a joint venture with Chixx Company.
C) enter into a strategic alliance with Chixx Company.
D) purchase a controlling interest in Chixx Company.
Q2) The ultimate goal of an unrelated diversification strategy is usually to create some form of financial economies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Footflyer Publishing is considering procuring editorial services from outside sources. Which of the following should NOT weigh in Footflyer's decision?
A) The administrative costs of keeping this function in-house
B) The transaction costs of procuring the outside services
C) The economies of scope achieved through vertical integration with another publisher
D) Possible damage to the firm's core competencies
Q4) Define diversification and describe its types.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Organizational Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is defined as the pattern of organizational roles, relationships, and procedures that enable coordinated action among employees.
A) Organizational structure
B) Value chain
C) Synergy
D) Organizational culture
Q2) Which of the following statements is an advantage of a network structure?
A) It is quite inexpensive for virtual teams to use communication technology.
B) It enables a firm to move quickly to adapt to a change in the marketplace.
C) Virtual teams often require less coordination.
D) It promotes greater accountability than divisional structure.
Q3) The factor that distinguishes functional organizational structure from divisional is that
A) a functional structure is organized around the outputs a firm produces.
B) a functional structure is best suited to deal with environmental change.
C) a functional structure groups diverse functions into separate divisions.
D) a functional structure is organized in terms of the main activities to be performed.
Q4) Define organizational structure and briefly describe its types.
Q5) Outline the five customer-centric activities of an organization.
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Chapter 8: Organizational Culture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the best example of an organization with a strong culture?
A) TechPark is a company characterized by low levels of agreement among employees about what is valued in the organization.
B) The employees of Z-Gadgets, a manufacturing company, experience role ambiguity and therefore they require more coordination and monitoring.
C) The performance of ElectronicZone tends to fluctuate, wherein it's good under stable environments and very poor under turbulent environments.
D) Z-Furn's organizational culture is very flexible and can be easily changed in response to changing environments.
Q2) Describe three elements that can be helpful in assessing a firm's culture.
Q3) Evaluate the importance of culture in mergers and acquisitions.
Q4) The embedded nature of culture often makes change very difficult even in the face of strong competitive pressures.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Analyze the ways in which a strong culture can affect a firm's performance.
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Chapter 9: Managing Human Capital
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a disadvantage of realistic job previews?
A) Communicate only positive job aspects
B) Result in smaller pool of applicants
C) Provide poor job description
D) Cause increase in turnover
Q2) Eris Company is managing employees by outlining a series of specific milestones that they are expected to meet in a defined time period. Eris is utilizing
A) off-the-job training.
B) management by objectives.
C) Total Quality Management.
D) 360-degree feedback.
Q3) Which of the following questions should individuals address when making decisions about their career?
A) What are my strengths and values?
B) Who is my role model?
C) With whom will I work effectively?
D) From whom should I learn?
Q4) Outline the different methods of training.
Q5) What are the guidelines managers should follow when downsizing?
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Chapter 10: Performance Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the two primary areas in which leaders take corrective action.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about the various customer metrics?
A) The new customer metric is measured by the total number of positive feedbacks received from new and existing customers.
B) Some companies find it valuable to monitor the amount customers spend on their products relative to all other products.
C) Retaining existing customers to maintain or increase market share is not an easy task.
D) Customer satisfaction is one of the metrics that is the most objective and quantitative.
Q3) Which of the following statements about the balanced scorecard is true?
A) It helps managers create a set of quantitative and qualitative measurements that are related and mutually reinforcing.
B) It does not enable managers to make any qualitative measurements.
C) A company with many business units needs only a single balanced scorecard.
D) Company mission plays an instrumental role in the balanced scorecard.
Q4) Discuss TQM, Six Sigma, and ISO 9000.
Q5) What is a balanced scorecard? Briefly describe its perspectives.
Q6) Describe benchmarking.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Organizational Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a company meeting, Peter, the CEO, is pointing to disappointing sales results and to the ways competitors in the industry are gaining competitive advantages. Peter is in what stage of the change process?
A) Creating dissatisfaction
B) Communicating a change model
C) Developing an implementation process
D) Creating a desirable model
Q2) Leaders must not allow employees affected by change to vent their frustrations or concerns.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following creates the spark needed to begin the change process?
A) Innovation
B) Differentiation
C) Dissatisfaction
D) Inertia
Q4) Define organizational change and briefly explain how change can be driven by external factors.
Q5) Briefly describe the change process.
Q6) Discuss the factors causing resistance to organizational change.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Leadership in Organizations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Esther avoids micromanaging and allows subordinates to work autonomously. She takes action only when work falls below standards, allowing subordinates to learn from mistakes and become more functionally independent. Esther is demonstrating
A) active CR.
B) passive CR.
C) active MBE.
D) passive MBE.
Q2) Which of the following aspects characterizes transformational leaders?
A) Extreme task orientation
B) Time and resource management
C) Passive management-by-exception
D) Individualized consideration
Q3) Roberto has an employee who is excited and passionate about her position but has not developed the necessary skills to be successful. Based on Hersey and Blanchard's situational theory, Roberto should
A) be directive.
B) act as a guide.
C) focus on delegation.
D) offer support.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Becoming a Leader: Knowing Yourself
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes Robert Sternberg's contextual intelligence component of the triarchic theory?
A) The ability to generate novel or unique propositions, ideas, or solutions
B) The ability to generate many solutions that fit some requirement
C) The ability to shape and be shaped by the external environment
D) The ability to identify and react to novel situations and stimuli
Q2) Which of the following statements best describes self-monitoring?
