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Contemporary Issues in Biology explores the current and emerging topics that continuously shape the field of biology and impact society at large. Students will examine recent scientific advancements, ethical considerations, public health challenges, environmental concerns, and biotechnological innovations. Through critical analysis of case studies and current events, the course fosters an understanding of how biological knowledge informs decision making and addresses global challenges such as biodiversity loss, genetic engineering, climate change, and disease outbreaks. The goal is to provide students with the tools to assess scientific developments and their relevance in our rapidly changing world.
Recommended Textbook
Biology of Humans Concepts Applications and Issues 4th Edition by Judith Goodenough
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Q1) Explain how the destruction of the original tropical forests will affect the development of new medicines.
Answer: More than 25% of the prescription medicines in the United States contain chemicals that came from medically important plants.Important medicines,such as aspirin or digitalis,were discovered after using plants as folk remedies.The majority of plant species are in tropical forests.Deforestation will result in the loss of many plant species,and humanity will have no way of knowing what potential new medicines are being destroyed.
Q2) You are classifying an organism and trying to determine to which domain it belongs.The organism is unicellular and was isolated from a very unusual environment.This organism probably belongs in which domain?
A)Eukarya
B)Archaea
C)Bacteria
D)Prokarya
Answer: B
Q3) A(n)________ is a group of similar cells that perform the same function. Answer: tissue
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Q1) Which of the following is not found in ATP?
A)a nitrogen-containing base
B)a sugar
C)a phosphate group
D)All of these are found in ATP.
Answer: D
Q2) Athletes are often told to eat starch before a strenuous athletic event.What monomer can be released from starch after hydrolysis,and what is it used for? Because cellulose (fiber)is made of the same type of monomer as starch,why aren't athletes told to eat fiber before an event?
Answer: When starch is broken down,glucose is released.This glucose can be used during cellular respiration to produce energy (ATP)for the cells.Cellulose,like starch,is also composed of glucose monomers; however,we lack the enzymes necessary to perform hydrolysis on cellulose.Therefore,the glucose cannot be used by the cells in order to produce ATP.
Q3) Atoms that have the same number of protons but differ in the number of neutrons are called ________.
Answer: isotopes
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Q1) ________ are membrane proteins that aid adjoining cells to stick to each other. Answer: CAMs (cellular adhesion molecules)
Q2) George discovered a strange purple slime in his mouth that encouraged him to visit the dentist.The dentist said the new organism was prokaryotic because it had
A)circular DNA
B)DNA in the nucleus
C)relatively large cells
D)membrane-bound organelles
Answer: A
Q3) Is produced along with water at the end of normal cellular respiration.
A)Microtubules
B)ATP
C)Glycolysis
D)Electron transport chain
E)Plasma membrane
F)Flagella
G)Cristae
H)Citric acid cycle
Answer: B
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Q1) A tendon or ligament is made up principally of ________ tissue.
Q2) Two roller derby players trip each other and fall.One of them breaks a cartilage in her knee,while the other skater breaks a bone in her foot.Which one of them will take longer to heal? Explain your answer.
Q3) The organ system that regulates and integrates body functions via hormones.
A)Nervous
B)Endocrine
C)Muscular
D)Skeletal
E)Integumentary
F)Lymphatic
G)Respiratory
H)Cardiovascular
I)Urinary
J)Reproductive
K)Digestive
Q4) Of the four main tissue types,________ covers body surfaces and lines body cavities and organs.
Q5) ________ glands secrete products onto body surfaces or into body cavities or organs via ducts.
6
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Q1) Bones that form on either side of the cranium and are thought of as the temples.
A)Carpals
B)Osteoclasts
C)Femur
D)Lumbar
E)Sacrum
F)Humerus
G)Tarsals
H)Metatarsals
I)Osteoblasts
J)Foramen magnum
K)Temporal
Q2) The pectoral girdle is composed of the ________,or shoulder blades,and the collarbones.
