Course Introduction
Contemporary Biology Test Questions
Contemporary Biology provides a comprehensive overview of modern biological concepts and discoveries, emphasizing their relevance to current issues and real-world applications. The course explores fundamental topics such as genetics, evolution, cellular processes, ecology, and biotechnology, while also examining recent advancements in areas like genetic engineering, personalized medicine, and environmental sustainability. Through a combination of lectures, discussions, and hands-on activities, students will gain a deeper understanding of how biological principles impact society, public policy, and ethical decision-making in today's rapidly changing world.
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Discover Biology 6th Core Edition by Anu Singh
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The directions for the specific genetic characteristics in all living things are functionally organized into discrete segments called genes; these genes are composed of ________.
Answer: deoxyribonucleic acid,DNA
Q2) The scientific method cannot be used to evaluate untestable hypotheses.Which of the following types of questions are untestable?
A) questions about topics other than the natural world
B) questions about the events that immediately followed the origin of the universe
C) questions about the behavior of plants and animals
D) questions whose possible answers are socially controversial
Answer: A
Q3) Groups of different species that live and interact in a given area are referred to as a A) biosphere.
B) population.
C) community.
D) habitat.
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a role of fatty acids in living organisms?
A) energy storage
B) storage of genetic information
C) membrane construction
D) building blocks of fats
Answer: B
Q2) The sugar glucose has an important role
A) in the formation of proteins.
B) in short-term energy storage.
C) in the formation of membranes.
D) as a building block of nucleotides.
Answer: B
Q3) How many atoms are present in a single molecule of C H N O ?
A) 4
B) 8
C) 12
D) 24
Answer: D
Q4) Molecules with an uneven distribution of charge are described as ________.
Answer: polar
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Q1) The ________ endoplasmic reticulum is covered with ribosomes.
Answer: rough
Q2) A cell structure that pinches off from a membrane,encloses material,and then fuses with another membrane to release its contents at its destination is called a(n)________.
Answer: vesicle
Q3) A cell you view under a microscope has a cell wall and chromosomes,but no nucleus.The cell you are viewing could be a
A) human muscle cell.
B) cell from the leaf of a maple tree.
C) bacterium recovered from the large intestine of a mammal.
D) cell from the skin of a potato.
Answer: C
Q4) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) The plasma membrane prevents some molecules from entering the cell.
B) The plasma membrane prevents some molecules from leaving the cell.
C) The plasma membrane receives signals from the outside environment.
D) The plasma membrane is the storehouse for each cell's genetic information.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Q1) Channel proteins provide a means for large,________ molecules to move across the plasma membrane without an expenditure of energy.
Q2) Which type of molecule will diffuse through the plasma membrane most quickly?
A) a small polar molecule like water
B) a small nonpolar molecule like carbon dioxide
C) a large polar molecule like glucose
D) a large nonpolar molecule like testosterone
Q3) Protein-lined tunnels that span the small intercellular space separating adjacent cells and that allow the rapid and direct passage of ions and small molecules,including signaling molecules,are called ________.
Q4) Cells that experience high mechanical stress,like heart cells,typically connect to one another using a(n)________ junction,allowing the stress to be distributed to a larger area.
Q5) Osmoregulation refers to balancing water concentrations in organisms and cells.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The passive movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane is called ________.
Page 6
Q7) Cells in the liver typically acquire cholesterol by receptor-mediated ________.
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Chapter 5: Energy, Metabolism, and Enzymes
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Q1) As a molecule becomes oxidized,it loses electrons.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a metabolic pathway,the product of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction becomes the substrate for the next reaction in the pathway.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During a chemical reaction,a cell uses all the chemical energy in ATP.
A)True
B)False
Q4) At very high salt concentrations,the three-dimensional structure of proteins is often stabilized; therefore,these salt concentrations play a major role in enhancing the activity of many enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The first law of thermodynamics states that the total energy of a living system and its surroundings remains constant.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Photo Synthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) When yeasts are exposed to anaerobic conditions,they regenerate NAD from NADH in a series of reactions that make CO and ________.
