
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Contemporary Biology explores the dynamic and rapidly evolving field of modern biological science, focusing on key concepts such as genetics, evolution, cellular structure and function, ecology, and biotechnology. The course highlights current advances and real-world applications, emphasizing the role of biology in addressing global challenges like health, sustainability, and environmental stewardship. Students will develop scientific literacy, critical thinking, and an understanding of cutting-edge issues through interactive discussions, case studies, and hands-on laboratory experiences.
Recommended Textbook
Biology The Essentials 2nd Edition by Hoefnagels
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30 Chapters
2108 Verified Questions
2108 Flashcards
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Q1) What is the advantage of a moth having a very long tongue if an orchid has a very long nectar spur?
A)It is used to attract mates through sexual selection.
B)It can pollinate only one type of flower.
C)It makes flying more efficient.
D)It can be used to capture other flying insects for fooD.
E)It can reach nectar that no other pollinator can reach.
Answer: E
Q2) Ammonium nitrate is
A)an atom.
B)a molecule.
C)a cell.
D)a tissue.
E)a biospherE.
Answer: B
Q3) The scientific method cannot be used to answer questions about immaterial and philosophical issues.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) The most common isotope of carbon is <sup>12</sup>C.<sup>14</sup>C has ____ than <sup>12</sup>C.
A)more protons
B)more neutrons
C)fewer neutrons
D)fewer protons
E)more electrons
Answer: B
Q2) Aphids that change color in response to the presence of bacterial symbionts generally do so as they age.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The primary elements making up living organisms are
A)carbon,hydrogen,oxygen,and calcium.
B)carbon,oxygen,iron,and chlorine.
C)carbon,hydrogen,iron,and calcium.
D)carbon,hydrogen,oxygen,and nitrogen.
E)carbon,oxygen,sulfur,and calcium.
Answer: D
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Q1) The cytoskeleton consists of microtubules,microfilaments,and intermediate filaments.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) If you observed a scientist engineering a cell for a high surface area-to-volume ratio,what might you guess to be the reason?
A)Maximizes the relative surface area to exchange nutrients,water,and waste.
B)Maximizes the relative surface area for cooling.
C)Provides more volume to store more organelles.
D)Provides more volume to store more nutrients.
E)Saves energy by making more membrane relative to the volume of the cell.
Answer: A
Q3) Why are cells called "the fundamental unit of life"?
A)All known organisms have one or more cells.
B)Earliest life on Earth is hypothesized to have been single-celled.
C)Some cells are separate living entities that can survive individually.
D)Cells are the smallest unit of life that can function independently.
E)All answers are correct.
Answer: E
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Q1) Entropy is A)order.
B)complexity.
C)disorder.
D)organizing potential.
E)No answer is correct.
Q2) Cells use energy for which of the following?
A)to do work
B)to synthesize proteins
C)to expel waste
D)to move substances across membranes
E)All answers are correct.
Q3) When electrons are removed from a food molecule,the molecule is A)reduced.
B)in equilibrium.
C)oxidized.
D)polymerizeD.
E)conducting an endergonic reaction.
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Q1) The light reactions produce ATP,while the carbon reactions consume it.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Photosystem I and photosystem II are part of
A)the light reactions and the carbon reactions.
B)the light reactions only.
C)the light reactions and respiration.
D)the carbon reactions only.
E)respiration.
Q3) Place the steps of the light reactions in the order in which they occur.
Q4) Which does not usually increase in overall abundance as a result of photosynthesis?
A)carbon dioxide
B)glucose
C)sunlight
D)ATP
E)oxygen
Q5) Green and yellow wavelengths of light are used to power photosynthesis.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Nitrogen gas can substitue for oxygen gas in cellular respiration.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If you radioactively labelled NADH and FADH<sub>2</sub>,you would observe that the radioactivity would be transported at the A)inner mitochondrial membrane.
B)matrix.
C)outer mitochondrial membrane.
D)cell membrane.
E)cytoplasm.
Q3) if you were cleaning up a lab exercise dealing with the start and end of the Krebs cycle,you would only need to put away one model since the start and end chemicals in a cyclic pathway are A)enzymes.
B)different molecules.
C)ATP molecules.
D)the same molecule.
E)NADH and FADH<sub>2</sub>,respectively.
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Q1) Using the genetic code,predict what type of mutation has occurred in the hemoglobin sickle cell anemia allele.
Normal allele GGAAUGAAACAGGAACCC
Mutant allele GGAAUGAAACAGGUACCC
A)a point mutation,Val to Glu
B)a frame shift
C)addition of a new stop codon
D)a point mutation,Glu to Val
Q2) The step of translation in which an mRNA,a small ribosomal subunit,and the initiator tRNA are aligned together is A)initiation.
B)mitosis.
C)elongation.
D)termination.
E)transcription.