Q3) Explain the structure and function of the pectoral and pelvic girdles.
Q4) Why would a scientist trying to isolate osteoblasts look on the periosteal side of a bone in a young animal to find them?
Q5) Briefly explain osteoporosis and what preventative measures can be taken to reduce a person's risk of this condition.
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Q1) Which of these cell types can be described as muscle cells that contract rapidly,are rich in glycogen deposits,and depend on anaerobic respiration to produce ATP?
A)slow twitch cells
B)fast twitch cells
C)myoglobin
D)hemoglobin
Q2) Some insecticides interfere with the removal of acetylcholine from the synaptic cleft.What effect will this have on muscle contraction?
A)The muscle cell will lose all of its supply of calcium.
B)The muscle cell will be unable to be stimulated again.
C)The muscle cell will be in a state of constant stimulation, leading to a tetany response.
D)The muscle cell will have a single twitch and will be unable to contract again.
Q3) A band of connective tissue that aids in the attachment of muscle to bone is a(n)________.
Q4) Describe the four traits that all muscle types share.
Q5) Why must muscles be arranged in pairs opposite to one another?
Q6) A bundle of muscle cells is called a ________.
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Q1) Ahmad might have been accidentally exposed to an insecticide while he worked in a citrus grove.What symptoms of poisoning would you watch for?
A)depression
B)Alzheimer's disease
C)muscle tremors
D)excessive urination
Q2) Compare and contrast the sensory,motor,and interneurons.
Q3) Leprosy destroys nerve tissue,so an afflicted person is likely to hurt his or her foot without even knowing it.What types of neurons are likely to be affected?
A)neuroglial cells
B)motor neurons
C)sensory neurons
D)interneurons
Q4) ________ are numerous short,branching projections from the neuron that create a huge surface for receiving signals from other cells.
Q5) During an action potential,the ________ ions rush into the axon.
Q6) If a drug had the side effect of destroying dopamine-producing neurons,what effect would this have on a person?
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Q1) This part of the peripheral nervous system carries sensory information from the skin,skeletal muscles,and joints to the central nervous system and may also direct voluntary movements.
A)Corpus callosum
B)Pons
C)Thalamus
D)Somatic nervous system
E)Limbic system
F)Hypothalamus
G)Parasympathetic nervous system
H)Sympathetic nervous system
I)Reticular activating system
J)Autonomic nervous system
Q2) The ________ of the cerebral cortex sends messages to the skeletal muscles in order to control voluntary movement.
Q3) Charles is comatose.What part of his brain is not working properly?
A)limbic system
B)reticular activating system
C)corpus callosum
D)amygdala
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Q1) You spot your friend Enrique and yell to get his attention but he can't hear you.As you get closer to him,you clearly hear loud music coming from his headphones.What should you warn him about?
Q2) Jamal and his friends order some chicken at a new restaurant but they immediately notice that it tastes bitter.Jamal knows that everyone is really hungry,but he tells them not to eat another bite because the bitterness could potentially mean that ________.
A)the meal contains too much protein
B)the food may be poisoned or spoiled
C)there is probably too much vitamin C
D)unripe fruit was used in the breading around the chicken
Q3) The correct sequence of sound waves in the ear is ________.
A)stapes > eardrum > malleus > oval window
B)malleus > incus > stapes > oval window
C)eardrum > stapes > incus > malleus > inner ear
D)auditory tube > incus > malleus > stapes > eardrum
Q4) Explain and describe the five primary tastes.
Q5) ________ are a type of sensory receptor that consists simply of the tips of dendrites.
Q6) Compare and contrast the different types of receptors found in the body.
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Q1) Prostaglandins may act as local signaling molecules in the uterus,causing
Q2) Nadia,who is 25 years old,wants to be taller because she is just 5 feet tall.Of the choices given,which would be the wisest option for Nadia?
A)Do nothing.