Q2) In mitochondria,ATP is produced in conjunction with proteins in the membrane that surrounds a region in the mitochondrion known as the ________.
Q3) The process that converts NADH into NAD to keep glycolysis running under anaerobic conditions is called ________.
Q4) NADH serves as an energy carrier in living organisms by coupling ________ with
A) oxygen production; the generation of carbon dioxide during cellular respiration
B) the synthesis of ATP; the synthesis of water
C) photosynthesis; metabolism
D) the catabolic aspects of cellular respiration; the synthesis of ATP
Q5) During photosynthesis,energized electrons flow from ________ to ________.
A) photosystem I; photosystem II
B) the reaction center; the antenna complex
C) photosystem II; photosystem I
D) the stroma; the intermembrane space
Q6) NAD becomes NADH when it gains one proton and two high-energy ________.
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Chapter 7: Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) The goal of mitosis is to
A) form two equal daughter nuclei.
B) form chromatin strands.
C) loop chromatin into chromosomes.
D) package chromosomes into chromatin.
Q2) Lily plants sometimes have twice as many chromosomes per cell as their parent plants.Which of the following statements explains how this phenomenon might have happened?
A) The lily's sister chromatids failed to separate during meiosis.
B) The lily's chromosome number went from 2n to 1n.
C) The lily's gametes fused during mitosis.
D) The parent plant lost half of its chromosomes during mitosis.
Q3) A zygote contains 16 chromosomes.The diploid number of this cell is ________ [2n = ?].
Q4) How many sister chromatids are in a bivalent?
A) two
B) four
C) eight
D) 16
Q5) Sister chromatids are held together at a constriction point called a ________.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Cancer and Human Health
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Q1) The binding of a growth factor to a receptor protein on the surface of a cell results in signal transduction that affects gene expression in the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A woman who has already had children develops skin cancer from overexposure to the sun.Is it likely that her children have inherited this cancer from her?
A) No, because somatic mutations are not passed on to the next generation.
B) No, because any cancer that develops after a person is an adult cannot have a genetic component.
C) Yes, because almost all cancers are caused by inherited mutations.
D) Yes, because the woman's children have exactly the same genes as their mother.
Q3) When a mutant receptor protein no longer requires a positive growth factor to activate it,the result is
A) reduction in cell division.
B) extra binding sites.
C) uncontrolled cell division.
D) lack of protein products.
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Most human genetic traits are
A) controlled by one gene.
B) not inherited according to Mendel's laws.
C) controlled by more than one gene.
D) not heritable.
Q2) An individual with the genotype Aa mates with an individual with the genotype AA.Which of the following is true?
A) These two individuals will have four offspring.
B) Half of the offspring will be Aa.
C) Twenty-five percent of the offspring will be aa.
D) Seventy-five percent of the offspring will be AA.
Q3) Environmental factors can alter the effects of genes.
A)True B)False
Q4) If an offspring of two diploid parents carries a total of 32 different genes,it inherited ________ genes from each of those parents.
Q5) The genetic makeup of an organism,such as Gg,is its ________.
Q6) Alternate versions of the same gene,such as blue or brown for eye color,are known as ________.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) Human males have one chromosome that females do not,known as the ________ chromosome.
Q2) The chance that any two siblings will be genetically identical is astronomically small. A)True B)False
Q3) During meiosis,"new" chromosomes are generated when homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material during ________.
Q4) The ________ gene is responsible for activating many genes involved in "maleness" during embryonic development.
Q5) A genetically normal human who has a homozygous genotype for a gene locus on the X chromosome
A) must be a male.
B) must be a female.
C) cannot be a female.
D) may be either male or female.
Q6) The farther apart on the same chromosome that two genes are located,the more likely they are to undergo ________.
Q7) A female who is a carrier of the sex-linked gene A has the genotype ________.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: DNA and Genes
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Q1) A permanent change in the DNA base sequence due to an uncorrected mismatch error is called a ________.