Q3) Where is the majority of DNA located in a human cell?
A)nucleus
B)mitochondrion
C)chloroplast
D)ribosome
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Q1) How does the space between our fingers arise?
A)The cells form by apoptosis.
B)Mitosis of the cells is blocked.
C)The cells die by apoptosis.
D)Meiosis of the cells is blockeD.
E)The cells become part of the fingers.
Q2) Each newly replicated molecule of DNA contains one conserved strand from the original DNA molecule.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A part of a chromosome that attaches sister chromatids to each other defines the term
A)chromatin.
B)nucleosome.
C)centromere.
D)histone.
E)No answer is correct.
Q4) No real risk of cancer comes from an organism's environment.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Genetic information is passed from one generation to the next through A)DNA.
B)asexual reproduction.
C)sexual reproduction.
D)gametes.
E)All answers are correct.
Q2) Meiosis is a process that produces A)sperm cells.
B)egg cells.
C)gametes.
D)haploid cells.
E)All answers are correct.
Q3) Genes A and B are on the same chromosome.What gametes could an individual with the allele combination AABB produce?
A)AABB
B)A
C)AB
D)B
E)AAB
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Q1) Mendel called a masking trait
A)dominant.
B)recessive.
C)homologous.
D)homozygous.
E)heterozygous.
Q2) A male expresses
A)only the dominant alleles on his X chromosome.
B)both the dominant and recessive alleles on his X chromosome.
C)only the homozygous recessive alleles on his X chromosome.
D)none of the alleles on his X chromosome.
E)only the homozygous dominant alleles on his X chromosomE.
Q3) A man with type A blood and a woman with type B blood have a child with type O blood.What are the genotypes of the man and woman?
A)I<sup>A</sup> i,and I<sup>B</sup> i
B)both are i i
C)I<sup>A</sup> I<sup>A</sup>,and I<sup>B</sup> I<sup>B</sup>
D)I<sup>A</sup> i,and i i
E)i i,and I<sup>B</sup> i
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Q1) Genetically modified bacteria are responsible for producing A)All answers are correct.
B)human insulin to treat diabetes.
C)blood clotting factors to treat hemophilia.
D)fertility hormones for humans.
E)amino acid phenylalanine used in the artificial sweetener aspartamE.
Q2) Cloning results in two genetically identical cells/organisms;sexual reproduction results in genetically different cells/organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) 98.5% of the human genome does not encode proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In creating a transgenic organism,the ____ from one species is inserted into another species.
A)RNA
B)DNA
C)protein
D)DNA or protein
E)plasmid

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Q1) Ancestors of giraffes with shorter necks could not reach branches high up in trees for food.This led to ____ for giraffes with longer necks.
A)stabilizing selection
B)disruptive selection
C)artificial selection
D)sexual selection
E)directional selection
Q2) Use the Hardy-Weinberg equations: p + q = 1 and p<sup>2</sup> + 2pq + q<sup>2</sup> = 1.If the dominant allele frequency is 0.8,then what percent of the population will be heterozygous?
A)0.32
B)0.16
C)0.64
D)0.04
E)0.40
Q3) Darwin believed that because of "differential reproductive success" a population would change over time.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) If an isotope's half-life is 100 years,then
A)that isotope will no longer exist in 50 years.
B)that isotope will no longer exist in 200 years.
C)in 50 years only half of the atoms in a sample of that isotope will remain.
D)in 100 years only half of the atoms in a sample of that isotope will remain.
E)in 200 years only half of the atoms in a sample of that isotope will remain
Q2) Dinosaurs lived essentially during the Paleozoic era.
A)True B)False
Q3) The observation that most aquatic animals,like fish,penguins,and whales,all have streamlined bodies and fins or flippers for steering are a result of A)sexual selection.
B)artificial selection.
C)analogous selection.
D)vestigial selection.
E)convergent evolution.
Q4) Data from embyros can be used to help establish evolutionary relationships. A)True B)False
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Q1) Conservation biologists are often concerned that when the population size of an endangered species becomes too small it is at risk of extinction for which reason?
A)They can no longer evolve.
B)Their rate of breeding will decline.
C)They may be more susceptible to changes in the environment or disease.
D)They are at risk of sympatric isolation.
E)They are at risk of developing prezygotic barriers to reproduction.
Q2) Scientists have a complete fossil record showing the evolution of horses over millions of years,with the legs becoming longer and the teeth larger,as ancestors of the modern horse adapted from living in forest to grasslands.This is an example of A)punctuated equilibrium.
B)extinction.
C)a postzygotic barrier to evolution.
D)gradualism.
E)a prezygotic barrier to evolution.
Q3) Mules are a distinct species because they produce fertile offspring when mated.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Fungi are classified into phyla based on which characteristic?
