Course Introduction
Contemporary Chemistry Study
Guide Questions
Contemporary Chemistry explores the principles and applications of modern chemistry in everyday life and emerging technologies. The course covers key topics including atomic and molecular structure, chemical bonding, reactivity, and the role of chemistry in areas such as health, energy, and the environment. Emphasis is placed on current scientific advances, sustainability, and ethical considerations in chemical research and industry. Through lectures, laboratory experiences, and real-world case studies, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how chemistry intersects with contemporary societal challenges and innovations.
Recommended Textbook
Conceptual Chemistry 5th Edition by John A. Suchocki
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17 Chapters
2174 Verified Questions
2174 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: About Science
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65 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How might the demand for reproducibility in science have the long-term effect of compelling honesty?
A) Any false claims are eventually uncovered. Scientists, therefore, stand to gain most from reporting their results truthfully.
B) A scientist who has knowingly falsifies any bit of evidence runs the risk of losing credibility for all his or her life's work.
C) Science is about discovering the rules of nature. A scientist who creates his or her own rules through dishonesty, which may not be reproducible in other laboratories, is not truly doing science.
D) All of the above are true.
Answer: D
Q2) A scientific hypothesis is a(n) ________.
A) testable assumption used to explain an observation
B) restatement of a natural phenomenon
C) well-tested theory that has been shown to be valid
D) prediction of what will happen in a certain situation
E) test designed to limit possible conclusions
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Particles of Matter
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104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to John Dalton, atoms of a given element ________.
A) are identical
B) have different masses
C) are divisible
D) have the same shape
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is not a measurement of volume?
A) 0.156 liter
B) 22.02 milliliters
C) 10.0 cubic centimeters
D) 842 cubic meters
E) 5.5 milligrams
Answer: E
Q3) Aristotle described the composition and behavior of matter ________.
A) in terms of the 4 qualities of hot, cold, moist and dry
B) as the elements of fire, water, air and earth
C) as materials that are unchanging
D) as states of perception
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Elements of Chemistry
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of a physical change?
A) water boiling and being converted into steam
B) water being electrolyzed and being converted in hydrogen and oxygen
C) iron metal reacting with oxygen to form rust
D) a candy bar being digested by a student
E) charcoal being converted into ash
Answer: A
Q2) What chemical change occurs when a wax candle burns?
A) The wax near the flame melts.
B) The molten wax is pulled upwards through the wick.
C) The wax within the wick is heated to about 600°C.
D) The heated wax molecules combine with oxygen molecules.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following describes a nonmetal?
A) poor conductor of electricity
B) shiny
C) malleable
D) ductile
E) good conductor of heat
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Subatomic Particles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Does it make sense to say that a textbook is about 99.9 percent empty space?
A) No. A textbook is a solid and thus is quite dense. Therefore it is not 99.9 percent empty space.
B) No. Only gases are considered to be 99.9 percent empty space. Liquids and solids are not.
C) Yes. A textbook like all material things is made up of atoms, which are considered to be 99.9 percent empty space.
D) No. A textbook could only be considered to be 99.9 percent empty space if it were combusted.
Q2) Which of the following experiments helped to determine the charge of an electron and (indirectly) its mass?
A) J.J. Thompson's cathode ray deflection experiments
B) R. Millikan's oil drop experiments
C) E. Rutherford's gold foil experiments
D) Avogadro's number experiments
E) Franklin's kite experiments
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Chapter 5: The Atomic Nucleus
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an atom has 104 electrons, 157 neutrons, and 104 protons, what is its approximate atomic mass?
A) The approximate atomic mass is 365.
B) The approximate atomic mass is 261.
C) The approximate atomic mass is 157.
D) The approximate atomic mass is cannot be determined with the information given.
Q2) Alpha and beta rays are deflected in opposite directions in a magnetic field because ________.
A) they have opposite charges
B) they spin in opposite directions
C) alpha particles contain nucleons and beta particles do not
D) all of the above
Q3) What is the main technical difficulty in dealing with fusion reactions?
A) The amount of energy needed to overcome the electrical repulsion of the reactants is extremely high.
B) The reactants are highly toxic and extremely radioactive.
C) The mass of the reactants is less than the mass of the products.
D) It isn't possible to artificially generate the conditions needed for fusion.