Q2) To repair DNA,a protein cuts out the damaged section.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A change in an organism's environment generally results in a change in ________,leading to the production of different types of proteins.
Q4) When compared,the nucleotide sequences of different individuals are________.
Q5) ________ DNA consists of stretches of nucleotides that separate genes.
Q6) Borrelia burgdorferi has a genome of 0.5 million base pairs and little noncoding DNA.Borrelia burgdorferi is a ________.
Q7) The two strands of a DNA molecule are held together by ________ bonds between their base pairs.
A) hydrogen
B) amino acid
C) phosphate
D) protein
Q8) The genome of a prokaryote rarely contains ________ DNA sequences that do not undergo transcription.
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Chapter 12: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) Proteins are produced directly from DNA,with no intermediate steps.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The base sequence of mRNA specifies the sequence of amino acids in a ________.
Q3) If a eukaryotic protein is to function properly,the initial mRNA carrying the code for its structure must be processed to remove its ________.Then,before translation occurs,the joining together of the remaining sequences of mRNA,the ________,must be accomplished.
Q4) During RNA splicing
A) introns are removed from RNA, and the remaining exons are connected to form a mature mRNA.
B) an RNA molecule is cut up into many small pieces and each piece forms a single mRNA.
C) exons are removed from RNA and the remaining introns are fused to form a single mRNA.
D) RNA is used to remove mutations from essential genes.
Q5) A human-made chemical that is found in hard plastics,CDs,DVDs,shower curtains,and many other products,and that has been accused of having a variety of harmful effects like obesity and cancer is ________.
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Chapter 13: DNA Technology
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Q1) Why are housekeeping genes not used to create DNA fingerprints?
A) They mutate often because they are unnecessary genes and so are highly variable.
B) They are important genes for every cell in every person and so are highly conserved.
C) They are found only in a few cell types, not all cell types.
D) They are expressed at a low rate in cells.
Q2) To produce a recombinant subunit vaccine,genes from an infectious microbe are genetically engineered into bacteria or yeast.The protein products of the transgenic infectious microbe genes are
A) antigens.
B) plasmids.
C) vectors.
D) restriction enzymes.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of humans changing the DNA of an organism?
A) treating a patient with a medication that cures an infection
B) adding a disease-resistant gene to a crop plant
C) modifying bacteria to produce human insulin
D) gene therapy
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Chapter 14: How Evolution Works
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Q1) One result of ________ over evolutionary time spans is that the alleles that enable individuals to survive and reproduce at a higher rate than other individuals become more common in the population.
Q2) Flounder (a type of fish)generally match the color of the sandy bottoms of the bodies of water they inhabit.Their color functions like camouflage,making them difficult for predators to detect.This is an example of A) speciation.
B) adaptation.
C) continental drift.
D) guided mutation.
Q3) Natural selection tends to
A) increase the commonality of characteristics that enhance survival and reproduction. B) decrease the number of individuals in any given population.
C) lead to an increase in genetic drift.
D) decrease the likelihood of adaptation.
Q4) One of the consequences of ________ is a change in the proportions of one or more of the inherited characteristics found in the next generation,compared with the original population.
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Chapter 15: The Origin of Species
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Q1) The only modern humans that exhibit Neanderthal genes are descended from non-African ancestors.This is because
A) hybrids produced by interbreeding between Neanderthals and African humans were not fertile.
B) the ancestors of African humans have the same ancestors as Neanderthals.
C) Neanderthals evolved outside of Africa, so only humans who lived outside of Africa could have interbred with them.
D) African humans evolved after Neanderthals went extinct.
Q2) Which of the following does NOT contribute to the biodiversity seen on islands?
A) Islands allow for allopatric speciation.
B) The small populations on islands are susceptible to genetic drift.
C) Islands frequently provide microclimates that result in ecological isolation.
D) Species frequently undergo adaptive radiation when they migrate to remote islands.
Q3) A biological species is a group of interbreeding populations that is ________ isolated from other species of organisms living in the same region.