B)Take injections of growth hormone.
C)Use GHRH so she will have her own natural growth.
D)Take thyroxin daily.
Q3) Why should consumers be skeptical about ingesting melatonin supplements or any other dietary supplement sold in vitamin or health stores?
Q4) When the concentration of sodium in the blood becomes too high,hormonal mechanisms come into play to counteract this dangerous condition.This type of response is called ________.
Q5) George is 16 years old and really wants to make the high school basketball team.Although he is skilled,he is only 5'10" tall.What advice would you give him about taking human growth hormone?
Q6) What are the possible effects of stress on the body?
Q7) Follicle-stimulating hormone originates from the ________ gland.
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Q1) Undifferentiated cells that divide and give rise to all formed elements.
A)White blood cells
B)Basophils
C)Formed elements
D)Red blood cells
E)Plasma
F)Plasmin
G)Stem cells
H)Granulocytes
I)Platelets
J)Agranulocytes
Q2) Coumadin is a drug that interferes with the action of vitamin K in the liver.What effect will Coumadin have on blood clotting mechanisms?
A)It will make it necessary to eat extra leafy green vegetables.
B)Vitamin K will not be absorbed from the digestive tract.
C)The liver will not be able to produce needed clotting factors.
D)Nothing, because vitamin K is not necessary for blood clotting.
Q3) The ________,or thrombocytes,play a vital role in clotting.
Q4) ________ is the process whereby cells engulf pathogens and foreign substances.
Q5) Platelets are formed by breaking off fragments from large cells called ________.
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Q1) Which of these is the portion of the heartbeat that involves contraction of the heart?
A)cardiac cycle
B)pacemaker
C)diastole
D)systole
Q2) Veins that carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart.
A)Veins
B)Thymus
C)Tonsils
D)Jugular veins
E)Circulatory
F)Aorta
G)Capillaries
H)Exercise
I)Pulmonary veins
J)Spleen
Q3) Why do physicians often examine the lymph nodes of cancer patients?
Q4) Explain the structure and functions of the arteries.
Q5) Explain the mechanics of muscle contraction during a heartbeat.
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Q1) Antigens are substances that the immune system does not recognize as self.Which of the following are antigens?
A)strep throat bacteria
B)cancer cells in the lung
C)HIV
D)All of these can act as antigens.
Q2) Zacchias has been in a horrible fire and 50% of the total surface of his skin has been destroyed.Given the information in this chapter,why is it so important to replace the burned skin and what is his best specific option for replacement?
Q3) If all of these hair-like structures,called ________,in respiratory passages suddenly stopped working,a person would probably have more respiratory infections.
Q4) Allergens combine with IgE to cause mast cells to release ________.
A)interferons
B)histamine
C)plasma cells
D)interleukin I
Q5) ________ are molecules that signal to the immune system that particular cells belong to a host.
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Q1) What are some of the hazards of smoking? What methods does society employ to try to reduce the number of people exposed to second-hand smoke?
Q2) When someone has a sinus headache he or she often uses decongestant nasal sprays.Why are such sprays useful?
A)They reduce swelling, allowing the sinuses to drain.
B)They reduce the symptoms of sore throat inflammation, which exacerbates the pain.
C)They dry out the breathing passageways in the pharynx, making it easier to breathe.
D)They have a pain-blocking effect in the brain.
Q3) Phospholipid molecules that prevent the alveoli from collapsing are known as
A)laryngitis
B)surfactant
C)mucous
D)plasma
Q4) Why is it not advisable to take antibiotics when you have a cold or the flu?
Q5) The pitch of the voice depends on the tension of the ________.
Q6) Most carbon dioxide is transported in the blood as ________.
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Q1) Your friend is trying to tell you that human teeth are not alive.You disagree.Why would you say that a tooth in an adult is alive?
Q2) Samantha drank a lot of alcohol over many years and now suffers from this fatty degeneration of the liver.
