Contemporary Issues in Biology
Final Exam
Course Introduction
This course explores current and emerging topics in biology that have significant implications for society, technology, and the environment. Students will examine issues such as biotechnology advancements, genetic engineering, bioethics, climate change impacts on ecosystems, emerging diseases, and conservation challenges. Emphasis is placed on evaluating scientific evidence, understanding the broader societal context, and discussing the ethical, legal, and political dimensions of contemporary biological debates. Through case studies, discussion, and critical analysis, students develop informed perspectives on how biology influences and is influenced by the world around us.
Recommended Textbook
Human Biology Concepts and Current Issues 7th Edition by Michael D. Johnson
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Human Biology, Science, and Society
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does scientific information in peer-reviewed journals differ from that in newspapers?
A) Information is more technical; readers usually require a background in the field in order to understand the article.
B) The article is written by a reporter, not a researcher.
C) Articles often include political, ethical, and economic ramifications of the scientific findings.
D) Information is less in-depth and easily understood by the average reader.
E) Information is not approved by other scientists before its publication.
Answer: A
Q2) Factors that are manipulated during an experimental procedure are called ________.
Answer: variables
Q3) Plants obtain their energy directly from the sun and their raw materials from the soil, air, and water in their environment.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Living Things
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the most important buffer pairs in blood is carbonic acid and bicarbonate because they regulate the pH of blood by absorbing and releasing hydrogen ions as needed.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) When a protein is heated, it may unfold, losing its secondary, tertiary, and even quaternary structure. This process is known as ________.
Answer: denaturation
Q3) Which one of the following is a function of a protein?
A) stores genetic material and enables its transmission to the next generation
B) acts as a catalyst, speeding up chemical reactions
C) is a major subunit of cellulose
D) is a primary structural component of a cell membrane
E) provides energy for a muscle contraction
Answer: B
Q4) The molecule with which an enzyme reacts is a(n) ________.
Answer: substrate (reactant)
Q5) A substance that helps to maintain a stable pH is a(n) ________.
Answer: buffer
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Structure and Function of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells that have membrane-bound organelles and cytoplasm are classified as ________ cells.
Answer: eukaryotic
Q2) Active transport is like facilitated diffusion in that both processes
A) move molecules down their concentration gradient
B) require the presence of proteins in the plasma membrane that move molecules from one side of the plasma membrane to the other
C) require the conversion of ADP to ATP
D) do not require a source of energy
E) facilitate the movement of water through the phospholipids of the plasma membrane
Answer: B
Q3) Molecules pass in and out of the nucleus through openings in the nuclear membrane called ________.
Answer: nuclear pores
Q4) Pound for pound, ________ are the macromolecules that store the greatest amount of energy.
Answer: fats
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Chapter 4: From Cells to Organ Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ is an abundant protein found in dense connective tissue (tendons and ligaments) and in cartilage.
Q2) Vasoconstriction is a term that refers to the contraction of muscle in the walls of the blood vessels, thus causing the diameter of the blood vessel to decrease. Which one of the following types of muscle would be involved in this contraction?
A) skeletal
B) smooth
C) cardiac
D) both cardiac and smooth
E) both skeletal and smooth
Q3) Weight loss typically leads to a reduction in both the number and size of adipocytes. A)True
B)False
Q4) The type of tissue that makes up the sweat glands, salivary glands, and endocrine glands is ________.
Q5) The presence of a suntan is due to increased activity of ________ in response to increased levels of ultraviolet radiation.
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6
Chapter 5: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) location of blood vessels
Q2) A typical long bone has an epiphysis at each end, which can be thought of as
A) yellow bone marrow
B) a cylindrical hollow shaft
C) a tough layer of connective tissue
D) a site of water storage
E) an enlarged knob
Q3) All of the following statements about the sinuses are TRUE EXCEPT which one?
A) The sinuses are located in several of the facial bones.
B) The sinuses are lined by a tissue that produces and secretes mucus.
C) The sinuses give the human voice its characteristic resonance and tone.
D) The sinuses add weight and bulk to the skull and facial bones, strengthening them.
E) The sinuses connect to the nasal cavity by small passageways.
Q4) A clear fluid lubricates
A) ligaments
B) suture
C) fibrous joints
D) synovial joints
E) hyaline cartilage
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Chapter 6: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intercalated discs
A) are characteristic of smooth muscle cells
B) contain gap junctions that allow the signal to spread quickly through cardiac muscle cells
C) support fast-twitch fibers of skeletal muscle
D) stimulate pacemaker cells in cardiac muscle
E) stimulate the contraction of skeletal muscle
Q2) According to the ________ principle, a muscle cell contracts completely when adequately stimulated by a motor neuron.
Q3) During a marathon, runners use up ATP and glucose early in the race. Which energy source is generally used next for producing more ATP?
