Contemporary Biology Test Questions
Course Introduction
Contemporary Biology explores the fundamental principles and current advances within the field of biology, emphasizing the scientific process and the relevance of biological concepts to everyday life. This course covers a diverse range of topics including cellular structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and human biology. Through lectures, discussions, and case studies, students gain an understanding of how biological discoveries impact society and address modern challenges such as health, biotechnology, environmental issues, and conservation. The course is designed for both science majors and non-majors seeking a broad and current perspective on the biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Human Biology Concepts and Current Issues 7th Edition by Michael D. Johnson
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2002 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Human Biology, Science, and Society
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mathematics of interpreting and organizing data is known as
A) algebra
B) differential equations
C) statistics
D) graphing
E) correlation and causation
Answer: C
Q2) Explain how the characteristics of bipedalism and opposable thumbs are advantageous to humans.
Answer: Bipedalism frees the hands and forearms for carrying items, tools, food, and even children. Coupled with opposable thumbs, these features have undoubtedly contributed to better defense against predators, increased utilization of resources, and even advanced communication through gesturing and written symbols.
Q3) The ability to stand upright and walk on two legs is termed ________.
Answer: bipedalism
Q4) The application of scientific knowledge to improve the condition of humans is known as ________.
Answer: technology
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Living Things
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA differs from RNA in that DNA
A) is single stranded
B) contains deoxyribose
C) is made up of nucleotides
D) contains cytosine
E) contains phosphates
Answer: B
Q2) Radioisotopes have a number of uses in science and medicine. These uses include which one of the following?
A) repairing damaged heart tissue
B) dating fossils and treating cancer
C) providing the power supply in heart pacemakers
D) treating asthma and regulating nerve transmission
E) curing diabetes
Answer: B
Q3) The figure above shows a triglyceride that is liquid at room temperature.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Structure and Function of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some of the enzymes stored in peroxisomes are used to break down
A) a cell when it becomes damaged
B) bacteria and viruses
C) faulty proteins produced by the cell
D) the plasma membrane
E) hydrogen peroxide
Answer: E
Q2) The role of cilia on cells is to anchor cells by attaching them to other cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) To increase the surface area of some cells, the plasma membrane possesses
A) receptors
B) flagella
C) microvilli
D) transport proteins
Answer: C
Q4) Diffusion of molecules through channels and facilitated transport are types of ________ transport.
Answer: passive
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Chapter 4: From Cells to Organ Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A student is describing the tissue that makes up the walls of the alveoli in the lungs. It appears that these walls are composed of flattened cells arranged in a single layer to facilitate gas exchange. Which one of the following terms best describes this tissue?
A) simple cuboidal
B) stratified squamous
C) simple squamous
D) simple columnar
E) stratified cuboidal
Q2) The skin provides a waterproof barrier surrounding the body because of the presence of ________, a protein in the epidermal cells.
Q3) Positive feedback control occurs
A) during maintenance of proper body temperature
B) when insulin and glucagon regulate blood glucose levels
C) during the process of childbirth (labor)
D) to counter the effects of negative feedback
E) in other animals but not in humans
Q4) Tanning increases the number and density of melanocytes in the epidermis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is TRUE regarding bone repair?
A) Fibrocartilage degenerates where the two broken ends of the bone were once together.
B) Osteoblasts convert cartilage to bone in the injured area.
C) Immediately after breaking a bone, a hematoma breaks free from the injured area.
D) Bones heal more quickly as individuals age.
E) The repaired area of a bone is much thinner than the original bone.
Q2) Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as "brittle bone disease," is caused by a genetic defect in the gene that encodes ________, the major protein found in bone.
Q3) ________ refers to inflammation of the bursae following an injury.
Q4) All of the following are functions of bone EXCEPT which one?
A) red blood cell formation
B) serving as an endocrine organ, secreting several different hormones
C) support and protection
D) attachment of muscles, enabling movement
E) mineral storage
Q5) Immovable joints such as those found between bones of the skull are ________ joints.
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Chapter 6: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fast-twitch fibers contain large amounts of myoglobin and predominate in "red" muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Skeletal muscle groups that work together to create the same movement are referred to as
A) involuntary
B) antagonistic
C) synergistic
D) sarcomeres
E) myofibrils
Q3) In the absence of ATP, a contracted muscle can't relax.
A)True
B)False
Q4) According to the sliding filament mechanism, during a muscle contraction, myosin pulls actin filaments toward the center of a sarcomere, causing the entire sarcomere to shorten.
