

Contemporary Management Issues
Textbook Exam Questions

Course Introduction
Contemporary Management Issues explores the evolving challenges and complexities faced by managers in todays dynamic business environment. The course examines topics such as globalization, technological advancements, ethical dilemmas, diversity and inclusion, sustainability, and crisis management. Students will analyze real-world cases, evaluate current trends, and develop practical solutions for managing change, fostering innovation, and leading effectively in uncertain contexts. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking and strategic decision-making to equip future managers with the skills necessary to navigate contemporary organizational landscapes.
Recommended Textbook Management An Integrated Approach 2nd Edition by Ranjay Gulati
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Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction to Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following refers to the systematic assessment of the external environment to prepare for a possible range of alternative futures for the organization?
A) Scenario building
B) Trend analysis
C) Contingency planning
D) Environmental scanning
Answer: C
Q2) The interaction between the formulation of strategy, the design of the organization, and the leadership of the firm is a linear process.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) According to the contingent view
A) organizations must be understood as systems of interdependent human beings.
B) jobs must be designed to improve productivity using industrial engineering methods.
C) coordination should take place through a strict hierarchy of authority.
D) the organization's structure should fit the firm's environment.
Answer: D
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3

Chapter 2: The Global Business Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A firm's task environment includes
A) owners and the board of directors.
B) competitors, suppliers, and customers.
C) employees and culture.
D) economic and sociocultural factors.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is the best example of Hofstede's long- versus short-term orientation dimension?
A) People in Erbia believed that competition, ambition, and accumulation of wealth are typical masculine qualities.
B) The members of a particular society often prefer more rules and structure and are incapable to adapt to quick changes.
C) In an organization, it is mandatory for managers to make decisions by giving more importance to the future than the present.
D) The host country employees of an organization prefer to unquestionably abide by the rules of the top management.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Ethics and Corporate Social Responsibility
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Sample Questions
Q1) CSR is considered strategic when it supports core business activities that contribute to a firm's mission, vision, and strategy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Leslie has been hired as an executive to make decisions on behalf of the company and its shareholders. Leslie is now in a(n)
A) fiduciary relationship with the shareholders.
B) ordinary business relationship with the company.
C) CSR relationship with the company and its shareholders.
D) utilitarian relationship with the company and its shareholders.
Answer: A
Q3) Commonly, firms tend to fulfill their legal responsibilities by
A) complying with laws, anticipating future laws, and avoiding civil litigation.
B) investing heavily in CSR and fulfilling ethical responsibilities.
C) creating a productive workforce and maintaining employment standards.
D) striving to improve shareholder value.
Answer: A
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5