A)organelles
B)composition of cell wall
C)photosynthesis
D)reproductive structures
E)multicellular vs.unicellular
Q2) The region of a prokaryotic cell where the bacterial chromosome (DNA)is located in the
A)cell membrane.
B)nucleus.
C)cell wall.
D)nucleoiD.
E)ribosomE.
Q3) The first life on Earth was
A)prokaryotic.
B)eukaryotic.
C)prokaryotic and multicellular.
D)eukaryotic and multicellular.
E)eukaryotic and unicellular.
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Q1) What advantage do ferns have over bryophytes?
A)Ferns photosynthesize.
B)Ferns are heterotrophs.
C)Ferns have a vascular system,which allow them to grow taller.
D)Ferns do not require water to reproduce.
E)Ferns have alternation of generations.
Q2) Which group of plants lack true leaves and roots?
A)liverworts,hornworts,and mosses
B)ferns,club mosses,horsetails,and whisk ferns
C)ginkgo,cycads,conifers,and gnetophytes
D)monocots and eudicots
E)All plants lack true leaves and roots.
Q3) With few exceptions,which is not a characteristic of plants?
A)They are multicellular organisms.
B)They are autotrophs.
C)They are eukaryotes.
D)They are heterotrophs.
E)They carry out photosynthesis.
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Q1) Which of the following is found in a group other than animals?
A)They have cell walls.
B)They have a developmental stage called a blastula.
C)They are multicellular eukaryotes.
D)They are heterotrophs.
E)They secrete and bind to an extracellular matrix.
Q2) The function of vertebrae is to
A)protect the nerve chord only.
B)provide attachment points for muscles only.
C)both protect the nerve cord and provide attachment points for muscles.
D)protect the brain only.
E)both protect the brain and nerve cord.
Q3) Removal of what would destroy the support system of a sponge?
A)spicules
B)pores
C)collar cells cells
D)amoebocytes
E)No answer is correct.
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Q1) A human population with a large percentage of post-reproductive individuals is common in
A)less-developed countries and will most likely increase in size.
B)more-developed countries and will most likely increase in size.
C)more-developed countries and will most likely decrease in size.
D)less-developed countries and will most likely decrease in size.
E)No answer is correct.
Q2) If a scientist sees 20 finches in 3 trees where they nest at 5 PM,the population density is 4.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A density-independent factor is one that affects population without regard to the number of individuals per area.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The United Nations has estimated (for the high estimate)that the world's human population may reach about 10.5 billion by the year 2050 and will continue to increase.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Streams lead to rivers that carry water and sediment toward the ocean or an interior basin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A network of interconnected food chains is a food web.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The different seasons of the year are caused by
A)the tilt of the Earth's axis as the Earth travels around the Sun.
B)the rotation of the Earth around the Sun.
C)the rotation of the Earth on its axis.
D)the rotation of the moon around the Earth.
E)the gravitational pull of the moon as it travels around the Earth.
Q4) When a tapeworm steals nutrients from the gut of a mammalian host,that symbiosis is called
A)predation.
B)mutualism.
C)commensalism.
D)parasitism.
E)intraspecific competition.
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Q1) In the section "Investigating Life:The Case of the Missing Frogs:Is Climate the Culprit?",the disappearance of harlequin frogs from Costa Rica's Monteverde Cloud Forest Preserve was related to oil spills and a bacterial skin infection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the section "Investigating Life: The Case of the Missing Frogs: Is Climate the Culprit?",what happened to temperatures in the cloud forest over the past 40 years based on Part B of the figure?
A)Maximum temperatures increased and minimum temperatures dropped.
B)Temperatures overall increased.
C)Temperatures overall decreased.
D)Temperatures were constant.
E)Maximum temperatures dropped and minimum temperatures increased.
Q3) Of every 100 species introduced,only one persists to take over a niche.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Since the 1950s,only 1% of the ocean's large predatory fish have disappeared.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The haustorium is a modified root that penetrates into the xylem and/or phloem of another plant.With this information,one can deduce that haustorium are roots of
A)all photosynthetic plants.
B)parasitic plants.
C)carnivorous plants.
D)mycorrhizal fungi.
E)woody plants.
Q2) Roots are long and thin to make them good at absorbing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The xylem and phloem are produced by the A)vascular cambium.
B)sieve tube.
C)vascular bundle.
D)mycorrhizal fungi.
E)companion cells.
Q4) Dicots have vascular bundles scattered throughout the ground tissue.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Angiosperms owe their widespread distribution to their production of pollen,seeds and flowers.What is the greatest advantage to the production of flowers?
A)It allows fertilization in the absence of water.
B)It is necessary for sexual reproduction.
C)It promotes pollination.
D)It allows fertilization in moist areas.
E)It protects and nourishes the embryo.
Q2) If you examined a pea pod carefully,you would see that it was the result of one carpel.That would make it what kind of fruit?
