Contemporary Biology Test Bank
Course Introduction
Contemporary Biology explores the fundamental principles of life science as they relate to current discoveries, technologies, and issues in the biological sciences. The course covers topics such as genetics, cell biology, evolution, ecology, and physiology, emphasizing how these disciplines inform understanding of health, disease, biotechnology, and environmental challenges facing society today. Through lectures, readings, and discussions, students will develop scientific literacy and critical thinking skills, preparing them to engage with biological advances and their implications in a rapidly changing world.
Recommended Textbook
The Living World 8th Edition by George B Johnson
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38 Chapters
1711 Verified Questions
1711 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Science of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT an underlying theme of biology?
A)Cooperation
B)Flow of energy
C)Evolution
D)Creation
Answer: D
Q2) The sources of the ozone-destroying contaminants in the upper atmosphere were found to be _______________________.
Answer: chlorofluorocarbons,or CFCs
Q3) Scientists employ __________________ reasoning when performing the scientific process.
A)inductive
B)deductive
C)reductive
D)adductive
Answer: A
Q4) Using general principles to explain specific observations is called _______________ reasoning.
Answer: deductive
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are some of the uses of radioactive isotopes?
Answer: Will vary,but should include medical tests and fossil dating.
Q2) Which type of chemical bond exists within a water molecule?
A)Hydrogen
B)Ionic
C)Covalent
D)It depends on the temperature of the water.
E)Weak
Answer: C
Q3) The volume of space around a nucleus where an electron is most likely to be located is called the _______________ of that electron.
A)energy level
B)spin
C)pathway
D)orbital
Answer: D
Q4) A solution with a pH of 3 is said to be highly ____________.
Answer: acidic
Q5) Atomic mass refers to the numbers of ___________ and __________ of an atom.
Page 4
Answer: protons,neutrons
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Chapter 3: Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the structure of DNA.
Answer: The monomer is a nucleotide of deoxyribose,phosphate and a nitrogenous base.The molecule is double stranded and looks like a ladder.The sides of the ladder are the sugar-phosphate backbone and the rungs of the ladder are the bases.The bases are complementary with adenine (A)bonding with thymine (T)and guanine (G)bonding with cytosine (C).DNA stores the hereditary information for cells.
Q2) Describe five functions of proteins.
Answer: Proteins catalyze chemical reactions,transport other substances,act as chemical messengers,form structures such as nails and hair,aid in defense against invaders,and allow muscles to contract.
Q3) Explain what diets that are high in saturated fats can cause in the circulatory system of a human.
Answer: High blood pressure,strokes,heart attacks.
Q4) Lipids are insoluble in water because they are nonpolar.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) The polysaccharide found in the cell walls of plants is __________.
Answer: cellulose
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Chapter 4: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which process would enable a white blood cell to ingest a bacterium?
A)Diffusion
B)Receptor-mediated endocytosis
C)Phagocytosis
D)Pinocytosis
E)Osmosis
Q2) Which of the following microscopes has the strongest resolving power?
A)Scanning electron microscope
B)Transmission electron microscope
C)Compound microscope
D)Phase-contrast microscope
E)Dark-field microscope
Q3) The surface of a nucleus is bounded by a special kind of membrane called the ______________________.
Q4) Choose the membrane molecule responsible for aiding passage of polar molecules into and out of the cell.
A)Phospholipids
B)Cell surface proteins
C)Transmembrane proteins
D)Carbohydrate chains
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Energy and Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most human enzymes work best within the range of:
A)pH 3 - 5
B)pH 4 - 6
C)pH 6 - 8
D)pH 8 - 10
E)pH 11 - 14
Q2) The making and breaking of chemical bonds is called:
A)entropy reactions
B)chemical reactions
C)thermodynamic reactions
D)catalysis reactions
E)activation energy reactions
Q3) The study of energy is called _____________.