Chapter 4: Introduction to Strategy
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Q1) Strategies that combine elements of multinational and global strategies by using foreign subsidiaries to produce and distribute products are known as
A) business-level strategies.
B) international strategies.
C) corporate-level strategies.
D) transnational strategies.
Q2) Green Health Supplements, Inc. (GHS) produces all of its products in the United States. It is trying to expand globally by shipping its products to foreign distributors. GHS has which of the following market entry strategies?
A) Exporting
B) Licensing and franchising
C) Joint venture
D) Wholly owned subsidiaries
Q3) According to the Roman military strategists, strategy was considered as A) the manager's "game plan" to attain personal gain.
B) represented by the specific moves or actions their armies performed.
C) a plan of action designed to achieve a specific goal.
D) a plan not usually aimed at creating a military advantage.
Q4) Outline the features of exporting.
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Chapter 5: Business-Level Strategy
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Q1) Rivalry among existing competitors is higher when
A) fixed costs are low and marginal costs are high.
B) exit barriers are low.
C) industry growth is slow.
D) the product is not perishable.
Q2) Primary activities of a firm's value chain refers to
A) the activities completed to improve a firm's product and the processes used to manufacture it.
B) the activities involved with recruiting, hiring, training, developing, and compensating all personnel.
C) the activities such as general management, planning, finance, accounting, legal support, and governmental relations.
D) the activities involved in the physical creation of a product and its sale and transfer to the buyer.
Q3) First-mover advantage occurs when a firm is first to offer desirable products or services that secure customer loyalty.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the three strategies of competitive advantage.
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Chapter 6: Corporate-Level Strategy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The management of an automobile manufacturing company signed a contract with a consultancy that provides recruitment services. Though the organization was performing this function on its own previously, the management felt that the consultancy would offer a better service. Which of the following alternatives to vertical integration has the management opted?
A) Franchising
B) Exporting
C) Outsourcing
D) Licensing
Q2) In vertical integration, backward integration occurs when a firm
A) owns or controls the inputs it uses.
B) owns the distribution channels for its main products.
C) controls the primary activities involved.
D) controls the customers for its products.
Q3) The ultimate goal of an unrelated diversification strategy is usually to create some form of financial economies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why do managers pursue diversification strategies?
Q5) Define diversification and describe its types.
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Chapter 7: Organizational Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the concepts of division of labor and scope of position.
Q2) Starbucks joining forces with Pepsi to distribute its cold Frappuccino products to retail/grocery outlets is an example of pursuing customer-centricity through A) cooperation.
B) capability development.
C) clout.
D) connection.
Q3) Define organizational structure and briefly describe its types.
Q4) Which of the following statements about the divisional structure is true?
A) Coordination among functions in a divisional structure is less fluid than it is in a functional structure.
B) It allows for greater accountability because each division is a separate self-contained entity.
C) The general manager of a functional form has a broader purpose than the general manager in the divisional form.
D) Employees tend to identify more with their function than with their division.
Q5) Describe the clan approach.
Q6) Discuss organizational design and the life-cycle of a firm.
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Chapter 8: Organizational Culture
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Q1) When Ms. Chase interviews prospective employees, she shows them the office layout, the work space, the game room, and the professional awards displayed in the lobby. In doing so, she is sharing the _____ of the company's culture.
A) artifacts
B) values
C) beliefs
D) assumptions
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of an organization's culture?
A) Culture is unchangeable.
B) Culture is unrelated to performance.
C) Culture is dynamic.
D) A company's culture can be easily copied by competitors.
Q3) Which of the following best describes an organization's artifacts?
A) Day-to-day behaviors that can be observed
B) The underlying essence of why members of an organization act as they do
C) Relational factors between an organization's culture and its performance
D) Aspects deemed important by members of an organization
Q4) Analyze the ways in which a strong culture can affect a firm's performance.
Q5) Evaluate the importance of culture in mergers and acquisitions.
Q6) Discuss the role of founders in influencing a firm's culture.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Managing Human Capital
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Sample Questions
Q1) A-Recruitz is an organization that allows its employees to work from home. Most of the interaction between the employees and the organization takes place through e-mail. Moreover, the organization is able to maintain increased employee performance and satisfaction. Identify the work option offered by A-Recruitz to its employees.
A) Variable work schedules
B) Flexible work schedules
C) Telecommuting
D) Job sharing
Q2) Humanix, Inc.allows its employees to make their own choices from a wide array of benefit options. Humanix has a
A) profit-sharing plan.
B) cafeteria plan.
C) flexible work option.
D) gain-sharing plan.
Q3) A crucial part of employee development is providing feedback.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the benefits of internal recruitment?
Q5) Outline the different methods of training.
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Chapter 10: Performance Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the ultimate goal of Total Quality Management?
A) Producing sustainable revenue
B) Setting strategic priorities
C) Fulfilling customer needs
D) Improving employee performance
Q2) Which of the following is the first step involved in benchmarking?
A) Harvesting and analyzing data
B) Finding the best companies for each process
C) Identifying the processes to benchmark
D) Creating plans for improvement
Q3) The accounting system used to assess the specific cost components of producing a product or service is known as
A) economic value added.
B) return on equity.
C) activity-based costing.
D) economies of scale.
Q4) Explain the four key activities of the control cycle.
Q5) Describe the two primary areas in which leaders take corrective action.
Q6) Discuss TQM, Six Sigma, and ISO 9000.
Q7) Describe benchmarking.
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Chapter 11: Organizational Change
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Q1) Which of the following creates the spark needed to begin the change process?
A) Innovation
B) Differentiation
C) Dissatisfaction
D) Inertia
Q2) Which of the following statements about globalization is true?
A) Customization becomes easy as global competitors seek production efficiencies.
B) Globalization has led to rivals coming from afar into home markets.
C) It is not necessary for firms to customize their products to expand globally.
D) Globalization hasn't changed the dynamics of the workforce.
Q3) Color Cosmetics, whose target market comprises only female customers, has now introduced a new range of products for the male population. It came up with new strategies and advertisements to reach the new target market. It did so to maintain a competitive advantage in the industry. Which of the following strategies did the company apply to compete more effectively?
A) Globalization
B) Environmental scanning
C) Organizational change
D) Strategic review process
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Leadership in Organizations
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Q1) Which of the following refers to the "Great Man" theory?
A) A theory of leadership that explains leadership by examining the traits and characteristics of renowned leaders of human history
B) A theory in which leaders are more effective depending on the favorability of a leadership situation, which is described by leader-member relations and task structure
C) A theory of leadership in which leaders treat each member differently, and as a result, develop unique relationships with each member
D) A theory of leadership that tries to reveal a set of universal traits and skills that are relevant in all leadership situations
Q2) Esther avoids micromanaging and allows subordinates to work autonomously. She takes action only when work falls below standards, allowing subordinates to learn from mistakes and become more functionally independent. Esther is demonstrating A) active CR.
B) passive CR.
C) active MBE.
D) passive MBE.
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14