A)simple
B)double
C)aggregate
D)axillary
E)multiple
Q3) Gymnosperms are flowering plants.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) An organ is defined as consisting of two or more interacting tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The body's first line of defense against disease-causing microorganisms is
A)the white blood cells.
B)the process of phagocytosis.
C)the production of antibodies.
D)the production of T lymphocytes.
E)the intact skin.
Q3) Neurons insulate neuroglia as the latter carry electrical signals.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which property would distinguish a protein from collagen and elastin?
A)fibrous proteins.
B)located in loose connective tissue.
C)enzymes.
D)located in dense connective tissue.
E)providing stretch.
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Q1) If you were using electrodes and chemical tests to find a resting neuron,you would look for a neuron in which
A)active transport is not occurring.
B)sodium ions are more concentrated inside the cell than outside.
C)very little metabolism is taking place.
D)the inside of a neuron is positively charged as compared to the outside.
E)potassium ions are more concentrated inside the cell than outsidE.
Q2) Unmyelinated regions are critical parts of synapses.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Volatile chemical substances that elicit specific responses in other members of the same species are referred to as
A)hormones.
B)pheromones.
C)neuroglia.
D)meninges.
E)cochleas.
Q4) "Threshold potential" is is a synonym for "action potential."
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Prednisone would be most similar to which compound?
A)cortisol
B)insulin
C)TRH
D)oxytocin
E)glucagon
Q2) You would know that you had found endocrine cells if you observed them to secrete hormones into ducts that release the hormones into a body cavity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The human parathyroid gland regulates what in the blood?
A)calcium
B)glucose
C)insulin
D)glucocorticoid
E)melatonin
Q4) Neurotransmitters and hormones never share the same target cells.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) After death,muscles remain in a stiff position for several hours.What explains this observation?
A)ATP is required to break the bond between actin and myosin.
B)ATP is required for actin to bind to myosin.
C)ATP is required for the motor neuron to signal a muscle to relax.
D)ATP is required for calcium ions to be pumped into the muscle cell.
E)ATP is required to produce creatine phosphatE.
Q2) What letter in the figure of a long bone corresponds to the location where red blood cells and platelets are made?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q3) The type of skeleton that is an internal support structure is a(n)
A)endoskeleton.
B)hydrostatic skeleton.
C)gastrovascular cavity.
D)exoskeleton.
E)vascular canal.
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Q1) A valve replacement would prevent which of the following?
A)flow of blood from the right atrium to right ventricle
B)flow of blood from the left ventricle to the aorta
C)flow of blood from the inferior vena cava to the right atrium
D)flow of blood from the right ventricle to right atrium
E)flow of blood from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery
Q2) The upper respiratory tract is composed of
A)the nose,pharynx,and tracheA.
B)the nose,larynx,and trachea.
C)the nose,trachea,and lungs.
D)the nose,pharynx,and larynx.
E)the nose and pharynx.
Q3) A decrease in the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is called anemia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The signal for the heart to contract begins at the sinoatrial node.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In herbivores,the cecum is small because the food they ingest is easily digested.
A)True
B)False
Q2) To make use of the sugar in milk,your body needs the enzyme
A)lipase.
B)amylase.
C)lactase.
D)pepsin.
E)bilE.
Q3) Organisms that conduct intracellular digestion and organisms that conduct extracellular digestion both
A)use digestive enzymes only.
B)break down their food in contained areas only.
C)break down their food with digestive enzymes within contained areas.
D)begin breakdown of their food in the mouth before traveling to the stomach.
E)utilize a stomach for partial or complete breakdown of food.
Q4) Energy is one of the resources obtained by heterotrophs when they eat.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) If you were using a molecular tool to label the stem cells that produce white blood cells,most of the labeling would be in the thymus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why do lymph nodes often become swollen during an infection?
A)T cells reproduce in lymph nodes after being exposed to pathogens.
B)B cells reproduce in lymph nodes after being exposed to pathogens.
C)Macrophages move to lymph nodes after engulfing pathogens.
D)Cytotoxic T cells attack pathogens in the lymph nodes,triggering inflammation.
E)Vasodilation increases blood flow in the lymph nodes.
Q3) The type of T cell that is primarily responsible for the production of antibodies is the plasma cell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The second time that an immune system sees an antigen,a secondary immune reaction will take place.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the late 1950s,some women took ______ as a tranquilizer to relieve morning sickness and it caused deformed limbs in developing embryos.
A)acetaminophen
B)acutane
C)erythromycin
D)thalidomide
E)penicillin
Q2) Mature human sperm cells
A)are haploid.
B)are secondary spermatocytes.
C)contain 46 chromosomes.
D)are primary spermatocytes.
E)undergo meiosis.
Q3) The intake of alcohol,cigarette smoke,and insufficient amounts of vitamins may all cause birth defects in a developing fetus.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 32