Contemporary Issues in Criminal Justice Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores current trends, challenges, and debates within the field of criminal justice, focusing on how contemporary social, legal, and political dynamics shape policy and practice. Students examine topics such as criminal justice reform, mass incarceration, racial disparities, policing strategies, technological advancements, and responses to terrorism and cybercrime. Through case studies, discussions, and analysis of recent research, the course encourages critical thinking about justice, equity, and public safety in modern society, preparing students to engage with and address the pressing issues facing the justice system today.
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CJ2 2nd Edition by Larry K. Gaines
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Criminal Justice Today
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Q1) Explain the difference between deviance and crime.
Answer: -Deviance is behavior that does not conform to the norms of a given community or society. It is a very subjective concept, in that some segments of society may think that some acceptable behaviors are really deviant behaviors. -Deviant acts become crimes only when society as a whole, through its legislatures, determines that those acts should be punished.
Q2) Which model assumes that a diverse group of people can have similar morals; that is, they share an ideal of what is "right" and "wrong"?
A) crime control model
B) due process model
C) conflict model
D) consensus model
Answer: D
Q3) The federal agency with the primary responsibility for combating white-collar crime, organized crime, and cyber crime is the Federal Bureau of Investigation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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3
Chapter 2: Causes of Crime
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Q1) Causation between two variables means that they tend to vary together.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A school of criminology that holds that wrongdoers act as if they weigh the possible benefits of criminal or delinquent activity against the expected costs of being apprehended is called __________.
A) classical criminology
B) utilitarianism
C) positivism
D) social process theory
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is a process through which researchers test the accuracy of a Hypothesis?
A) theory
B) pontificating
C) prediction
D) scientific method
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Defining and Measuring Crime
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Q1) Murder in the first degree occurs under which of the following circumstances?
A) When the murder committed is deliberate and not premeditated
B) When the murder committed is not premeditated but negligent
C) When the murder committed is negligent and accidental
D) When the murder committed is premeditated and deliberate
Answer: D
Q2) A black man _____ times more likely than a white man to be sent to prison for a drug-related crime?
A) 2
B) 5
C) 10 D) 12
Answer: D
Q3) First degree felonies, punishable by a maximum penalty of _______ ________. Answer: life imprisonment
Q4) When the crime is __________ it means that it was planned and decided on after a process of decision making. Answer: deliberate
Q5) The __________ party in a court case proceeding is called the plaintiff. Answer: injured
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Chapter 4: Inside Criminal Law
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Q1) An order that requires jailers to bring a person before a court or judge and explain why the person is being held in prison is called a:
A) writ of habeas corpus
B) Bill of Attainder
C) ex post facto law
D) trial of all crimes
Q2) What defense is used if the defendant's state of mind is such that they cannot claim legal responsibility for their actions?
A) infancy
B) insanity
C) intoxication
D) mistake
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a basic element of corpus delicti?
A) actus reus
B) mens rea
C) mala in se
D) concurrence
Q4) Explain the difference between substantive and procedural due process and give an example of each.
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Chapter 5: Law Enforcement Today
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Q1) Police officers primarily see themselves as:
A) crime fighters
B) peace preservers
C) public protectors
D) public servants
Q2) The oldest federal law enforcement agency in the United States is the U.S. Marshals Service.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following agencies has the mission to enforce domestic drug laws and regulations and to assist other federal and foreign agencies in combating illegal drug manufacture and trade on an international level?
A) FBI
B) ATF
C) CIA
D) DEA
Q4) Private security is the practice of private corporations or individuals offering services traditionally performed by __________.
Q5) Explain the role of at least three federal law enforcement agencies in the U.S.
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Chapter 6: Challenges to Effective Policing
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Q1) According to the San Diego Police Department's use of force matrix, if a suspect's behavior is one of passive resistance, the officer may do which of the following?
A) use of firearms and hard impact with weapons
B) hard impact with weapons such as nightsticks and flashlights and personal body weapons such as head, hands, elbows, knees, and feet
C) tasers, neck restraints, takedown techniques, chemical agents such as pepper spray, and K-9
D) light pushes or jabs with impact weapons such as nightsticks and flashlights, control holds with or without light impact weapons, and body strength
Q2) Explain how ethical breaches committed by police officers undermine public confidence in law enforcement?