Q4) The First Law of Thermodynamics states that ________________
Q5) The site on the enzyme surface where the reactant fits is referred to as the:
A)reactive site
B)allosteric site
C)active site
D)binding site
Q6) Explain the components of an ATP molecule.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Photosynthesis: Acquiring Energy From the Sun
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Sample Questions
Q1) The full range of energy in sunlight can best be described as A)electromagnetic radiation.
B)visible light.
C)ultraviolet light.
D)infrared radiation.
Q2) Which of the following is not present during the Calvin cycle?
A)ATP
B)CO<sub>2</sub>
C)NADPH
D)O<sub>2</sub>
E)All are present during the Calvin cycle
Q3) A photosystem transfers the excitation energy gathered by its pigment molecules to a specific chlorophyll at the reaction center.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How are photosynthesis and cellular respiration intimately related?
Q5) The molecule that supplies energy in the body is ___________.
Q6) What are the three stages of photosynthesis? Which stages require light and which do not?
Q7) Molecules capable of absorbing lots of light are _______________.
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Chapter 7: How Cells Harvest Energy From Food
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Q1) The Krebs cycle occurs in the mitochondria.There are nine biochemical reactions involved in the Krebs cycle and they are highly ordered.Select the correct order from the following choices.Note these are abbreviated and do not show NAD,ADP,ATP,FAD,or water.
A)Acetyl - CoA joins the Krebs cycle and unites with oxaloacetate forming citrate which forms beta-ketoglutarate which forms succinyl - CoA which forms succinate which forms fumarate which forms malate which forms oxaloacetate
B)Acetyl - CoA joins the Krebs cycle and unites with oxaloacetate forming citrate which forms alpha-ketoglutarate which forms succinyl - CoA which forms succinate which forms malate which forms fumarate which forms oxaloacetate
C)Acetyl - CoA joins the Krebs cycle and unites with oxaloacetate which forms alpha-ketoglutarate forming citrate which forms succinyl - CoA which forms succinate which forms fumarate which forms malate which forms oxaloacetate
D)Acetyl - CoA joins the Krebs cycle and unites with oxaloacetate forming citrate which forms isocitrate which forms alpha-ketoglutarate which forms succinyl - CoA which forms succinate which forms fumarate which forms malate which forms oxaloacetate
Q2) The internal compartment of the mitochondria is the _______.
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Chapter 8: Mitosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are cancer cells different from normal cells?
Q2) A ______________ is a long DNA molecule that contains genes and has proteins to help it retain its shape.
Q3) Most eukaryotes have between ___________ chromosomes in their body cells.
A)1 and 15
B)10 and 50
C)100 and 200
D)200 and 300
E)350 and 500
Q4) During which stage of the cell cycle does the mitotic spindle begin to form?
A)S phase
B)G<sub>1</sub>
C)Telophase
D)Prophase
Q5) Cytoplasm is cleaved in two during the _____________________ phase of the cell's life cycle.
Q6) Explain how the new molecular therapies might stop the growth of cancer.
Q7) Mutated proto-oncogenes become cancer-causing genes called _________.
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Q8) Mitosis is cell division that produces somatic cells,while meiosis produces
Chapter 9: Meiosis
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Q1) In most respects,the second meiotic division is identical to a normal _________ division.
Q2) In animals,asexual reproduction can involve the budding off of cells which grow by mitosis into a new individual.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The main difference between prophase I and II is that in prophase I:
A)synapsis and crossing over occurs
B)the nucleolus disappears
C)the nuclear membrane disappears
D)chromosomes coil
E)the spindle forms
Q4) Which scientist is credited with proposing in 1887 that an egg and a sperm fuse to form a zygote?
A)Watson
B)Crick
C)Fleming
D)Muller
E)van Beneden
Q5) What is Muller's Ratchet theory?
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Chapter 10: Foundations of Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tall is dominant to dwarf in pea plants.If two dwarf pea plants were crossed,their offspring will be:
A)all tall plants
B)all dwarf plants
C)half tall,half dwarf plants
D)plants of an intermediate height
Q2) The ability to taste PTC is a dominant trait.If a heterozygote woman has a child with a man who is not a taster,what is the chance their child will be a taster?