A) glycogen
B) starch
C) cellulose
D) steroids
E) phospholipids
Q4) A complete cycle of contraction and relaxation of muscle cells due to stimulation by a motor neuron is called a muscle ________.
Q5) A protein that stores oxygen in slow-twitch muscle fibers is ________.
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Chapter 7: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) A physician finds that one of his patients has the following problems: Blood clots very slowly or not at all, and severe bruises result from even the most minor bumps. Which one of the following conditions would likely be diagnosed based on this information?
A) polycythemia
B) hemophilia
C) AIDS
D) anemia
E) mononucleosis
Q2) Blood substitutes currently being investigated focus on the oxygen-carrying capability of the substitutes as well as their ability to provide defenses similar to those of white blood cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) About 55% of whole blood is ________, which is/are mostly made up of water.
A) plasma
B) hemoglobin
C) white blood cells
D) clotting proteins
E) hematocrit
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Heart and Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) carbon dioxide diffuses into the blood
Q2) represents the end of electrical activity in the ventricles
Q3) Oxygenated blood can be found in the following chambers of the heart: ________ and ________.
Q4) Deoxygenated blood leaving the right side of the heart next passes through the ________ circuit, where the blood is reoxygenated.
Q5) The "lub" of the lub-DUB sounds heard through a stethoscope when listening to the heart is produced by the
A) inferior vena cava and superior vena cava emptying into the right atrium
B) closing of the two atrioventricular valves
C) contraction of the atria
D) closing of the aortic valve and pulmonary valve
E) pulmonary arteries emptying into the left atrium
Q6) ________ prevent the backflow of blood in veins.
Q7) When blood pressure falls below normal, the condition referred to as ________ results.
Q8) The rapid expansion and recoil of the wall of an artery close to the skin's surface is a(n) ________.
Q9) Heart murmurs result from the incomplete closure of ________.
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Chapter 9: The Immune System and Mechanisms of Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that kill or inhibit bacteria are known as ________.
Q2) Which one of the following would result in passive immunity?
A) vaccination
B) past occurrence of an infection or disease
C) production of memory cells
D) movement of antibodies across the placenta from mother to child
E) stimulation of T cells and B cells by an antigen
Q3) Which one of the following is TRUE regarding the spleen?
A) It is located in the lower portion of the thoracic cavity.
B) Red pulp of the spleen stores excess blood.
C) White pulp of the spleen contains macrophages that kill microorganisms circulating in the lymph.
D) Red pulp of the spleen contains primarily lymphocytes.
E) The spleen has the same functions as the tonsils.
Q4) The ________ are lymphatic tissue that protect the throat.
Q5) During a bacterial infection, the human body usually responds by having an elevated body temperature or a fever. Most over-the-counter cold medications indicate that they contain a fever suppressant. Explain why this is not always good for the treatment of a cold or infection.
Q6) Tears and saliva contain ________, an enzyme that kills bacteria. Page 11
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Chapter 10: The Respiratory System: Exchange of Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following occurs as air is drawn through the nose?
A) Water is removed, and the air becomes drier.
B) Carbon dioxide is removed from the air and replaced with oxygen.
C) Air is mixed with odorants to produce smells.
D) Harmful allergens and other toxic materials such as cigarette smoke and asbestos are removed.
E) Air is warmed, filtered, and humidified.
Q2) During intense physical exercise, human cells and tissues increase their need for oxygen to provide the ATP necessary for work. Why does heart rate have to increase to meet the need for oxygen?
Q3) Lung capacity is typically measured with the use of a spirometer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The concentration of ________ in the blood is monitored indirectly by monitoring the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.
Q5) The concentration of ________ is monitored by the aortic and carotid bodies.
Q6) During the cough reflex, the trachea ________ slightly to increase the velocity of air movement.
Q7) The exchange of gases in the lungs occurs between the alveoli and the ________.
Page 13
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Chapter 11: The Nervous System: Integration and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) removal of this region would eliminate coordinated movements in response to sight
A)True
B)False
Q2) The strength and duration of a stimulus determine the amplitude of an action potential.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The left and right sides of the cerebrum are interconnected by which one of the following?
A) pons
B) medulla oblongata
C) corpus callosum
D) thalamus
E) cerebral cortex
Q4) voltage threshold for membrane
Q5) Removal of the ________ would prevent any type of decision making.
Q6) Recordings of the brain's activities can be made using a(n) ________; this information is used to study the functioning of the brain.
Q7) ensures that antagonistic muscles do not contract at same time
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Sensory Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) LASIK surgery involves reshaping the lens to correct for vision problems such as nearsightedness, farsightedness, and astigmatism.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which one of the following occurs when bright light hits the eye?
A) The muscle arranged circularly around the iris relaxes.
B) The pupil dilates.
C) The photoreceptors no longer respond to the light.
D) The pupil decreases in size.