A)Gallbladder
B)Appendix
C)Stomach
D)Rectum
E)Esophageal cancer
F)Large intestine
G)Mouth
H)Cirrhosis
I)Small intestine
J)Salivary glands
Q3) A later stage of gum inflammation in which bacteria grow in pockets between the gums and the teeth and in which teeth may become loose is called ________.
Q4) The dentist covers the tooth layer,known as the ________,with a protective sealant to keep bacteria in the mouth from damaging it.
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Q1) The elimination of carbon dioxides and water and body heat occurs in this system.
A)Respiratory
B)Urinalysis
C)Urinary
D)Kidneys
E)Tubular secretion
F)Nephrons
G)Digestive
H)Urinary bladder
I)Urethra
J)Ureters
Q2) The lack of voluntary control over urination because of the inability to control the external urethral sphincter is called ________.
A)urinary incontinence
B)renal failure
C)urination
D)micturition
Q3) ________ are the functional units of the kidneys and are responsible for the formation of urine.
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Q1) The hormones FSH and LH are produced by the ________.
Q2) ________ stimulates the production of testosterone by the interstitial cells of the testis.
Q3) The ________ is a cylindrical organ whose role in reproduction is to deliver the sperm to the female reproductive system.
Q4) The ________ are the structures that occur between the ovaries and the uterus.
Q5) Prostaglandins are thought to cause ________.
A)PID
B)menstrual cramps
C)vaginitis
D)endometriosis
Q6) During a normal female reproductive cycle,the unique hormone produced only after ovulation is ________ made by the ________.
A)progesterone; corpus luteum
B)follicle stimulating hormone (FSH); anterior pituitary
C)gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH); hypothalamus
D)luteinizing hormone (LH); anterior pituitary
Q7) What are the main differences in the formation of the egg and sperm in males and females?
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Q1) The ________ is a group of cells that will develop into the chorion.
Q2) When your mother is mad at you she likes to remind you that she spent 48 hours in painful labor to bring you into the world! Specifically,she means that she spent a long time in the ________ stage of labor.
A)expulsion
B)dilation
C)third trimester
D)placental
Q3) Which of the following is false concerning fertilization?
A)Several sperm must contribute their DNA to the egg.
B)Enzymes are released from the acrosome of the sperm to penetrate the egg.
C)Most sperm die on their way to the egg.
D)The process can take hours to complete.
Q4) Several types of untreated sexually transmitted diseases can lead to scarring in the oviducts of the female.This can potentially lead to infertility because the sperm cannot get to the egg that has been released.What options might a female in this situation have if she wanted to conceive?
Q5) How does the nervous system change with aging?
Q6) Compare and contrast breast-feeding with bottle-feeding infants.
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Q1) The ________ cells are those body cells of humans that contain 23 chromosomes.
Q2) The preparation for cell division that precedes mitosis is called ________.
Q3) A process in which a sister chromatid inherited from the mother and a sister chromatid inherited from the father pair up and form tetrads and exchange DNA to form genetically diverse gametes is called ________.
A)cell cycle
B)prophase
C)cytokinesis
D)crossing over
Q4) Why is meiosis II needed for gamete (egg and sperm)production?
A)to generate genetic diversity
B)to make the gametes haploid
C)to get unreplicated chromosomes in the gametes
D)All of the above are true.
Q5) The exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of a homologous pair in meiosis is called ________.
Q6) ________ is a syndrome that occurs in females who have only a single X chromosome (XO).
Q7) Oogenesis is completed at ________.
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Q1) Gene testing allows the parents to learn more about their child in the pre-natal period.However,there are genetic disorders,such as Huntington's disease that show no phenotypic signs until age 35.This disease is caused by a dominant allele,resulting in degeneration of the brain,muscle spasms,and death within a decade or two.Because it is caused by a dominant allele,50% of the offspring will carry the disease.If you knew that someone in your family had Huntington's disease,would you get tested early on before you start a family and have your own children? Would you rather not know your fate,even if it means that you may pass the dominant allele of this disease to your offspring?