A) The ability to generate novel or unique propositions, ideas, or solutions
B) The ability to profit from experience and adapt to changes in the environment
C) The ability of individuals to read cues from their environment to assess their behavior
D) The ability to acknowledge and take responsibility for one's role in cultivating relationships
Q3) The ability to communicate effectively with others is called self-awareness.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Outline the components of emotional intelligence.
Q5) Emotionally intelligent leaders talk more than they listen.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Power and Influence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Outline the different forms of interpersonal power.
Q2) Which of the following is a component of personal power according to Whetten and Cameron?
A) Flexibility
B) Relevance
C) Expertise
D) Visibility
Q3) One way in which weaker parties can gain strength and power in organizations is through the formation of coalitions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Susan completed tasks that were assigned but without a sense of excitement or personal buy-in. Susan demonstrated which type of reaction to power?
A) Commitment
B) Active resistance
C) Compliance
D) Passive resistance
Q5) List four of the factors that are required for sustaining power.
Q6) Briefly describe the reactions to power.
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Chapter 15: Decision Making
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Sample Questions
Q1) A model of decision making that seeks to maximize economic or other outcomes using a rational choice process is known as the _____ model.
A) garbage can
B) political
C) classical
D) administrative
Q2) Which of the following models does not view a decision process as a sequence of steps that begins with a problem and ends with a solution?
A) Classical model
B) Administrative model
C) Political model
D) Garbage can model
Q3) The managers, who had bargained and built coalitions with other managers in order to arrive at a decision on how the division would be restructured, were following which model of decision making?
A) Classical model
B) Administrative model
C) Political model
D) Garbage can model
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Conflict and Negotiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) John and Joseph are the finance executives in an organization. They are presently working on a project together. John is task-oriented, and he works hard to complete the project on time. However, Joseph takes his time and tends to ignore the project deadline.
As a result, John has a conflict with Joseph and warns him that he'll complain about him to the department head. This scenario is an example of _____ conflict.
A) cognitive
B) role
C) affective
D) intergroup
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of an integrative negotiation?
A) Creating value for both negotiators
B) Lack of interpersonal trust
C) What one wins, the other loses
D) Focus on a single issue
Q3) What is interpersonal and intergroup conflict? Outline the theories explaining intergroup conflict.
Q4) Discuss negotiating in egalitarian and heirarchical cultures.
Q5) Describe affective and cognitive conflict.
Q6) List the steps involved in an effective negotiation process.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Leading Teams
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Q1) Which of the following is the best example of a geographically distributed team?
A) Jane, Jack, and Maria, team members with different cultural backgrounds, are responsible for contributing information to a project based on cultural diversity.
B) Mike, a project head, developed a team of middle managers from the marketing, finance, and production departments to work on a project together.
C) Sam, Ben, and Nick are team members working from three different locations on the same project, relying mainly on telephone calls, e-mails, and videoconferencing to interact with each other.
D) Tom, a manager in the marketing department, had Jim and Jake, project members who came from another country, reporting to him on the progress of an ongoing project.
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of teams?
A) They deal with simple tasks.
B) Members work independently on tasks.
C) They have clear task objectives.
D) There is no specific timeline for task completion.
Q3) Identify and describe the behaviors of effective team leaders.
Q4) Describe manager-led teams.
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19
Chapter 18: Motivation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the features of reinforcement theory.
Q2) The human resources department sought to design jobs that have distinct and important roles in the organization, that are meaningful, and that foster a sense of contribution to the organization so as to fulfill employees' drive to A) acquire.
B) bond.
C) comprehend.
D) defend.
Q3) Differentiate extrinsic and intrinsic rewards of motivation. Give examples.
Q4) The _____ theory, proposed by Abraham Maslow, states that individuals have multiple needs that must be fulfilled in a specific order to ensure the greatest level of satisfaction.
A) acquired needs
B) hierarchy of needs
C) four-drive
D) two-factor
Q5) Discuss the process theories of motivation.
Q6) Identify the characteristics of managers who conform to Douglas McGregor's Theory Y.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the most compelling ways to build a personal connection is through storytelling.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Joe, the marketing manager, provided a sales manual to his sales personnel containing protocols to be followed in all sales situations. This is an example of _____ communication.
A) filtered horizontal
B) downward vertical
C) interdepartmental horizontal
D) upward vertical
Q3) Which of the following statements best describes interpersonal communication?
A) Communication that occurs in one-on-one or small group settings
B) The use of body language and objects to convey meaning to messages
C) A process of offering advice and suggestions and relating similar experiences
D) Communication that involves using sounds, letters, words, pictures, and symbols
Q4) Aristotle believed that pathos was the most important element of persuasion.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sandy is a very competent technical expert, but her coworkers will not go to her for advice, seeking out the more likable, albeit less competent, Bob instead. From this scenario, we can infer that Sandy is a
A) lovable star.
B) competent jerk.
C) incompetent jerk.
D) lovable fool.
Q2) Trust networks often reveal the pattern of linkages between employees who talk about work-related matters on a regular basis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Define networking. How can one build diverse networks?
Q4) Networks characterized by breadth tend to have many non-redundant contacts that provide access to a wide range of potential opportunities.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the three types of interpersonal networks.
Q6) Briefly describe the strength of ties.
Q7) What are networking clubs? What are their purpose and how do they differ?
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