A)100%
B)75%
C)50%
D)25%
E)0%
Q3) The outward expression of an organism's genotype is referred to as its genotype.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the possible advantage of being heterozygous for the sickle-cell gene?
Q5) Mendel's "factors" for inheritance are now known to be ________.
Q6) Why is coat color in Labrador retrievers an example of epistasis?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: DNA: the Genetic Material
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hershey and Chase tagged the DNA of viruses with radioactive phosphorus,and their protein coats with radioactive sulfur.When the viruses were allowed to infect bacteria,what did the viruses transfer to the bacteria?
A)Radioactive phosphorus and sulfur
B)Radioactive sulfur
C)Radioactive phosphorus
D)Neither radioactive phosphorus nor sulfur
Q2) When Frederick Griffith injected dead bacteria of the virulent S strain into mice,the mice:
A)remained healthy
B)died of blood poisoning
C)became ill but lived
D)reproduced quicker
Q3) In his experiments,Griffith found that transformation occurs naturally in bacteria.Explain how Griffith found this out.
Q4) The Hershey-Chase experiment demonstrated that RNA,not protein,is the hereditary material.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: How Genes Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) Small interfering RNAs can alter gene expression by targeting mRNA for destruction or by blocking translation of a mRNA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain why mRNA must be processed before it leaves the nucleus.
Q3) The genetic code is universal,the same in practically all organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The nucleotide sequences on DNA that actually have information encoding a sequence of amino acids are:
A)introns
B)exons
C)proteins
D)enhancers
Q5) Which of the following cannot be a product of transcription?
A)mRNA
B)Protein
C)rRNA
D)tRNA
Q6) The genetic code is a ____________ code.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Genomics and Biotechnology
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Q1) How is it possible that there are four times as many kinds of mRNA transcripts as there are genes in the human genome? This is possible because human genes are fragmented and use alternative splicing.
Q2) In gene transfer procedures,why is it necessary to use processed mRNA molecules to make DNA to transfer to another organism?
Q3) Explain what has to happen to embryonic stem cells from a donor before they are used in a patient as a therapy.
Q4) Explain how genomic imprinting works.
Q5) What is the correct order of events for sequencing DNA?
Q6) Do you feel there is any harm in cloning mammals? Why? Why not?
Q7) Explain the techniques used in the cloning of "Dolly."
Q8) What are some of the benefits of transferring genes from one organism to another?
Q9) When the method is perfected,it will be possible to transfer "healthy" genes into cystic fibrosis patients via aerosol inhalants to "cure" this genetic disease.Is this type of gene transfer an actual cure or is it a treatment? In other words,could this person still pass along cystic fibrosis genes?
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Chapter 14: Evolution and Natural Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the phrase that best represents microevolutionary change.
A)Darker skin after hours spent in a tanning booth
B)Changes in allele frequency in a population
C)New forms of animals replacing older ones
D)Major episodes of extinction
Q2) A structure remaining in an animal but with no use at all is called:
A)analogous
B)vestigial
C)homologous
D)successive
E)sympatric
Q3) If two species of birds occur in the same area but occupy different habitats they do not mate.This is an example of:
A)behavorial isolation
B)mechanical isolation
C)ecological isolation
D)temporal isolation
Q4) What is the process of natural selection?
Q5) A __________ is a separate group of organisms incapable of interbreeding with other such groups.
16
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Chapter 15: How We Name Living Things
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Sample Questions
Q1) Molds and yeasts belong to which kingdom?
A)Fungi
B)Protista
C)Animalia
D)Archaea
E)Bacteria
Q2) In the scientific name,Homo sapiens,"Homo" indicates the _________ of the organism,while "sapiens" indicates its __________.
Q3) A cladogram must contain an ____________ to serve as a baseline of comparison for the other groups.
Q4) Mitochondria are descendents of __________,and chloroplasts are descendents of _________.