E) none of the above
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Page 7
Chapter 6: How Atoms Bond
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Sample Questions
Q1) If all the molecules of a body remained part of that body, would the body have any odor?
A) Yes, but only if that body is sweating.
B) No, because there would be no molecules traveling to our nose.
C) Yes, because it would still release photons.
D) No, because it would no longer be what it was.
Q2) Which of the following is not a property of metal?
A) does not conduct heat well
B) conducts electricity
C) is shiny
D) is strong, but can be bent
E) All of the above are properties of metals.
Q3) Which of the following molecules would contain a dipole?
A) H-F
B) Cl-Cl
C) H-H
D) F-F
E) all of the above
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8
Chapter 7: How Molecules Mix
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is a large quantity of water used in industrial processes in the U.S. purified by desalinization?
A) The sources are brackish or metal ion rich.
B) The sources are ocean water.
C) There is not enough fresh water.
D) It is less expensive than using fresh water.
E) none of the above
Q2) What is the molarity of 0.50 liters of a solution with five moles of sucrose in it?
A) 10. molar
B) 0.5 molar
C) 5 molar
D) 2.5 molar
E) 1 molar
Q3) How many molecules of sucrose are in a 0.500 moles of sucrose?
A) 3.01 × 10<sup>23</sup> molecules of sucrose
B) 6.02 × 10<sup>23</sup> molecules of sucrose
C) 12.04 × 10<sup>23</sup> molecules of sucrose
D) 0.5
E) 1 gram
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Page 9
Chapter 8: How Water Behaves
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140 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The formation of hydrogen bonds between water molecules ________.
A) leads to the formation of ice
B) releases heat energy
C) increases the amount of molecular vibration
D) causes ice to melt and form water
E) makes molecules move farther apart
Q2) If you were somehow able to sit at the surface of an ice cube and were able to slow the movement of water molecules from the solid to the liquid phase, what would eventually happen to the ice cube?
A) It would increase in size.
B) It would melt because you are sitting on it and you give off heat.
C) It would melt because you have slowed the rate of water uptake.
D) It would melt because you have increased the rate of water uptake.
E) none of the above
Q3) Why does a paper clip float when placed on water?
A) It is lighter than water.
B) It is less dense than water.
C) It only floats on dense, cold water.
D) The molecules of water hold together and keep it from sinking.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: How Chemicals React
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Sample Questions
Q1) The yeast in bread dough feeds on sugar to produce carbon dioxide. Why does the dough rise faster in a warmer area?
A) There is a greater number of effective collisions among reacting molecules.
B) Atmospheric pressure decreases with increasing temperature.
C) The yeast tends to "wake up" with warmer temperatures, which is why baker's yeast is best stored in the refrigerator.
D) The rate of evaporation increases with increasing temperature.
Q2) For the above energy profiles, which reaction has the lowest activation energy?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) All have the same activation energy.
Q3) Why is there a drastic reduction in ozone in the spring?
A) There is a sudden increase in Cl atoms in the spring.
B) It is warmer in the spring.
C) There are more chlorofluorocarbons in the spring.
D) all of the above
E) only a and b
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Acids and Bases in Our Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What happens to the corrosive properties of an acid and a base after they neutralize each other? Why?
A) The corrosive properties are neutralized because the acid and base no longer exist.
B) The corrosive properties are unaffected because salt is a corrosive agent.
C) The corrosive properties are doubled because the acid and base are combined in the salt.
D) The corrosive properties remain the same when the salt is mixed into water.
Q2) Which of the following statements about strong or weak acids is true?
A) A weak acid and a strong acid at the same concentration are equally corrosive.
B) A weak acid readily forms ions when dissolved in water.
C) A strong acid will never react with a strong base.
D) A weak acid will react with a strong base.
Q3) What is the main characteristic of a strong base?
A) It is completely dissociated in water.
B) It readily accepts an acidic proton.
C) It is corrosive.
D) It will damage your skin.
E) all of the above
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Oxidations and Reductions Charge the World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following elements would be most useful for creating a n-type silicon?
A) As
B) Sn
C) Pb
D) B
E) Ga
Q2) Why is the anode of a battery indicated with negative (-) sign?
A) Because that is where electrons are being generated.
B) Because it is negative.
C) Because it is positive.
D) Because that is where electrons are being adsorbed.
E) It is just a convention so the batteries are put in the MP3 player correctly.