Q2) What are the differences between complete dominance and codominance?
Q3) A cardiac researcher is trying to determine if a pattern of very high blood cholesterol is genetic in a group of Pennsylvania Dutch.Therefore,the scientist looks through years of medical records,plus patterns of marriage through several generations.The investigator is doing a type of hereditary research called ________.
A)back crossing
B)pedigree analysis
C)linkage mapping
D)title searching
Q4) Why are pedigrees useful to track genetic disorders?
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Q1) The alteration of gene activity without DNA sequence change.
A)Genome
B)DNA polymerases
C)Gene therapy
D)Guanine
E)Thymine
F)RNA polymerase
G)Codons
H)Biotechnology
I)Epigenetics
Q2) Which of the following is a process in translation in which tRNA molecules deliver amino acids in the correct sequence,causing peptide bonds to form and increasing the length of the polypeptide chain?
A)initiation
B)elongation
C)termination
D)transcription
Q3) Compare and contrast DNA and RNA.
Q4) Changes in the DNA are called ________.
Q5) The nitrogenous base found in RNA but not DNA is ________.
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Q1) Broadly defined,________ is descent with modification from a common ancestor.
Q2) The "Upright Man" who possibly evolved in east Africa and first appears in the fossil record about 1.6 million years ago and was a wanderer or nomad.
A)Latin binomial
B)Homo erectus
C)Chimpanzees
D)Neanderthals
E)Australopithecus africanus
F)Astragalus
G)Convergent evolution
H)Ardipithecus ramidus
I)Founder effect
J)Homo habilis
Q3) Which refers to the different rates at which various traits evolve?
A)natural selection
B)adaptation
C)mosaic evolution
D)molecular clock
Q4) ________ dating uses potassium/argon ratios and can be used to determine absolute age.
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Q1) A small woods was cleared for a new building but then the builders went bankrupt.Over the ensuing years,plants and animals moved back into the plot in a process called ________.
A)climax community
B)biological magnification
C)secondary succession
D)primary succession
Q2) Ammonium is converted to nitrates (NO3-)by this process.
A)nitrification
B)nitrogen fixation
C)nitrofaction
D)calcification
Q3) ________ is an important component of many biological molecules,including the genetic material DNA and energy transfer molecules such as ATP.
Q4) A(n)________ includes all the individuals of the same species that can potentially interact.
Q5) A(n)________ is a diagram in which blocks represent each trophic level.
Q6) A plot of water-soaked soil will have less of the form of nitrogen known as ________ than dry soil.
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Q1) What difference does it make if you choose to eat a hamburger from a fast-food place rather than from a restaurant using locally grown beef?
Q2) Irrigating land can lead to a buildup of salt in the soil called ________.
Q3) The ________ is the development of high-yield varieties of crops and the use of modern cultivation methods,including the use of farm machinery,fertilizers,pesticides,and irrigation.
Q4) A certain relatively dry country has begun to desalinate seawater.If you were one of the managers of an irrigation project using this water,what measures would you adopt?
Q5) In which area would significant water conservation have the greatest impact?
A)power plant cooling
B)agriculture
C)the home
D)car washes
Q6) If a great volcano blew up and almost everyone nearby was killed,we would say that this was due to a ________ regulating factor.
Q7) ________ spread more easily in crowded conditions than in places with a sparser population.Thus,these are density-dependent regulating factors.
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Q1) Food poisoning is the correct term to describe a gastrointestinal illness caused by
A)viruses
B)chemicals
C)bacteria
D)All of the above are true.
Q2) Your friend has developed some gastrointestinal symptoms that appear to be related to something she ate.She wants to let them run their course without seeing a doctor.However,her symptoms seem to be getting worse.For which of the following would you recommend that she visit her health care provider?