Q4) The great diversity of life on Earth is caused by ________,the formation of new species.
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Chapter 16: The Evolution of Biodiversity
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Q1) Which fish,thought for a long time to be extinct until it appeared in a South African fish market in 1938,is also suspected to be related to the ancestral fish that gave rise to the first tetrapod?
A) the lungfish
B) the coelacanth
C) the coelatroph
D) the golden koi
Q2) There is a class of genes that causes the development of structures in embryological development; such genes accomplish this task by controlling the expression of all other genes necessary for the growth of an embryological structure like the limb.Such genes are called ____________________ genes.
Q3) Which kind of organism makes up the oldest fossil found on Earth?
A) protists
B) animals
C) bacteria
D) plants
Q4) Dinosaurs lived on Pangaea.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Biological Diversity, Bacteria, and Archaea
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Q1) Sometimes antiviral drugs stop working because viruses can evolve and become ________ to the drug.
Q2) A scientist is studying the relationship of the food sources of all the animals in a pond.He is studying A) genetic diversity.
B) species diversity.
C) ecosystem diversity.
D) biome diversity.
Q3) Using the simplest methods to study the composition of intestinal microbial flora,it is necessary to collect a ________ sample from the subject.
Q4) Pathogens are organisms that cause ________.
Q5) H1N1 is a strain of the influenza virus.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The status of viruses has been controversial,but most biologists now agree that the most appropriate description for a virus is a microscopic,________ infective particle.
Q7) Bacteria trade small sections of plasmid DNA with one another during ________.
Q8) The domain most similar to Eukarya is ________.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Protista, Plantae, and Fungi
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Q1) In nature,fungi function primarily as ________,getting their nutrition from dead and dying organisms.
Q2) In addition to a process similar to binary fission in prokaryotes (as seen in Amoeba)and fragmentation (as seen in large multicellular algae),some eukaryotes can also reproduce asexually by A) hermaphroditism.
B) releasing gametes that then develop into male or female individuals.
C) the formation of zoospores.
D) creating dormant reproductive structures such as seeds that grow only when environmental conditions are favorable.
Q3) What capability did the development of a vascular system provide?
A) greater efficiency at capturing energy from sunlight
B) greater efficiency for nutrient transport and structural support
C) permitted plant life to establish on land
D) allowed the developing embryo to remain protected until better growth conditions became available
Q4) The first plant group to evolve a vascular system was the ________.
Q5) One of the fundamental differences between phytoplankton and zooplankton is that zooplankton are ________.
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Chapter 19: Animalia
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Q1) Most gardeners are pleased to discover earthworms in their gardens because earthworms improve the soil when they
A) consume herbivorous grazers that would otherwise damage the garden plants.
B) improve soil aeration by burrowing from the surface into deeper soil layers.
C) die after mating and enrich the soil as their bodies decay.
D) burrow the pathways that the roots of garden plants follow to reach deeper nutrient-rich soil layers.
Q2) For the insects that undergo complete metamorphosis,the larva matures to form a ________.
Q3) The swim bladder illustrates how an adapted characteristic can be used for a secondary function when environmental pressures change; although first used for buoyancy,it later served as a primitive ________.
Q4) Features such as a toothed jaw and a bony tail suggest that Archaeopteryx probably did not fly,possibly using its feathers for insulation or gliding instead of flight.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The myriapods are a relatively small group of arthropods; its most common members are the ________ and ________.
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Chapter 20: The Biosphere
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Q1) Atmospheric circulation occurs primarily within one of the ________ major convection cells.
Q2) The ________ is the ecological zone in the marine biome from the shoreline to the continental shelf and has high productivity.
Q3) Workers in Kenya use marine pollution from the Indian Ocean to make key rings. A)True B)False
Q4) An ecosystem consists of both biotic (living)and ________ (nonliving)factors.
Q5) The seafloor drops sharply to a depth of about 6,000 meters where the ________ ends.