A)purple bacteria;cyanobacteria
B)methanogens;protists
C)cyanobacteria;fungi
D)orange bacteria;purple bacteria
Q5) Cladograms ___________ true family trees.
A)are not
B)are
Q6) Cladograms provide information about _____________ relationships.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Prokaryotes: the First Single-Celled Creatures
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Q1) When bacterial cell walls are covered with an outer membrane that contains lipopolysaccharide,they are:
A)gram-negative
B)gram-positive
C)encapsulated
D)polyencapsulated
Q2) Smallpox was eliminated as a disease because of inoculations and the fact that:
A)the alternate host was eradicated
B)humans are the only known hosts
C)the variola virus mutates infrequently
D)the variola virus causes rapid death
Q3) Describe what scientists feel may be the first step in the evolution of cellular organization.
Q4) Bats are a healthy carrier for which of the following diseases?
A)SARS
B)West Nile Virus
C)Hantavirus
D)Influenza
E)AIDS
Q5) Prokaryotes reproduce using a method called _________________.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Protists: Advent of the Eukaryotes
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Q1) What is the evolutionary advantage of sexual reproduction?
Q2) The __________ are unusual creatures that stream along in an oozing mass of slime.
A)ciliates
B)cellular slime molds
C)plasmodial slime molds
D)water molds
Q3) Why are colonial protists not considered to be multicellular?
Q4) When individual cellular slime mold amoebas are near starvation,all the individuals in that immediate area aggregate into a large moving mass of cells called a:
A)community
B)spore
C)slug
D)test
E)colony
Q5) A(n)__________ is a transient collection of individuals that come together for a time.
Q6) __________ meiosis occurs after fertilization.
Q7) The most common type of asexual reproduction seen in the protists is _________.
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Chapter 18: Fungi Invade the Land
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Q1) Fungi only break down dead or decaying matter and do not attack living organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The fungal phyla are distinguished primarily by:
A)their color
B)their size
C)their mode of sexual reproduction
D)whether they make spores or not
E)their habitat
Q3) There are _______________ species found in the basidiomycetes.
Q4) Differentiate between conidia and spores.
Q5) Which structure is typical of the basidiomycetes but not the other two groups?
A)Zygosporangium
B)Ascus
C)Hyphae
D)Basidium
Q6) An ___________ is a reproductive structure found only in the ascomycetes.
Q7) Puffballs and shelf fungi belong to the ________________.
Q8) How are fungi used by humans?
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Chapter 19: Evolution of the Animal Phyla
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Q1) What group has a water vascular system,moves with tube feet,and has an endoskeleton?
A)Echinoderms
B)Arachnids
C)Crustaceans
D)Mandibulates
Q2) Which of the following is missing in parasitic flatworms compared to the free-living flatworms?
A)Testes
B)Eyespots
C)Digestive tract
D)Excretory system
Q3) Which of the following represents the more of the arthropods than any other group?
A)Bees
B)Flies
C)Moths
D)Beetles
E)Crustaceans
Q4) An example of an echinoderm is a ______________________.
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Chapter 20: History of the Vertebrates
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Q1) Which order do salamanders and newts belong to?
A)Apoda
B)Urodela
C)Anura
D)Chiroptera
E)Edentata
Q2) Mammals and dinosaurs did not live during the same time periods.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Reptiles were better adapted to land than amphibians because they:
A)had legs arranged to better support their body weight
B)thoracic breathing
C)had watertight skin to help retain water
D)All of the above
Q4) All of the following are made of keratin except:
A)hair
B)hooves
C)claws
D)fingernails
E)antlers
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Chapter 21: How Humans Evolved
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Q1) Homo rudolfensis's brain volume is:
A)400-550 cm<sup>3</sup>
B)680 cm<sup>3</sup>
C)750 cm<sup>3</sup>
D)1000 cm<sup>3</sup>
Q2) The oldest modern human is:
A)Homo habilis
B)Homo rudolfensis
C)Homo ergaster
D)Homo heidelbergensis
Q3) Few fossils of early Homo have been found,and there is much debate about whether different individuals should be grouped together.Which of these is believed to be more ancient than the others?
