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Contemporary Chemistry explores the fundamental principles of chemistry through the lens of current scientific advancements and societal issues. This course covers topics such as atomic structure, chemical bonding, reactions, thermodynamics, and kinetics, while emphasizing their applications in modern technology, medicine, environmental science, and industry. Students will analyze case studies, engage in laboratory experiments, and discuss the impact of chemical innovations on everyday life, preparing them to understand and address real-world challenges through a chemical perspective.
Recommended Textbook CHEM2 Chemistry in Your World 2nd Edition by Hogg
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Q1) Which is considered a physical science?
A) physics
B) biology
C) zoology
D) botany
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following explorations could be enhanced by our knowledge of DNA?
A) development of drug to cure cancer
B) use of genetically modified food to produce edible vaccines
C) determine if a convicted felon is actually innocent
D) all of these
Answer: D
Q3) Which is considered a fossil fuel?
A) coal
B) solar
C) wind
D) hydrothermal
Answer: A
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Q1) A person weighs 165 lbs. Which of the following would calculate their mass in kilograms if 2.2 lbs = 1 kg?
A) 165 \(\times\) 2.2
B) 165 ÷ 2.2
C) 2.2 ÷ 165
D) 165 + 2.2
Answer: B
Q2) A pure substance which can be decomposed into two or more pure substances is called a mixture.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following is one of the classes of pure substances?
A) compound
B) homogeneous mixture
C) solution
D) heterogeneous mixture
Answer: A
Q4) Mg is the chemical symbol for ____________________.
Answer: magnesium
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Q1) The symbol and atomic number of the heaviest alkaline earth elements are, respectively
A) Ra, 226.
B) Fr, 223.
C) Ra, 88.
D) Fr, 87.
Answer: C
Q2) What is the ground state configuration for an argon atom?
A) 1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>6</sup>3s<sup>2</sup>3p<sup>6</sup>
B) 1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>6</sup>3s<sup>2</sup>3p<sup>8</sup>
C) 1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>6</sup>
D) 1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>6</sup>3s<sup>2</sup>
Answer: A
Q3) The majority of the elements are
A) gases.
B) nonmetals.
C) radioactive.
D) metals.
Answer: D
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Q1) Which is not necessary for photochemical smog?
A) sulfur dioxide
B) sunlight
C) free radicals
D) nitrogen dioxide
Q2) Which is the secondary pollutant in photochemical smog?
A) ozone
B) nitrogen
C) hydrocarbon
D) nitrogen dioxide
Q3) Identify the type of pollution that is referred to as anthropogenic pollution.
A) volcanic eruption
B) forest fire
C) nuclear reactor
D) vents in Yellowstone
Q4) If the concentration of NO<sub>2</sub> during rush hour peak in an urban area is 0.405 ppm, the percent concentration is_________%.
Q5) A temperature of -60 °C would most likely be found near the number______.
Q6) The troposphere is labeled with the number______.
Q7) The stratosphere is labeled with the number______.
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Q1) Which molecule would be expected to exhibit the least hydrogen bonding?
A) H-F
B) H-O-H
C) NH<sub>3</sub>
D) CH<sub>4</sub>
Q2) Which statement is true about a glass of iced tea flavored with sugar and lemon juice?
A) Sugar is a solute.
B) Water is a solvent.
C) Lemon juice is a solute.
D) all of these are true
Q3) The total number of single bonds in hexane is__________.
Q4) Phosphorus has 3 valence electrons.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which type of bond would be found in hydrochloric acid, HCl?
Q6) If X was the element K and Y the element O, which type of bond would form?
Q7) Negative ions are approximately the same size as the atoms from which they form.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What happens to most of the UV radiation in our atmosphere?
A) absorbed by plants
B) absorbed by greenhouse gases
C) absorbed by ozone
D) absorbed by nitrogen
Q2) Convert 370 ppm carbon dioxide to a percentage?
A) 0.00037%
B) 0.0037%
C) 0.037%
D) 0.37%
Q3) How are carbon dioxide concentrations determined from thousands of years ago?
A) analysis of decayed plant material
B) analysis of ice samples
C) analysis of the atmosphere
D) analysis of the Earth's core
Q4) Which molecule will absorb infrared radiation?
A) oxygen
B) methane
C) nitrogen
D) argon
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Q1) Why are scientists worried about the ozone hole?
A) increase in skin cancer
B) increase in plant growth
C) decrease in ocean temperature
D) all of the above
Q2) What chemical bond is broken by a photon of light in a typical CFC molecule?