E) The muscle arranged radially around the iris contracts.
Q3) Each of the following statements about cones is TRUE, EXCEPT which one?
A) Cones enable humans to see color.
B) Color vision is enabled by the presence of three types of cones.
C) Cones are evenly distributed throughout the retina, accounting for visual acuity.
D) Cones require more intense light for activation than rods do.
E) Visual acuity is dependent upon cones and bright light.
Q4) Hearing loss resulting from damage to the tympanic membrane or the bones of the middle ear is known as ________ deafness.
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Page 15
Chapter 13: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The alpha, beta, and delta cells located in the islets of Langerhans of the thyroid produce three different hormones that are important in the regulation of sodium and potassium levels of the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________ cells function in both the nervous and endocrine systems.
Q3) Insulin helps regulate blood sugar at homeostatic levels by
A) stimulating alpha cells of the pancreas to produce more hormones
B) promoting the entry of glucose into cells
C) stimulating the breakdown of glycogen to glucose
D) activating hormone production in the posterior pituitary gland
E) promoting the breakdown of fat
Q4) Which one of the following nonhormonal chemical messengers is important in local control of blood flow and blood clotting?
A) prostaglandins
B) nerve growth factor
C) tumor angiogenesis growth factor
D) histamine
E) epidermal growth factor
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Chapter 14: The Digestive System and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The salivary glands include
A) the parotid and pancreatic glands
B) sublingual, submandibular, and pancreatic glands
C) parotid, submandibular, and subesophageal glands
D) sublingual, parotid, and submandibular glands
E) subesophageal, pancreatic, and sublingual glands
Q2) Mucin is a major component of saliva, which lubricates the teeth and causes food to stick together during swallowing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Important components of food that are needed by the body for reproduction, growth, and good health are ________.
Q4) "Gurgling of the stomach" is due to
A) peristaltic contractions
B) the secretion of acids
C) the action of gastrin on the cells of the stomach
D) the production of chyme
E) the closing of the pyloric sphincter
Q5) Dental caries are caused by the production of ________ by bacteria in the mouth.
Page 17
Q6) The interaction between an organism and its food is called ________.
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Chapter 15: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) delivers urine to the bladder
Q2) The steroid hormone ________ regulates the reabsorption of sodium across the collecting duct and distal tubule.
Q3) Energy drinks contain several components, including caffeine, that are advertised to boost your energy levels. If you drink several of these caffeine-containing energy drinks in a short period of time, you feel the sensation to urinate. Why?
Q4) Impairments of the kidney that are considered short term and possibly can be overcome by medication or other treatments are called chronic renal failure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Countercurrent exchange is used primarily in the ________ portion of the nephron.
Q6) location of nephrons, which filter blood to remove wastes and retain essential solutes
Q7) Nutrients, water, and ions reabsorbed by the proximal and distal tubules enter the ________ capillaries.
Q8) Each kidney is made up of a million ________, the functional units of a kidney.
Q9) functions in ion reabsorption into blood
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) During male ejaculation, the internal urethral sphincter closes tightly to
A) prevent urine from leaking into the urethra
B) isolate the ureters from the urinary bladder
C) block movement of mucus from the bulbourethral gland into the ejaculatory duct
D) keep sperm from moving into the ductus deferens
E) allow seminal vesicle to transfer sperm to the epididymis
Q2) You are a reproductive physiologist designing an at-home kit that can be used to help predict when ovulation occurs. Which one of the following could be detected that would indicate the time of ovulation?
A) surge in GnRH from the hypothalamus
B) surge in FSH from the anterior pituitary gland
C) surge in estrogen from the ovary
D) surge in LH from the anterior pituitary gland
E) surge in oxytocin from the posterior pituitary gland
Q3) Ovulation occurs during the ________ stage of the menstrual cycle.
Q4) Due to the short life span of a sperm cell, fertilization usually occurs in the oviduct.
A)True
B)False
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Page 19
Chapter 17: Cell Reproduction and Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cloning of human cells for the purpose of treating a patient is referred to as
A) embryo splitting
B) pluripotency
C) somatic cell nuclear transfer
D) medicinal cloning
E) therapeutic cloning
Q2) DNA is organized and arranged in the nucleus as
A) mitotic spindles
B) chromosomes
C) histones
D) the nucleolus
E) ribosomes
Q3) Initiation of translation begins with a tRNA binding to a(n) ________ on mRNA.
Q4) prophase
Q5) A(n) ________ forms during cytokinesis as contractile filaments in the cell tighten.
Q6) The process through which DNA is copied into a complementary strand of mRNA is called translation.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 18: Cancer: Uncontrolled Cell Division and Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following carcinogens accounts for 30% of all cancer deaths?