A)Homo habilis
B)Homo rudolfensis
C)Homo ergaster
D)Homo sapiens
Q4) Humans and their direct ancestors,as well as the apes,all make up a group called the ____________________.
Q5) ________________________ is the scientific name of modern man.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: The Animal Body and How It Moves
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Q1) Each heart muscle cell is coupled to its neighbors electrically by tiny holes called: A)pores
B)gap junctions
C)tight junctions
D)striations
E)axons
Q2) ___________________ surround the body as a rigid,exterior case,and are exhibited in arthropods.
Q3) Choose the bone or set of bones that belong to the appendicular portion of the human skeleton.
A)Skull
B)Pelvic girdle
C)Vertebral column
D)Ribs
Q4) An __________________ is a group of organs that work together in the body to perform a particular function.
Q5) List three major evolutionary changes that occurred in animals,leading to greater complexity and specialization.
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Chapter 23: Circulation
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Q1) _________________ are blood vessels that move blood away from the heart.
Q2) Explain the protective functions of the vertebrate circulatory system.
Q3) Unlike other blood cells,certain types of _________________ are not confined to the bloodstream,but instead can squeeze through the walls of capillaries to get to where they are needed.
A)erythrocytes
B)leukocytes
C)thrombocytes
D)platelets
Q4) When you are scared or cold and turn pale it is because the _________ in your skin are constricting.
A)veins
B)capillaries
C)venules
D)arterioles
E)arteries
Q5) Blood plasma is 90% water.
A)True
B)False
Q6) _________________ are tiny blood vessels leading away from capillaries to veins.
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Chapter 24: Respiration
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Q1) Where does gas exchange occur in terrestrial arthropods?
A)Through gills
B)Through tracheae
C)Through lungs
D)Through their skin
Q2) Fish move water in only one direction over their gills,permitting countercurrent flow.
A)True
B)False
Q3) It is impossible to get lung cancer unless you smoke cigarettes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why is smoking cigarettes so dangerous to human health?
Q5) The _________________ is a tumor suppressor,inspecting DNA and stopping cell division when it detects damage.
Q6) The __________,which acts as a brake on cell division,was discovered in studying the eye cancer retinoblastoma.
Q7) How,and in what group(s),did the advent of lungs change the pattern of circulation?
Q8) Each lung is covered by a thin,smooth membrane called a ___________ membrane.
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Chapter 25: The Path of Food Through the Animal Body
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Q1) The optimal diet contains:
A)more carbohydrates than fats
B)the right amount of essential nutrients
C)sufficient calories to supply the body's energy needs
D)All of these
Q2) In rodents,horses,and lagomorphs,the digestion of cellulose takes place in the ____________.
A)stomach
B)anus
C)mouth
D)cecum
E)large intestine
Q3) The first site of starch breakdown in the digestive system is:
A)in the small intestines
B)in the stomach
C)the mouth
D)the esophagus
Q4) The amino acids we cannot produce within our bodies that are necessary for good health are termed ____________ amino acids.
Q5) What are the three main functions of the stomach?
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Chapter 26: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) What is the waste product of fish?
A)Urea
B)Ammonia
C)Uric acid
D)Urine
Q2) Marine mammals,like whales,do not drink seawater.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In humans,an excessive accumulation of uric acid in the joints produces a condition known as ______.
A)ulcers
B)gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
C)gout
D)high blood pressure
E)rickets
Q4) Selective reabsorption of components of the glomerular filtrate occurs where?
A)Bowman's capsule
B)Glomerulus
C)Loop of Henle
D)Collecting duct
28
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Chapter 27: How the Animal Body Defends Itself
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Q1) Which cell migrates to the thymus gland to mature?