A)blood in her stool
B)diarrhea lasting more than 3 days
C)a temperature of 102 F
D)All of the above are signs your friend should see a doctor.
Q3) Why is the process of irrigation with run-off water a bad practice? What measures should you take to protect yourself from acquiring a foodborne illness from crops?
Q4) Explain three things you can do at home to prevent foodborne illness.
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Q1) If a person uses Percocet,a morphine relative,to which of these drugs might that person develop cross-tolerance?
A)ecstasy
B)cocaine
C)heroin
D)marijuana
Q2) A psychoactive drug that delays the removal of a neurotransmitter from the synapse will ________.
A)dampen the response of the receiving neuron
B)prolong the effect of the neurotransmitter on the receiving neuron
C)prevent the neurotransmitter from working
D)bind to the receptor and affect the receiving neuron in the same way as the neurotransmitter
Q3) Ergot,a fungus,contains a hallucinogenic drug that binds to serotonin receptors.The natural drug is most similar to ________.
A)THC
B)methamphetamine
C)LSD
D)morphine
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Q1) Which of the following is a likely side-effect of gestational diabetes?
A)impotence
B)preeclampsia
C)low blood pressure
D)low birth weight
Q2) Which of the following is a normal blood glucose reading?
A)400 mg/dl
B)90 mg/dl
C)30 mg/dl
D)4% Hb A1c
Q3) Saito has diabetes mellitus type 1 and requires frequent insulin injections.He would much prefer to swallow pills instead of giving himself injections.Explain to him why this is not possible.What other option does he have besides an injection or an insulin pen?
Q4) Marsha says she sometimes has ketoacidosis.What kind of diabetes is she more likely to have and how did she develop ketoacidosis? Why is ketoacidosis dangerous and how can she detect it in time?
Q5) Summarize the origins and functions of insulin in the body.
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Q1) In which of these patients might Dr.Singh most appropriately prescribe a diuretic? The numbers represent their blood pressures.
A)6/66
B)20/80
C)25/75
D)60/90
Q2) Ashante is having surgery for a blocked coronary artery.The physician is inserting a catheter with a tiny balloon to open the blocked vessel.What is this procedure called and what else might the physician do to keep the artery open in the long term?
Q3) Which of the following lifestyle changes might be used to treat or prevent high blood pressure?
A)limit dietary salt
B)exercise regularly
C)control body weight
D)All of the above could help with high blood pressure.
Q4) Viagra® works by dilating the arteries to the penis and other parts of the body.Why shouldn't a person use nitroglycerin at the same time that they are using Viagra®?
Q5) How could lipids lead to a myocardial infarction?
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Q1) ________ are made by certain pathogens like Staphylococcus,Salmonella,Escherichia coli,and Clostridium botulinum.These substances often travel in the bloodstream and cause disease symptoms.
Q2) A gentleman noticed a rash,forming a target-like design,on his arm.Subsequently,he developed pain and later arthritis.The bacterium that caused his condition was most likely spread by ________.
A)a mosquito
B)unprotected sex
C)uncooked food
D)a tick
Q3) ________ are disease-causing organisms that invade a person's body.
Q4) Cholera is spread by contaminated food and water.The bacterium kills because it changes the permeability of the large intestinal cells.Which therapy would give the best chance of saving a person given the information in this chapter?
A)chemotherapy
B)radiation
C)fluid replacement
D)CT scans
Q5) A(n)________ is an animal that carries a disease from one host to another.
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Q1) If a certain brand of daily vitamin were to contain 600% of the minimum daily requirement of riboflavin,what risks would there be to those who take that brand?
A)liver damage
B)none known
C)scurvy
D)rickets
Q2) Some people believe that an all-vegetable diet will mean that vegetarians will not have a proper balance of amino acids needed to build proteins.Explain why this is false.