A) C-H
B) Cl-Cl
C) H-Cl
D) C-Cl
Q3) Which molecule absorbs UV-B radiation?
A) O<sub>2</sub>
B) O<sub>3</sub>
C) CO<sub>2</sub>
D) NO<sub>2</sub>
Q4) What type of radiation is absorbed by molecular oxygen in the stratosphere?
A) UV-A
B) UV-B
C) UV-C
D) visible

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Q1) How many atoms are represented in the formula Ca<sub>3</sub>(PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>?
A) 9
B) 11
C) 13
D) 1
Q2) What factors determine the rate of a reaction?
A) nature of reactants
B) concentration of reactants
C) activation energy
D) all of these
Q3) The molar mass of sulfur trioxide is ________g.
Q4) Favorable chemical reactions
A) are generally explosive.
B) absorb energy from the surroundings.
C) occur only in the gaseous phase.
D) usually give off heat energy.
Q5) E<sub>act</sub> is represented by the letter_______.
Q6) If a catalyst were added to this reaction, the position of letter ______ would appear lower on the energy scale.
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Q1) Chemical buffering systems
A) maintain constant pH.
B) consist of a acid and a base pair.
C) absorb added H<sup>+</sup> or OH<sup>-</sup> ions.
D) Buffers do all of the above.
Q2) A change in pH from 3.0 to 5.0 represents
A) a 10 fold increase in acidity.
B) a 10 fold decrease in acidity.
C) a 100 fold increase in acidity.
D) a 100 fold decrease in acidity.
E) a decrease in acidity by a factor of 2.
Q3) Which pair would make a good buffer?
A) H<sup>+</sup>/OH<sup>-</sup>
B) Na<sup>+</sup> /Cl<sup>-</sup>
C) HPO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup> /PO<sub>4</sub><sup>3-</sup>
D) Na<sup>+</sup> /OH<sup>-</sup>
Q4) KOH and NaOH are both bases but NaOH is a weak base while KOH is a strong base.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A solution with a pH of 5.05 is ___________.
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Q1) Identify the reduced species in the following equation CH<sub>4</sub>(g) + 2O<sub>2</sub>(g) \(\to\) CO<sub>2</sub>(g) + 2H<sub>2</sub>O(g)
A) C
B) O<sub>2</sub>
C) H
D) H<sub>2</sub>O
Q2) Antioxidant vitamins
A) react with DNA.
B) donate electrons to free radicals.
C) are reduced.
D) form free radicals in the body.
Q3) If the electrolyte contains nitrate ions, they will move from compartment ___ to compartment ___.
Q4) Which of the following equations represents the reduction of carbon?
A) C + 2 H<sub>2</sub> \(\to\) CH<sub>4</sub>
B) C + O<sub>2</sub> \(\to\) CO<sub>2</sub>
C) 2 C + O<sub>2</sub> \(\to\) 2 CO
D) C<sup>2+</sup> \(\to\) C<sup>4+</sup> + 2e<sup>-</sup>
Q5) Al should be placed at letter _____.
Q6) The oxidizing agent is found in compartment ______.
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Q1) Freshwater can be made from seawater by A) distillation.
B) reverse osmosis.
C) filtration.
D) both a and b above
Q2) The source of water for "G" is region labeled by the letter_____.
Q3) Letter ____ shows the position of an aquifer.
Q4) Which ions are associated with hard water?
A) Na<sup>+</sup> and NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>
B) Mg<sup>2+</sup> and Ca<sup>2+</sup>
C) K<sup>+</sup> and Cl<sup>-</sup>
D) Pb<sup>2+</sup> and Zn<sup>2+</sup>
Q5) What is the name of the sticky gelatinous precipitate that is formed in the primary treatment process and carries away suspended dirt particles and bacteria?
A) calcium sulfate
B) calcium hydroxide
C) aluminum hydroxide
D) aluminum sulfate
Q6) Surface water is indicated by the letter______.
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Q1) Identify the alkane shown below.
A) C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub>
B) C<sub>10</sub>H<sub>20</sub>
C) C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>4</sub>
D) C<sub>18</sub>H<sub>40</sub>
Q2) The complete combustion of C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub> yields
A) C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>.
B) CO and H<sub>2</sub>O.
C) CO<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>O.
D) C and H<sub>2</sub>.
Q3) Coal gasification is a process for making A) synthesis gas.
B) molecules that are precursors of organic chemicals.
C) methane.
D) all of these
Q4) Fermentation of carbohydrates is a source of A) MTBE.
B) ethanol.
C) ethers.