A)Mast cell
B)B cell
C)T cell
D)Monocyte
E)Natural killer cell
Q2) The bronchi and bronchioles leading to the lungs have an effective mechanism for trapping incoming microbes.This method consists of:
A)bacteriolytic enzymes
B)roaming patrols in the airways
C)mucus and cilia
D)airborne antibodies
Q3) The self-identifying proteins on self body cells are called:
A)perforins
B)MHC proteins
C)plasma proteins
D)interleukin-1
E)interferons
Q4) Will there soon be a vaccine for the virus causing AIDS? Explain.
Q5) Explain why relatives are sought for kidney transplants.
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Chapter 28: The Nervous System
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Q1) Much of the thought that occurs in the thinking portion of the brain occurs in the gray outer layer called the ______________.
Q2) The human brain's center for thought and association is the:
A)cerebellum
B)hypothalamus
C)thalamus
D)cerebrum
Q3) A __________ produces a rapid,automatic motor response to a stimulus.
Q4) The ____________ is responsible for deep-seated emotions,including sex,hunger,thirst,pain,anger,and pleasure.
A)hypothalamus
B)limbic system
C)pituitary gland
D)cerebellum
Q5) Which part of the brain regulates balance and coordination?
A)Medulla oblongata
B)Hypothalamus
C)Amygdala
D)Occipital lobe
E)Cerebellum
30
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Chapter 29: The Senses
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Q1) Otoliths are involved in:
A)hearing
B)balance
C)smell
D)taste
E)vision
Q2) The light that passes through the pupil is focused by the lens on the:
A)iris
B)sclera
C)retina
D)lens
E)choroids
Q3) The type of light-detecting visual pigment complex found in rods is:
A)rhodopsin
B)carotene
C)acetylcholine
D)opsin
Q4) Animals such as bats use a type of sonar called ______________ to locate objects.
Q5) Balance is associated with the movements of little __________ in the inner ear.
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Chemical Signaling Within the Animal Body
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Q1) Why are anabolic steroid hormones so dangerous?
Q2) When calcium levels in the blood are low,the ________ produces _______ which stimulates the breakdown of bone,releasing calcium.
A)parathyroid gland;parathyroid hormone
B)pituitary gland;growth hormone
C)pancreas;glucagon
D)adrenal glands;norepinephrine
E)adrenal glands;aldosterone
Q3) Receptors for peptide hormones lie:
A)in the nucleus of the cell
B)in the cytoplasm
C)within the cell membrane
D)in association with ribosomes in the cytoplasm
Q4) One of the two hormones the body cannot survive without is:
A)parathyroid hormone
B)growth hormone
C)follicle-stimulating hormone
D)norepinephrine
Q5) The adrenal ___________ releases adrenaline and norepinephrine.
Q6) Explain how the hypothalamus controls the anterior pituitary.
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) During the follicular phase of the female menstrual cycle,estrogen is produced by the:
A)uterus
B)developing zygote
C)anterior pituitary
D)follicle cells
Q2) Prior to ejaculation,mature sperm are stored where?
A)In the testes
B)In the epididymis
C)In the vas deferens
D)In the urethra
Q3) Which part of the sperm cell contains enzymes to help the sperm digest a pathway into the egg?
A)Tail
B)Centriole
C)Body
D)Head
E)Acrosome
Q4) Why are shelled eggs evolutionarily advantageous?
Q5) What are the advantages of internal fertilization?
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Chapter 32: Evolution of Plants
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Q1) Seedless vascular plants,like ferns,require ________ for fertilization.
A)water
B)bees
C)wind
D)animals
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) List two of several of the adaptations plants evolved to enhance their survival on land.
Q3) A fruit is a mature ripened ______ containing fertilized seeds.
A)ovule
B)cotyledon
C)monocot
D)ovary
Q4) A seed has three parts: an embryo,a source of food for the developing embryo called __________,and a protective cover.
A)antheridium
B)endosperm
C)rhizoid
D)ovule
E)cone
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Chapter 33: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) Which of the following is a function of trichomes?
A)Regulate the temperature of the leaf
B)Regulate the water balance of the leaf
C)Secreting sticky substances to deter herbivores
D)Secreting toxic substances to deter herbivores
E)All of the choices are functions of trichomes.