Q3) __________ is the segment of a police recruit's training in which he or she is removed from the classroom and placed on the beat, under the supervision of a senior officer.
Q4) The vast majority of patrol shifts are completed without a single arrest.
A)True
B)False
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Police and the Constitution: The Rules of Law Enforcement
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Q1) A pat-down or minimal search by police to discover weapons is called a
Q2) The U.S. Supreme Court case that set the precedent for the definition of "reasonable" suspicion was:
A) Davis v. United States
B) Maryland v. Wilson
C) Miranda v. Arizona
D) Terry v. Ohio
Q3) Before a judge or magistrate will issue a search warrant, a police officer must present information showing reasonable suspicion that a crime has been or will be committed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The __________ doctrine is the legal principle that objects in plain view of a law enforcement agent who has the right to be in a position to have that view may be seized without a warrant and introduced as evidence.
Q5) An arrest made without first seeking a warrant for the action is known as a
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Chapter 8: Courts and the Quest for Justice
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Q1) Specialty courts are lower courts that have jurisdiction over one specific area of criminal activity, such as illegal drugs or domestic violence.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the four functions of the courts is to protect individuals from the unfair advantages that the government-with its immense resources- automatically enjoys in legal battles?
A) due process function
B) crime control function
C) rehabilitation function
D) bureaucratic function
Q3) The __________ is responsible for maintaining security and order in the judge's chambers and the courtroom.
Q4) Courts of original jurisdiction are also called:
A) trial courts
B) constitutional courts
C) magistrate courts
D) appellate courts
Q5) Explain how a court case reaches the U.S. Supreme Court.
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Chapter 9: Pretrial Procedures: The Adversary System in Action
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Q1) Preventive detention is the retention of an accused person in custody as a punishment for dangerous individuals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most criminal cases in the United States conclude with negotiated deals rather than trials.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Many lawyers rarely do trial work and focus on drafting documents and doing legal research instead.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A businessperson who agrees, for a fee, to pay the bail amount if the accused fails to appear in court as ordered is called a _______________.
Q5) List and briefly explain the different forms of plea bargaining agreements.
Q6) A __________ is a court-appointed attorney who is paid by the state to represent defendants who are unable to hire private counsel
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Q7) U.S. attorneys are nominated by the __________ and confirmed by the
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Chapter 10: The Criminal Trial
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Q1) __________ is an order that requires correctional officials to bring an inmate before a court or a judge and explain why he or she is being held in prison.
Q2) In general, prosecutions for murder and other offenses that carry the death penalty do not have a statute of limitations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an acceptable reason for a preemptory challenge?
A) a person has long hair
B) a person drives an SUV
C) a person is black
D) a person a student
Q4) __________ is the group of citizens from which the jury is selected.
Q5) A __________ is a jury whose members are so irreconcilably divided in their opinions that they cannot reach a verdict.
Q6) A witness who has been granted immunity may still refuse to answer questions on the basis of self-incrimination.
A)True B)False
Q7) Explain the typical qualifications that are necessary for jurors.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Punishment and Sentencing
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Q1) Circumstances surrounding a crime that allow for a lighter sentence to be handed down are known as:
A) aggravating circumstances
B) relevant circumstances
C) mitigating circumstances
D) meaningful circumstances
Q2) __________ is a situation in which those convicted of similar crimes do not receive similar sentences due to race.
Q3) When public opinion moves toward more severe strategies of punishment, legislatures have responded by asserting their power over determining sentencing guidelines.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In Baze v. Rees the Supreme Court ruled that the mere possibility of pain "does not establish harm that qualifies as cruel and unusual" punishment.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the difference between sentencing disparity and sentencing discrimination.
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Chapter 12: Probation and Community Corrections
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Q1) Home incarceration requires offenders to be in their homes at specific hours each day, usually at night.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One of the primary advantages of probation for offender is that the length of the probationary period is usually considerably longer than the length of a prison term.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a level of home monitoring?