A)True B)False
Q5) A protein that stores oxygen in slow-twitch muscle fibers is ________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Donating blood in the United States
A) requires that the donor be at least age 17
B) involves a rigorous physical examination
C) though beneficial, may take several hours to complete
D) depends on donors with no prior sexual history
E) is easy and painless and many donors are allowed to give 5-10 units at a time
Q2) Results of an ABO blood typing indicate agglutination reactions when anti-A and anti-B are added to the blood sample. The blood type of the individual would therefore be
A) A
B) B
C) O
D) AB
E) not enough information given to determine blood type
Q3) Granular and agranular describe types of ________ blood cells.
Q4) Erythropoietin is a hormone secreted by the spleen that results in an increased production of red blood cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) T lymphocytes mature in the ________.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Heart and Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) The endothelium of the heart and blood vessels is composed of a smooth layer of connective tissue that reduces friction, which helps keep blood flowing smoothly.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Electrical impulses that stimulate contraction of heart muscles are initiated in the
A) left ventricle
B) bundle of His
C) sinoatrial node
D) atrioventricular node
E) Purkinje fibers
Q3) Which one of the following symptoms is most typical of hypertension?
A) feeling dizzy and faint
B) rapid heart rate
C) very slow heart rate
D) loss of appetite
E) most often there are no symptoms
Q4) The process by which a small balloon is used to widen a narrowed blood vessel is
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Chapter 9: The Immune System and Mechanisms of Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell-mediated immunity involves the activity of ________ lymphocytes.
Q2) Bacteria are helpful to humans in many ways, including all of the following EXCEPT which one?
A) production of antibiotics
B) breakdown of raw sewage
C) digestion of cellulose in the human intestine
D) production of soy sauce
E) production of vitamins for the human body
Q3) Which one of the following diseases is caused by a virus?
A) rabies
B) Lyme disease
C) syphilis
D) toxic shock syndrome
E) tuberculosis
Q4) Infection by HIV can eventually lead to the development of a condition called ________, which is diagnosed when the T helper cell count drops below ________.
Q5) The ________ are lymphatic tissue that protect the throat.
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Q6) Plasma cells and memory cells are types of ________ lymphocytes; both types of cells secrete proteins called ________ as part of the immune response.
Chapter 10: The Respiratory System: Exchange of Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) During exhalation, the pressure inside the lungs
A) initially is higher than atmospheric pressure, but drops as air leaves the body
B) must be maintained higher than atmospheric pressure
C) must be maintained lower than atmospheric pressure
D) gradually elevates as air enters the lungs
E) rapidly elevates
Q2) External respiration is the process of
A) transporting gases in the blood stream to target cells
B) exchanging air in lungs with the surrounding environment
C) moving gases into or out of the blood stream within lung tissue
D) gas uptake by target cells
E) carbon dioxide release by cells into the bloodstream
Q3) This structure is also known as the "windpipe."
Q4) The rate and depth of normal breathing are controlled by the need to get rid of CO .
A)True B)False
Q5) Tobacco smoke contains chemicals that ________ the production of mucus and ________ the activity of cilia in the respiratory system.
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Chapter 11: The Nervous System: Integration and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research involving graded potentials has shown that a neuron receiving many incoming signals from other neurons experiences a larger change in membrane potential than from one incoming impulse alone. This phenomenon is known as
Q2) Motor neurons of the peripheral nervous system transmit impulses away from the central nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) On your way to class, you decide to cross a busy street but fail to notice a fast-moving car coming toward you. When you do see the car, your heart rate and breathing increase, and you feel a burst of energy that helps you quickly move to the sidewalk. Describe how your nervous system was able to process the sight of the car with the need to move your legs.
Q4) Which one of the following establishes and maintains the resting potential?
A) Na leak channel
B) K leak channel
C) sodium-potassium pump
D) depolarization
E) repolarization
Q5) voltage threshold for membrane
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Sensory Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following statements about cones is TRUE, EXCEPT which one?
A) Cones enable humans to see color.
B) Color vision is enabled by the presence of three types of cones.
C) Cones are evenly distributed throughout the retina, accounting for visual acuity.
D) Cones require more intense light for activation than rods do.
E) Visual acuity is dependent upon cones and bright light.
Q2) The structure of the cochlea that converts pressure waves to nerve impulses is the ________; it is composed of hair cells and a tectorial membrane.