Chapter 13: Becoming a Leader: Knowing Yourself
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Q1) According to Robert McCrae and Paul Costa's leadership personality traits, agreeableness
A) is the tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active and to experience things positively.
B) is the tendency to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle.
C) involves being open to experiences and willing to be original, imaginative, and autonomous.
D) is the ability to remain calm and confident, especially in times of crisis.
Q2) Introverted people often perform better when their tasks relate to engaging and developing relationships with others.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Susan has a high internal sense of control and is more likely to
A) prefer more directive supervision.
B) be less participatory.
C) be self-motivated.
D) exhibit lower levels of satisfaction.
Q4) Briefly explain Howard Gardner's multiple intelligences.
Q5) Outline the components of emotional intelligence.
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Chapter 14: Power and Influence
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Q1) According to Whetten and Cameron, power that comes from an individual's formal place within an organization's structure is known as _____ power.
A) positional
B) referent
C) personal
D) relational
Q2) Which of the following is a component of personal power according to Whetten and Cameron?
A) Flexibility
B) Relevance
C) Expertise
D) Visibility
Q3) Manny shared power with his subordinates, pushing decision making and implementation to the lowest possible level. By doing so, he was
A) discouraging compliance.
B) shirking his own managerial duties.
C) developing leadership skills in his subordinates.
D) using the law of reciprocity.
Q4) Briefly describe the reactions to power.
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Chapter 15: Decision Making
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Q1) Identifying a few possible courses of action is the first step involved in the rational decision-making process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Martin decided to hire Ann for the associate's position because she reminded him of a former associate who had excelled in the position. Martin has used which of the following heuristics?
A) Availability
B) Adjustment
C) Representativeness
D) Playfulness
Q3) Differentiate between programmed and nonprogrammed decisions.
Q4) Which of the following is the first step in rational decision making?
A) Identifying possible courses of action
B) Identifying the objectives
C) Defining a problem or opportunity
D) Computing the optimal decision
Q5) Define the theory of rational choice and list the steps involved in the rational decision-making process.
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Chapter 16: Conflict and Negotiation
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Q1) Which of the following situations is the best example of an interpersonal conflict?
A) An organization's marketing team had a conflict with the production team due to the delay in the arrival of finished products.
B) The employees in an organization had a conflict with their employer for not improving their work environment, which is highly hazardous and unhygienic.
C) Jane and Jack, executives of a firm's finance department, had a conflict with their teammate, John, who failed to submit an important report on time.
D) A cosmetics manufacturing company had a conflict with its competitor when the competitor made false negative statements about the company's products.
Q2) Which of the following statements about negotiating across cultures is true?
A) In high-context cultures, information is explicit and meaning is clear.
B) People in low-context cultures prefer to communicate directly.
C) People in hierarchical cultures are more comfortable with confrontation.
D) Individualistic cultures support collective interests above individual rights.
Q3) List the steps involved in an effective negotiation process.
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18
Chapter 17: Leading Teams
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Q1) Which of the following is the best example of a team in the storming stage of development?
A) A team that has completed its task and dispersed, with some members feeling sad at the separation from the team on which they have been so dependent
B) A team with members arguing with each other due to interpersonal issues arising from differences in the perspectives of each team member
C) A team with members sharing their personal opinion with others and group members being more open to one another's ideas and suggestions
D) A team that comes together and team members get to know about their tasks and responsibilities and each of their team member's competencies
Q2) The factor that differentiates work groups from teams is that work groups
A) possess the authority to manage their own work processes.
B) involve individual accountability and clearly defined leadership.
C) involve individuals working together to achieve a common goal.
D) are preferred when the task is complex and sophisticated.
Q3) Identify and describe the behaviors of effective team leaders.
Q4) What defines a team, and under what conditions is the use of teams appropriate?
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19