A) curfew
B) home detention
C) home incarceration
D) electronic monitoring
Q4) __________is a criminal sanction in which a convict is allowed to remain in the community rather than be imprisoned as long as she or he follows certain conditions set by the court.
Q5) A sentence that consists of incarceration in a prison or jail, followed by a probationaryperiod in the community is called a ___________________.
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Chapter 13: Prisons and Jails
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a criticism of private facilities?
A) safety concerns regarding inmate violence and drug abuse
B) higher cost of running these facilities
C) financial concerns about the manipulation of good behavior reports
D) philosophical concerns about the inherent unjustness
Q2) Private prisons are correctional facilities operated by states instead of the federal government.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Disenfranchisement refers to which of the following?
A) barring felons from possessing a firearm
B) barring felons from obtaining driver's license
C) barring felons from voting
D) barring felons from seeing their lawyer
Q4) A prison operates under which type of management structure for its employees?
A) linear
B) vertical
C) hierarchical
D) horizontal
Q5) Explain what the concept of the "burden of jail administration" means.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Behind Bars: The Life of an Inmate
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Q1) Describe at least three of the different job categories for correctional officers according to Lucien Lombardo.
Q2) The process of withdrawing parole and returning the parolee to prison is called:
A) mandatory sentence expiration
B) probation revocation
C) parole revocation
D) reentry
Q3) According to Irwin, which of the following is NOT one of the patterns of inmate behavior that driven by the inmate's personality and values?
A) professional criminals adapt to prison by "doing time"
B) some convicts are more comfortable inside prison than outside C) other inmates take advantage of prison resources to improve themselves D) "organized" criminals exist on the fringes of prison society
Q4) A ______________ program allows for the temporary release of convicted offeners from prison for purposes of employment.
Q5) The majority of parolees successfully complete their parole. A)True B)False
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Chapter 15: The Juvenile Justice System
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Q1) In the 1899 Illinois juvenile court the child being prosecuted was called a:
A) defendant
B) offender
C) respondent
D) plaintiff
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the things a judge considers during a detention hearing for a juvenile?
A) whether the child poses a danger to the community
B) whether the parents can pay for bail
C) whether the child will return for the adjudication process
D) whether detention will provide protection for the child
Q3) The process during which an official of the court decides whether to file a petition, release the juvenile, or place the juvenile under some other form of supervision is known as the referral.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the relationship between age and crime?
Q5) The child-savers movement led to the Illinois Juvenile Court Act.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Homeland Security
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the categories of WMDs?
A) biological weapons
B) chemical weapons
C) nuclear weapons
D) ecoweapons
Q2) Which of the following was an agency that was NOT placed under the Department of Homeland Security after the Homeland Security Act of 2002?
A) Customs and Border Protection
B) Immigration and Customs Enforcement
C) Federal Bureau of Investigation
D) Federal Emergency Management Agency
Q3) Explain how American law enforcement agencies have used "preventive policing" to combat terrorism.
Q4) Which of the following refers to placing undercover agents in a position to gain information from hostile foreign intelligence services?
A) electronic surveillance
B) intelligence sharing
C) open-source collection
D) counterintelligence
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Chapter 17: Cyber Crime and the Future of Criminal Justice
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Q1) In which U.S. Supreme Court case did the Court ruling provide film and music companies with the ability to file piracy lawsuits against Internet file-sharing Web sites that market software used primarily to illegally download intellectual property?
A) Napster v. Illinois
B) MGM Studios v. Grokster.
C) Maxx v. Milnes
D) Roker v. Leaper
Q2) About __________ of the approximately 3.4 million Americans who are stalked each year are victims of cyberstalking.
A) one in ten
B) one in eight
C) one in six
D) one in four
Q3) Which of the following is one of the main weaknesses of using encryption to protect material on computers?
A) the ease with which iencryptiont can be hacked
B) the rate at which encryption it becomes obsolete
C) the rate at which spam overrides encryptionit
D) the ease with which viruses obstruct encryptionit
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