Q3) Color blindness usually results from a decrease in the number of A) rods
B) optic disks
C) foveae
D) cones
E) ciliary muscles
Q4) Somatic sensations include temperature, touch, vibration, pressure, and pain; these sensations originate from receptors found in certain localized areas of the body.
A)True
B)False
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Page 14
Chapter 13: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A student just finished a delicious breakfast of pancakes with syrup, orange juice, and Danish pastries. Because his blood sugar level has increased, the pancreas secretes
Q2) The thymus produces two peptides that function to
A) regulate iodine levels in the thyroid
B) aid in the maturation of T lymphocytes
C) regulate thyroxine release
D) increase blood calcium levels
E) promote the breakdown of bone
Q3) During times of stress, which one of the following glands releases CRH to stimulate the anterior pituitary to release ACTH?
A) hypothalamus
B) pancreas
C) adrenal medulla
D) posterior pituitary
E) anterior pituitary
Q4) Although most of the estrogen and testosterone produced in the human body is made by the ovaries and testes, respectively, small amounts of these hormones are also produced by the ________.
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Chapter 14: The Digestive System and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following components of saliva has antibacterial properties?
A) sodium bicarbonate
B) amylase
C) mucin
D) HCl
E) lysozyme
Q2) The layer of the GI tract wall that is responsible for motility is the
A) muscularis
B) mucosa
C) serosa
D) submucosa
E) glandular
Q3) relies on peristalsis to move food to the stomach
Q4) Water-soluble vitamins differ from fat-soluble vitamins in that water-soluble vitamins are
A) less readily absorbed from the GI tract
B) stored in fat tissue
C) stored for a brief period of time
D) rarely required as daily supplements to the diet
E) not excreted in urine
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood volume is controlled through a negative feedback mechanism that involves several intermediate molecules; ________ not only stimulates the release of aldosterone but also causes vasoconstriction.
Q2) The ureters connect the kidneys to the urinary bladder.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Renin is secreted by which one of the following structures?
A) distal tubule
B) juxtaglomerular apparatus
C) renal medulla
D) glomerulus
E) Bowman's capsule
Q4) Alcohol has diuretic effects, increasing urine output. By which one of the following is this mediated?
A) Alcohol increases the amount of sodium reabsorbed.
B) Alcohol decreases the amount of sodium reabsorbed.
C) Alcohol makes the renal tubules more permeable to water.
D) Alcohol inhibits the release of ADH.
E) Drinks with alcohol also contain a lot of water, and the kidneys excrete this.
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Chapter 16: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ovulation occurs
A) during the middle of the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle
B) at dawn on each day following FHS and LH release by the pituitary gland
C) during the secretory stage of the menstrual cycle
D) at the beginning of menses
E) during the formation of the corpus luteum
Q2) In humans, fertilization usually occurs in the ________.
Q3) Testosterone controls the rate of sperm production.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sexual intercourse cannot result in pregnancy prior to the middle of the proliferative stage. Explain why.
Q5) Trichomoniasis is a bacterial infection that is sexually transmitted; chronic infection often results in blindness, damage to the nervous system, and eventually death.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A common tissue between the fetus and the endometrium that provides nourishment to the developing fetus is the ________.
Q7) The cervix is indicated by letter ________.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Cell Reproduction and Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding the mitotic phase of the cell cycle?
A) The mitotic phase is longer than interphase.
B) During cytokinesis, the cytoplasm divides and four daughter cells result.
C) During mitosis, DNA is divided into two sets and distributed equally to the daughter cells.
D) DNA of the cell is replicated during this phase.
E) Most of the growth of the cell occurs during this phase.
Q2) Differentiation is the process of sister chromatids separating from each other during meiosis II.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The development of induced pluripotent stem cells would make possible therapeutic cloning without the use of embryos.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The primary transcript that results from transcription must be modified before it can be translated; nucleotide sequences that actually form the mRNA and contain the genetic information are called ________.
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Chapter 18: Cancer: Uncontrolled Cell Division and Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) If angiogenesis were not to occur, a tumor would reach the size of a ________ and stop growing.
A) period on a typewritten page (.)
B) baseball
C) grapefruit
D) pea
E) basketball
Q2) In order for a cancer to develop, cells must be capable of breaking away from neighboring cells, and they must ignore growth-inhibitory signals from other cells, resulting in uncontrolled growth and cell division.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which one of the following CORRECTLY represents the progression to cancer?