Chapter 18: Motivation
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Q1) The _____ theory, proposed by Abraham Maslow, states that individuals have multiple needs that must be fulfilled in a specific order to ensure the greatest level of satisfaction.
A) acquired needs
B) hierarchy of needs
C) four-drive
D) two-factor
Q2) Which of the following statements about the goal-setting theory is true?
A) Tight deadlines for goal completion lead to a more rapid work pace.
B) Difficult goals often tend to direct attention toward goal-irrelevant activities.
C) Difficult goals generally lead to lesser effort, persistency, and focus.
D) Easily achievable goals are the significant motivators of performance.
Q3) According to Douglas McGregor, managers who conform to Theory X tend to use a blend of extrinsic and intrinsic rewards to motivate employees.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Differentiate extrinsic and intrinsic rewards of motivation. Give examples.
Q5) Discuss the process theories of motivation.
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Page 20

Chapter 19: Communication
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of an empathetic listener?
A) Angel attempts to share with the speaker the feelings and concerns that underlie the message by counseling the speaker, asking, "How did that make you feel?"
B) Carla tends to listen to instructions, briefings, and other important information without performing other tasks.
C) Ronnie refrains from making any verbal or nonverbal responses when someone else is talking.
D) Renaldo responds to speakers with vocal noises such as "ah" and "uh-huh" when speakers say things with which he agrees.
Q2) Edward, the head of human resources, needs to remind employees of an important approaching deadline. Which of the following communication media should Edward use to convey this message?
A) Videoconferencing
B) In-person meeting
C) Recorded message
D) Electronic mail
Q3) Briefly describe communication networks.
Q4) Define persuasion. List the principles for enhancing persuasion.
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Chapter 20: Networking
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Q1) Which of the following networks allows employees to share sensitive information and support one another in a crisis?
A) Trust networks
B) Communication networks
C) Advice networks
D) Diverse networks
Q2) Social capital is not only beneficial to individuals within organizations but also to those organizations themselves.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to Brian Uzzi and Shannon Dunlap, which of the following is the first step in building a useful internal network?
A) Cultivating brokers
B) Mapping your network
C) Sharing information
D) Forging better connections
Q4) Define networking. How can one build diverse networks?
Q5) Briefly describe the strength of ties.
Q6) Discuss the three types of interpersonal networks.
Page 22
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