Q3) Thin-film photovoltaic cells are ________.
A) composed of crystalline silicon
B) easy to mass produce
C) sensitive to only narrow regions of the visible spectrum
D) very expensive to produce
E) none of the above
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13
Chapter 12: Organic Compounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does not describe the number of other atoms a carbon atom can be bonded to?
A) only 1
B) only 2
C) only 3
D) only 4
E) only 5
Q2) Which of the above molecules is a ketone?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) none of the above
Q3) What was the first polymer that was synthesized (i.e., not a derivative of a natural polymer)?
A) bakelite
B) nylon
C) rayon
D) celluloid
E) rubber
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Chapter 13: Nutrients of Life
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138 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the above pairs of side chains could be involved in a hydrophobic interaction?
A) a and b
B) a and c
C) b and c
D) b and d
E) none of the above
Q2) How are proteins similar to starch?
A) Both are polymers.
B) Both can be consumed and used as an energy source.
C) Both are made of glucose monomers.
D) Both are lipids.
E) A and B
Q3) What is the cause of secondary structure in a protein?
A) short range interactions between neighboring amino acids
B) covalent bonding between different protein molecules
C) noncovalent interaction of groups of protein molecules
D) long distance conformation changes due to a large number of weak interactions
E) none of the above
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Medicinal Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an advantage of synaptic clefts between neurons rather than direct connections?
A) It allows the body to regulate the passage of nerve impulses.
B) It allows for nerve signals to travel faster from one neuron to the next.
C) It makes it so that the neurons need not be extremely long.
D) It allows neurons to change their connections to other neurons.
Q2) Why do some antiviral agents exhibit anticancer activity?
A) There are some forms of cancer that are initiated by a viral infection.
B) Cancer cells tend to have a high metabolism to which viruses are attracted.
C) These antiviral agents upset genetic mechanisms, which can destroy cancer cells as well as viruses.
D) These antiviral agents bind to receptor sites that cancer cells need for absorbing nutrients.
Q3) What is a pathogen?
A) a disease-causing organism
B) the side effect of a drug
C) a type of receptor site specific to bacteria
D) a type of virus that infects tobacco
E) none of the above
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Optimizing Food Production
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where do plants get most of the elements that make up their mass?
A) air and water
B) roots
C) soil
D) sunlight
E) none of the above
Q2) Which of the following is part of integrated pest management?
A) determining ideal crop rotation strategies
B) identifying the best set of crops for a given location
C) passing legislation that lowers the restrictions on pesticide use
D) choosing the best crop for the current agricultural market
E) only A and B
Q3) Most fresh water lakes ________.
A) contain no dissolved salts
B) contain dissolved salts
C) have a neutral pH
D) lie outside of the water cycle
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Protection Water and Air Resources
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which natural law is illustrated by the fact that the fertilizers we use can contaminate the water supply?
A) law of conservation of mass
B) law of definite proportions
C) law of the conservation of energy
D) Avogadro's law
E) all of the above
Q2) What is the source of atmospheric pressure?
A) It is the weight of the air above that is pushing down on us.
B) It is the interatomic attraction between air molecules.
C) It is the potential energy stored in the gas molecules.
D) It is the stored solar energy in gas molecules.
E) none of the above
Q3) From 1980 to 2005 total water consumption in the United States ________.
A) increased
B) decreased
C) remained about the same
D) varied markedly
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18
Chapter 17: Capturing Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What feature makes fusion energy more attractive than fission?
A) There is no radioactive waste generated.
B) The cost of the reactors is less than fission reactors.
C) Less shielding from high energy neutrons is needed.
D) It will be able to supply energy to developing countries.
E) none of the above
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of biomass as an energy source?
A) Burning biomass generates more energy than burning fossil fuels.
B) Burning biomass releases less sulfur and ash than burning coal.
C) Growing biomass doesn't strip nutrients from the soil.
D) Growing biomass for energy enhances the world's food supply.
Q3) A disadvantage of tidal power is that electricity is generated only when tides are coming in or going out. How might a tidal electric power plant be outfitted so as to be able to provide a continuous supply of electricity?
A) Build a large reservoir to collect both high and low tides.
B) Store the electricity in a series of large batteries.
C) The electricity can be stored as hydrogen formed through electrolysis.
D) All of the above have some merit.
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Page 19