A) environmental chemicals (e.g., asbestos, pesticides, soot, coal tar)
B) tobacco smoke
C) ultraviolet light
D) ionizing radiation (X rays)
E) radon gas
Q2) A mass of rapidly dividing cells that have potentially lost the ability to regulate cell division is called a
A) neoplasm
B) angiogenesis
C) malignancy
D) metastasis
E) keratosis
Q3) When hyperplasia develops, signaling a loss of control of cell division, it always results in cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If an entire tumor remains localized, it is said to be a(n) ________ cancer.
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Q5) The presence of the enzyme ________ in a cell is an indicator that the cell may be cancerous.
Chapter 19: Genetics and Inheritance
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Q1) In incomplete dominance, the phenotype of the heterozygous genotype is an intermediate between the phenotype of either homozygous genotype.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A(n) ________ occurs when a piece of chromosome breaks off or is lost.
Q3) Red-green color blindness is an X-linked recessive disorder. Assume that a mother is a carrier and a father is color-blind. What is the chance that their son will inherit red-green color blindness?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%
Q4) If the two alleles of a particular gene pair are the same, the individual is ________ for that gene.
Q5) A(n) ________ refers to the complete set of genes in the chromosomes of an individual.
Q6) Failure of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate properly is called ________.
Page 22
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Chapter 20: DNA Technology and Genetic Engineering
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Q1) A(n) ________ is a sequence that reads the same from left to right on one strand of DNA as it does from right to left on the other strand.
Q2) Each of the following is used in the process of DNA sequencing EXCEPT which one?
A) DNA polymerase
B) primers
C) gel electrophoresis
D) RNA polymerase
E) chain-terminating fluorescent nucleotides
Q3) The idea of manipulating DNA through cutting and splicing, essential to the science of recombinant DNA technology, is not necessarily a new process since nature has been recombining DNA for billions of years.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Some genetically engineered tomato plants produce tomatoes that last longer on the grocery shelf; some genetically engineered cotton plants are resistant to insects.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The process of producing pharmaceuticals in farm animals is ________.
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Chapter 21: Development and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Surgical delivery of a baby is called a cesarean delivery.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Following fertilization, if a ball of embryonic cells splits into two masses before differentiation has begun, ________ twins result.
Q3) The blood vessels of the umbilical cord are derived from which one of the following structures?
A) allantois
B) chorion
C) embryonic disk
D) amnion
E) yolk sac
Q4) The muscles and nervous system of the fetus become mature enough for movement to occur by the ________ month of development.
A) fifth
B) first
C) eighth
D) third
E) seventh
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Chapter 22: Evolution and the Origins of Life
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Q1) Cytochrome c is a small protein that is found in present-day organisms. Comparison of the structure of cytochrome c from different organisms to infer evolutionary relationships would be part of the science involving
A) fossil evidence
B) developmental biology
C) comparative biochemistry
D) migration patterns
E) comparative anatomy
Q2) In the scientific process, the word ________ is reserved for those few major concepts that offer the best explanation to fit a broad range of established facts.
Q3) In each local environment, living organisms have evolved to possess the traits necessary to survive and reproduce. This concept is called
A) natural selection
B) genetic drift
C) the bottleneck effect
D) microevolution
E) antigenic shift
Q4) ________ was an early human ancestor thought to be among the first tool makers.
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Chapter 23: Ecosystems and Populations
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Q1) The point at which the number of births equals the number of deaths is called
Q2) The process of converting nitrogen gas to ammonium is called
A) biogeochemical processing
B) sublimation
C) nitrogen fixation
D) evaporation
E) nitrification
Q3) In a graphical representation of an organism's population growth in a given habitat, the growth rate for an organism whose population is increasing according to its biotic potential is best represented by a(n)
A) line with a negative slope
B) S-shaped curve
C) flat line (no slope) set at the carrying capacity of the environment
D) exponential growth curve
E) flat line (no slope) set at the equilibrium point of environmental resistance versus biotic growth potential
Q4) Unlike the carbon and nitrogen cycles, the phosphorous cycle is classified as a(n) ________ cycle because phosphorus never enters the atmosphere.
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Chapter 24: Human Impacts, Biodiversity, and Environmental Issues
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Q1) Creation of sustainable ecosystems cannot be achieved through
A) decreased human consumption of everything, and thus a lower production of waste
B) developing practices of recycling reusable materials
C) a reduction in world population growth
D) decreasing poverty so that people are not consumed by immediate needs (food, shelter) and can focus more on human's long-term impact on the environment
E) greater use of natural resources
Q2) Explain how emissions of carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide create the greenhouse effect.
Q3) Freshwater is most likely to become contaminated or polluted by ________ from urban and rural environments.
Q4) Despite an international agreement signed in 1987 to phase out the production of CFCs, depletion of the ozone will continue to affect Earth and its atmosphere for at least another one hundred years.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________ provide valuable flood control because they can hold large volumes of water.
27
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