D) methanol.
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Q1) The splitting of a nucleus by a slow moving neutron is called
A) fission.
B) fusion.
C) fragmentation.
D) annihilation.
Q2) In the symbol <sup>238</sup>U, the 238 is
A) the mass number.
B) the atomic number.
C) the number of neutrons in the atom.
D) the number of protons in the atom.
Q3) What produces the tremendous energy of a nuclear fission reaction?
A) some mass being changed into energy
B) the splitting of the nucleus
C) the extra neutrons produced
D) disintegration of the containment building
Q4) Radon in the air arises from
A) sun's ultraviolet radiation that enters earth's atmosphere.
B) radioactive decay of uranium in the soil.
C) increased use of microwave devices by humans.
D) radiation produced by worldwide use of electrical power lines.
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Q1) In a condensation polymerization process, what happens to form the polymer chain?
A) Small molecules such as water are split out and monomers are linked.
B) Small molecules such as water are required for the bonding link.
C) Small molecules may be split out or are required depending on whether an ester or an ether linkage is formed.
D) Small molecules such as water are moved from one position to another.
Q2) What two monomers have been copolymerized to make an excellent synthetic rubber?
A) styrene and ethylene
B) styrene and butadiene
C) ethylene and butadiene
D) ethylene and vinyl chloride
Q3) Identify the addition polymer used in sewer pipes.
A) polypropylene
B) PVC
C) nylon
D) polyacrylonitrile
Q4) This substance could be produced by the ________________ of a primary alcohol.
Q5) This substance can react with ethanol to produce a compound containing a(n) __________functional group.
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Q1) Which is not true about detergents?
A) The positive charged end is cationic.
B) The polar part is oil soluble.
C) The water soluble part is hydrophilic.
D) Work well in hard water.
Q2) A condition of lactose intolerance means an individual
A) has insufficient lactose in the diet.
B) must have a diet high in milk products.
C) has a stomach pH greater than seven.
D) lacks the enzyme lactase.
Q3) Glucose and sucrose are two of the most common monosaccharides.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Lactose is a disaccharide found in
A) sugar beets.
B) sugar cane.
C) starch.
D) milk.
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Q1) Vegetarians as a group are at greater risk for suffering from zinc deficiency that the population as a whole.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which activity among the following expends the most energy per hour?
A) slow bicycling
B) walking at a fast rate
C) standing
D) eating
Q3) Which class of food nutrient is not an organic compound?
A) protein
B) mineral
C) vitamin
D) fat
Q4) Digestion converts carbohydrates into
A) amino acids.
B) fatty acids.
C) CO<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>O.
D) monosaccharides.
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Q1) Anabolic steroids would be classified as ___________________.
Q2) Which reaction type would probably not be useful in anticancer activity?
A) interfering with DNA replication
B) blocking nerve impulses
C) blocking cell wall synthesis
D) interfering with DNA synthesis
Q3) Which of the following compounds is a legal stimulant?
A) aspirin
B) alcohol
C) cocaine
D) caffeine
Q4) A good sun-screen suntan lotion must contain a chemical that will absorb a major portion of the energy in which region of the spectrum?
A) infrared
B) green
C) microwave
D) ultraviolet
Q5) Penicillin G would be classified as ___________________.
Q6) Caffeine would be classified as ___________________.
Q7) Acetaminophen would be classified as ___________________.
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Q1) Selenium could be used as the dopant indicated by the letter______.
Q2) What two elements make up glass?
A) Si and S
B) Si and B
C) Si and N
D) Si and O
Q3) Pyrex and Kimax glass typically contain an oxide of which element that gives the glass a small coefficient of thermal expansion?
A) sodium
B) lead
C) boron
D) arsenic
Q4) The first transistor was constructed
A) in 1947 at Bell Laboratories.
B) in 1941 at IBM.
C) in 1969 at Texas Instruments.
D) in 1934 in Switzerland.
Q5) The major component of sea shells is calcium silicate.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A plant micronutrient is
A) phosphorus.
B) calcium.
C) iron.
D) sulfur.
Q2) Soil is divided into horizons. Which set shows the correct order starting at the surface and working deeper?
A) substratum, subsoil, topsoil
B) rock, clay, sandy loam
C) clay, rock, sandy loam
D) topsoil, subsoil, substratum
Q3) Which pesticide is known as an organophosphate?
A) pirimicarb
B) carbaryl
C) DTT
D) malathion
Q4) Carbon is classified as a mineral nutrient while nitrogen is classified as a nonmineral secondary nutrient.
A)True
B)False
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