Q6) In the Northern Hemisphere,most ocean currents run clockwise. A)True B)False
Q7) A ________ biome forms in a region with low precipitation,generally less than 25 cm/year.
Q8) The Gulf Stream moves about as much water as the average large river on land does.
A)True B)False
Q9) A measure of the energy that producers are able to store as biomass is ________. Page 22
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Chapter 21: Growth of Populations
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Q1) In computing an individual's ecological footprint,which of the following would NOT be included?
A) energy demand
B) food use
C) goods and services use
D) education level
Q2) Using the environment in ways that can continue indefinitely,neither depleting essential resources nor causing environmental damage,is defined as ________ use.
Q3) The population explosion that occurred shortly after the Opuntia cactus was introduced to Australia is an example of
A) exponential growth.
B) emigration.
C) reduced population density.
D) a native species outcompeting an introduced species.
Q4) Density-dependent factors are more likely to limit population growth when A) there are many individuals living in a fixed amount of space.
B) the population moves into a larger habitat.
C) food is abundant.
D) weather conditions become milder.
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Chapter 22: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Genes can influence the ability of an organism to learn.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Animals exhibit more behaviors than the organisms in other kingdoms because they have a more complex ________ system.
Q3) Animals that live in groups do not have fixed behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) For a gosling,________ means forming an image of who is a parent early in life.
Q5) In a polygamous relationship,the greatest parental investments are made by the male.
A)True
B)False
Q6) When you type an e-mail address,you are engaging in a(n)
A) fixed behavior.
B) reflex behavior.
C) learned behavior.
D) imprinted behavior
Q7) A(n)________ is an action made by one organism in response to other organisms or to the physical environment.
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Chapter 23: Ecological Communities
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Q1) By growing on the trunk or branch of a tree,a lichen gains height and exposure to sunlight for photosynthesis.The tree is not harmed by the lichen but does not benefit either.The relationship between the lichen and the tree is A) commensalism.
B) mutualism.
C) parasitism.
D) interference competition.
Q2) Humans negatively affect communities in a variety of ways; the community most common disrupted,usually by its complete removal,are ________.
Q3) Despite its parasitic lifestyle and negative impact on individually infected trees,the presence of mistletoe can greatly increase the diversity of forests and woodlands.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following patterns represents a competitive interaction?
A) +/-
B) +/+
C) o/+
D) -/-
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Chapter 24: Ecosystems
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Q1) Cutting a forest to produce paper bags that are quickly discarded could be considered shortsighted; with the majority of its trees removed,the forest will
A) experience a significant loss of nutrients as nutrients leech through the soil and into nearby waterways.
B) not be unable to recover and will eventually be replaced with a desert.
C) no longer be able to recycle the energy it captures during photosynthesis.
D) lose soil nutrients but gain biodiversity.
Q2) In the absence of ________,nutrient recycling within the ecosystem would completely stop.
A) rocks
B) secondary consumers
C) decomposers
D) predators
Q3) Humans have harmed hemlock populations by
A) mining nutrients from the soil.
B) fertilizer runoff from fields.
C) logging hemlock groves.
D) factories producing components for acid rain.
Q4) Eventually,all biomass produced by any organism is consumed by ________.
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Chapter 25: Global Change
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Q1) Global warming is causing the frequency of storms and severe weather to increase because the rising temperatures also increase ________ energy.
Q2) The best hope for slowing Earth's rapid ecological changes is to decrease the ________ impact on the biosphere to a sustainable level.
Q3) What characteristics would we expect to find in species that will most likely prosper as projected climate change occurs?
A) organisms with narrow tolerances that can live in specialized environments
B) organisms with broad tolerances that can live in a variety of habitats
C) organisms that live in very stable environments
D) organisms that can live only if they form mutualistic relationships with other organisms
Q4) A human-made chemical bioaccumulates if it is easily absorbed by an organism and then quickly broken down and excreted by the organism.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Scientists predict that current increases in atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations will cause temperatures on Earth to rise,a phenomenon known as ________.
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