Q2) ____________ are outgrowths of the epidermis that occur on the shoot.
A)Root hairs
B)Sieve cells
C)Cuticle
D)Trichomes
Q3) The portion of a plant that lies beneath the ground is the __________.
Q4) The __________________ is a waxy band of cells surrounding endodermal cells in the root.
A)cortex
B)pericycle
C)root band
D)Casparian strip
Q5) The stalk of a leaf is called the _______________.
Q6) In some plants,roots may arise along the stem.These are called
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Chapter 34: Plant Reproduction and Growth
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Q1) The response of plants to touch is known as:
A)phototropism
B)gravitropism
C)thigmotropism
D)photoperiodism
Q2) Flowering plants respond to day and night length in part through the pigment ________________,which occurs in two forms.
Q3) Describe how adventitious plantlets form.
Q4) Your brother asks you to bring him a pomes.Which of the following would you give him?
A)Pear
B)Grape
C)Tomato
D)Pepper
E)Olive
Q5) In short day plants,the P<sub>fr</sub> form of phytochrome suppresses
Q6) Once a pollen grain reaches the stigma of a flower,it begins to grow a _____________ that pierces the style.
Q7) Give an example of a wind-pollinated plant._____________________
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Chapter 35: Populations and Communities
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Q1) When a population reaches the carrying capacity of its habitat,the effects of crowding can be felt.Which of the following is NOT a density-dependent effect?
A)Increased migration
B)Increased time spent searching for food
C)Increased aggression
D)Increased rate of reproduction
Q2) An experiment that was conducted by Gause in the 1930s with Paramecium clearly demonstrated:
A)exploitative competition
B)interference competition
C)competitive exclusion
D)fundamental competition
Q3) ________________ is defined as the percentage of the original population that survives to a given age.
Q4) Choose the best definition of a community.
A)All of the organisms plus the nonliving habitat
B)Living organisms and soil
C)The dominant organisms in an area
D)All of the organisms in an area
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Chapter 36: Ecosystems
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a component of the physical habitat in which organisms live?
A)Rocks
B)Water
C)Wind
D)Bacteria
Q2) The community plus its habitat make up an ____________________.
Q3) Where is an estuary found?
A)Below the top 300 meters of the sea where there is no light.
B)At the top 100 meters of the sea.
C)It is a small temporary pond of water.
D)It is the water that forms at the mouth of a river where it meets the sea.
Q4) It takes the Earth _______ to orbit around the Sun.
A)12 hours
B)1 day
C)1 month
D)1 year
Q5) A _________________ in a community is made up of the organisms feeding at the same number of steps away from the Sun.
Page 38
Q6) The flow of energy is one way,but nutrients in ecosystems _____________.
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Chapter 37: Behavior and the Environment
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Q1) When Pavlov's dog salivated after hearing a bell,this is called:
A)operant conditioning
B)classical conditioning
C)nonassociative learning
D)habituation
Q2) Animals defend their territory,which is called territoriality.Territoriality means an animal defends:
A)its entire home range
B)a portion of its home range
C)only the overlapping components of its home range
D)all of its home range except the overlapped areas
Q3) Infants born blind will not smile or frown because they have never seen anyone exhibit these expressions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When migrating,an inexperienced animal will rely on compass sense,while an experienced animal will rely more on map sense.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Human Influences on the Living World
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Q1) Among the non-renewable resources we must protect is:
A)topsoil
B)rainfall
C)trees
D)lichens
Q2) Brown-air cities are so-called because:
A)of excessive acid rain
B)the air pollutants undergo chemical reactions in sunlight
C)automobile exhaust is gray
D)of persistent fog
Q3) Which city is considered a brown-air city because the pollutants in the air undergo chemical reactions in the sunlight to form smog?
A)Philadelphia
B)Los Angeles
C)New York
D)Boston
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Choose the one environmental problem that you feel is in need of our most immediate attention.Describe the problem and explain why you feel it is the one that is most urgent.
Page 40
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