A) in situ, dysplasia, hyperplasia, malignancy
B) dysplasia, in situ tumor, malignancy, hyperplasia
C) hyperplasia, dysplasia, in situ tumor, malignancy
D) dysplasia, hyperplasia, malignancy, in situ tumor
E) malignancy, in situ tumor, hyperplasia, dysplasia
Q4) Cells undergoing hyperplasia eventually develop into a mass called a(n)
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Chapter 19: Genetics and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an individual homozygous dominant for widow's peak has a child with an individual heterozygous for widow's peak, what is the chance that the child will have a widow's peak?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%
Q2) ________ testing refers to the analysis of an individual's genetic material to determine predisposition to a particular health condition.
Q3) A(n) ________ refers to the complete set of genes in the chromosomes of an individual.
Q4) A person born with Edwards syndrome has a genotypic condition identified as
A) trisomy 21
B) trisomy 18
C) nondisjunction
D) XO
E) XXY
Q5) A(n) ________ occurs when a piece of chromosome breaks off or is lost.
Q6) Genes for different traits located on the same chromosome are called ________.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: DNA Technology and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first successful treatment of a human genetic disorder through gene therapy was with a disorder known as
A) severe combined immunodeficiency disease
B) diabetes mellitus
C) human dwarfism
D) hemophilia
E) acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
Q2) The rapid development of knowledge regarding how to manipulate and analyze DNA, including techniques for modifying its structure, has led to the new field in biology known as
A) graphic display
B) DNA splicing
C) recombinant DNA technology
D) genetics
E) electrophoresis
Q3) To create cows, sheep, and pigs that grow faster and larger, the gene for ________ has been inserted into their genomes.
Q4) To synthesize DNA in a laboratory, the enzyme ________ must be used to facilitate the addition of nucleotides on the new strand.
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Chapter 21: Development and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Maturation of the reproductive organs and the reproductive response is called
A) adolescence
B) longevity
C) puberty
D) morula
E) menopause
Q2) All of the following processes are associated with embryonic development EXCEPT which one?
A) cleavage
B) meiosis
C) morphogenesis
D) differentiation
E) growth
Q3) The duration of a person's life is referred to as A) aging
B) longevity
C) eon
D) gestation
E) puberty
Q4) Ejection of milk from the breasts is caused by the hormone ________.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Evolution and the Origins of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the 1940s, the population of whooping cranes in North America neared extinction, with fewer than 30 birds. It has since expanded to several hundred birds today. It is likely that these birds will exhibit very little genetic diversity. This is an example of
A) biogeographical distribution
B) the bottleneck effect
C) random mutation
D) the founder effect
E) immigration
Q2) ________ refers to random changes in allele frequency as a result of chance events.
Q3) Approximately how long ago did the first distinctly human ancestor appear?
A) 10,000 years ago
B) 100,000 years ago
C) 5 million years ago
D) 10 million years ago
E) 3 billion years ago
Q4) The process of evolution ultimately depends on changes that occur in the ________ of organisms.
Q5) The most direct hominid ancestor to Homo sapiens is called ________.
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Chapter 23: Ecosystems and Populations
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Q1) The point at which the number of births equals the number of deaths is called
Q2) A scientist is studying the flow of energy into and out of a rain forest as well as the usage of energy by the organisms that inhabit that area. This study would be at the level of a(n)
A) population
B) biosphere
C) community
D) species
E) ecosystem
Q3) Woodpeckers, insects, bacteria, hawks, and raccoons are found to reside in the same forest. Studies of the interactions between these organisms would be at the level of a
A) community
B) species
C) biosphere
D) population
E) niche
Q4) The study of the relationship between living organisms and their physical environment is called ________.
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Chapter 24: Human Impacts, Biodiversity, and Environmental Issues
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Q1) One way to reduce the amount of raw materials consumed by humans is by ________ useable materials.
Q2) A(n) ________ occurs when a warm, stagnant layer of air traps a cooler mass of air containing smog below it.
Q3) The use of biomass fuels is generally non-polluting.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ________ provide valuable flood control because they can hold large volumes of water.
Q5) An increase in the current fertility rate of the human species will increase the human carrying capacity of Earth.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The transformation of marginal lands into near-desert conditions unsuitable for future agriculture is referred to as ________.
Q7) Damage to the ecosystem by the processes of desertification and deforestation occurs most commonly in ________ areas.
Page 26
Q8) CFCs are the primary air pollutants that destroy the ________.
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