Q3) A dentist had a new patient who was abnormally slender for her height.How could the dentist determine if the person suffered from bulimia?
A)There would be evidence of water retention.
B)The teeth and gums would be damaged.
C)Extensive weight gain would be observed.
D)High blood sugar levels would be present.
Q4) According to the contents listed on the box of a certain brand of cereal,it contains 19 grams of carbohydrates but claims that no sugar is present.How is this possible?
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Q1) The STD that will always produce symptoms is ________.
A)gonorrhea
B)chlamydia
C)syphilis
D)HPV infection
Q2) Which statement is false concerning STDs?
A)Bacterial STDs can be treated with antibiotics.
B)Permanent infertility can be the result of an untreated STD.
C)STDs are routinely tested for during all physical examinations.
D)Most viral STDs can never be eliminated from the body.
Q3) Concerning HIV,which of these statements is false?
A)HIV is a retrovirus.
B)HIV proofreads when copying its genetic material so mistakes are not made.
C)HIV must interact with a receptor on the host to infect it.
D)HIV utilizes the enzyme reverse transcriptase to copy its RNA to DNA.
Q4) Why is a male more likely than a female to seek treatment for chlamydia and gonorrhea?
Q5) Why is it not possible for HIV medications to eliminate HIV in a confirmed HIV+ patient?
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Q6) Why are treatable diseases like chlamydia so widespread in the world?
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Q1) Children who have an ASD in which they can speak at length about their favorite topics would be diagnosed with ________.
A)autism
B)Asperger syndrome
C)PDD-NOS
D)fragile X syndrome
Q2) Explain the two main types of studies that showed the genetic basis of ASDs.
Q3) Explain the diagnostic criteria and symptoms used to distinguish between autism and Asperger syndrome.
Q4) A large percentage of the public believes that vaccines have a role in the development of autism.What information would you use to explain to a friend that there is no scientific evidence to suggest that vaccines cause autism?
Q5) Autism is characterized by ________.
A)impaired communication skills
B)unusual patterns of behavior
C)poor social skills
D)all the above
Q6) Describe some of the environmental risk factors associated with ASDs.
Q7) What therapies can be used for those with ASDs?
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Q1) Which statement best describes the difference between therapeutic and reproductive cloning?
A)Therapeutic cloning involves producing medications, while reproductive cloning is used for in vitro fertilization procedures.
B)Therapeutic cloning produces cells that are not genetically identical to their source, while reproductive cloning produces cells that are genetically identical to their source.
C)Therapeutic cloning is used to produce stem cells that can be coerced into differentiating into a specific cell type, while reproductive cloning is used to produce organisms identical to what they were cloned from.
D)There really aren't any differences between therapeutic and reproductive cloning.
Q2) Which one of the following correctly describes the order of stem cells from the lowest degree of flexibility (unipotent)to the highest degree of flexibility (totipotent)?
A)embryonic stem cells < adult stem cells < zygote
B)embryonic stem cells < zygote < adult stem cells
C)adult stem cells < zygote < embryonic stem cells
D)adult stem cells < embryonic stem cells < zygote
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Q1) Describe the cancer stem cell hypothesis.How might this explain the inability of traditional cancer treatments such as radiation and chemotherapy to completely eradicate tumors?
Q2) If a person had cancer that had already metastasized by the time of diagnosis,the treatment options at this point would most likely include ________.
A)surgery
B)radiation
C)chemotherapy
D)immunotherapy
Q3) A(n)________ is an abnormal mass of tissue that is surrounded by a capsule of connective tissue and that usually remains at the site where it forms.
Q4) ________ is a treatment method in which rapidly dividing cells are killed using drugs instead of radiation.
Q5) Explain why malignant tumors are more dangerous than benign tumors.
Q6) How does chemotherapy work as a treatment for cancer? Why is it not always effective?
Q7) The removal and analysis of a piece of tissue that is suspected to be cancerous is called a(n)________.
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