Course Introduction
Contemporary Biology
Pre-Test Questions
Contemporary Biology introduces students to the fundamental concepts and current discoveries in biological science, emphasizing the relevance of biology in modern society. The course explores the structure and function of living organisms, genetic inheritance, evolution, ecology, and the impact of biotechnology. Students engage with case studies and current biological issues, fostering an understanding of how biology intersects with health, the environment, and global challenges. Emphasis is placed on scientific inquiry, ethical considerations, and the application of biological knowledge to real-world problems.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Essential Biology with Physiology 4th Edition by Eric J. Simon
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29 Chapters
1325 Verified Questions
1325 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction- Biology Today
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a producer?
A) oak tree
B) earthworm
C) sun
D) cat
Answer: A
Q2) Dull-colored males were part of the ______.
A) observation group
B) control group
C) experimental group
D) predicted group
Answer: B
Q3) What are the two main processes that ecosystems depend upon?
A) speciation and evolution
B) nutrient recycling and energy flow
C) decomposition and nutrient recycling
D) sunlight and photosynthesis
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Essential Chemistry for Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) ______ is an example of an element.
A) Water
B) Carbon
C) Glucose
D) Salt
Answer: B
Q2) When a base is added to a buffered solution,the buffer will ______.
A) donate OH<sup>-</sup> ions
B) accept water molecules
C) donate H<sup>+ </sup>ions
D) form covalent bonds with the base
Answer: C
Q3) The hydrogens and oxygen of a water molecule are held together by ______ bonds.
A) electron
B) hydrogen
C) covalent
D) osmotic
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) What name is given to the following reaction?
galactose + glucose lactose + water
A) hydrolysis
B) hydrogenation
C) glycolysis
D) dehydration reaction
Answer: D
Q2) How does RNA differ from DNA?
A) RNA is double-stranded; DNA is single-stranded.
B) RNA is a polymer of amino acids; DNA is a polymer of nucleotides.
C) RNA contains uracil; DNA contains thymine.
D) In RNA G pairs with T; in DNA G pairs with C.
Answer: C
Q3) A fat that is hydrogenated is ______.
A) more unsaturated
B) easier to digest
C) more solid
D) less likely to cause strokes
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: A Tour of the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures manufactures the components of ribosomes?
A) nucleus
B) cytoplasm
C) endoplasmic reticulum
D) nucleolus
Q2) Which of the following parts of a cell is (are)most like the shipping center of a company?
A) the Golgi apparatus
B) mitochondria
C) chloroplasts
D) the nucleolus
Q3) Information is transferred from the nucleus to ribosomes via ______.
A) mRNA
B) rough endoplasmic reticulum
C) DNA
D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
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Chapter 5: The Working Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) If placed in tap water,an animal cell will undergo lysis,whereas a plant cell will not.What accounts for this difference?
A) expulsion of water by the plant cell's central vacuole
B) the relative impermeability of the plant cell membrane to water
C) the relative impermeability of the plant cell wall to water
D) the relative inelasticity and strength of the plant cell wall
Q2) Certain cells that line the stomach synthesize a digestive enzyme and secrete it into the stomach.This enzyme is a protein.Which of the following processes could be responsible for its secretion?
A) endocytosis
B) exocytosis
C) phagocytosis
D) passive transport
Q3) Which component of the following reaction is the substrate? sucrose + sucrase + water sucrase + glucose + fructose
A) sucrose
B) sucrase
C) glucose
D) fructose
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Cellular Respiration: Obtaining Energy from Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) The final electron acceptor of aerobic respiration is ______.
A) ATP
B) oxygen
C) lactic acid
D) NAD<sup>+</sup>
Q2) An aerobic process requires ______.
A) oxygen
B) carbon dioxide
C) ATP
D) carbohydrates
Q3) Plants use photosynthesis to
A) store chemical energy, and they use cellular respiration to harvest energy.
B) store as well as harvest chemical energy.
C) harvest energy, and they use cellular respiration to store chemical energy.
D) obtain carbon dioxide.
Q4) Which of the following is a result of glycolysis?
A) production of CO<sub>2</sub>
B) conversion of glucose to pyruvic acid
C) a net loss of two ATPs per glucose molecule
D) conversion of NADH to NAD<sup>+</sup>
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Chapter 7: Photosynthesis: Using Light to Make Food
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Q1) Which of the following is an autotroph?
A) human
B) mushroom
C) pine tree
D) fish
Q2) The last stage of one complete turn of the Calvin cycle involves ______.
A) G3P production
B) oxidation of CO<sub>2</sub>
C) regeneration of RuBP
D) sugar production
Q3) Which wavelength of light is the least useful to your plant's growth?
A) 750 nm
B) 650 nm
C) 550 nm
D) 500 nm
Q4) Photosynthesis contributes to plant growth by _____.
A) taking in oxygen and making wood
B) taking in carbon dioxide and making sugars (carbohydrates)
C) synthesizing carbon dioxide and making cellulose
D) converting sugar to oxygen and water
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Cellular Reproduction: Cells from Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) One difference between mitosis and meiosis is ______.
A) mitosis produces cells genetically identical to the parent cell, but meiosis does not
B) mitosis produces more daughter cells than meiosis
C) mitosis produces haploid cells, but meiosis produces diploid cells
D) mitosis requires only one parent cell, but meiosis requires two parent cells
Q2) Chromatin consists of ______.
A) DNA and protein
B) RNA and protein
C) protein only
D) DNA only
Q3) A duplicated chromosome consists of two ______.
A) centromeres
B) centrosomes
C) genomes
D) sister chromatids
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Attached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What is the probability of having a child with attached earlobes when an individual with attached earlobes mates with an individual heterozygous for free earlobes?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
Q2) Which of the following techniques is used to collect fetal cells during pregnancy for genetic testing?
A) testcross
B) dihybrid cross
C) amniocentesis
D) pedigree analysis
Q3) What would genetic counselors say is the probability that the second child will have the disease?
A) 1/2
B) 1/4
C) 1/8
D) 1/16
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Chapter 10: The Structure and Function of DNA
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Q1) If a strand of DNA has the sequence AAGCTC,transcription will result in a(n)______.
A) single RNA strand with the sequence TTCGAG
B) DNA double helix with the sequence AAGCTC for one strand and TTCGAG for the complementary strand
C) single RNA strand with the sequence UUCGAG
D) RNA double helix with the sequence UUCGAG for one strand and AAGCUC for the complimentary strand
Q2) If one strand of a DNA double helix has the sequence GTCCAT,what is the sequence of the other strand?
A) ACTTGC
B) TGAACG
C) CAGGTA
D) CAGGUA
Q3) During translation,what is the correct order of events that occur as an amino acid is added?
A) codon recognition, peptide bond formation, translocation
B) translocation, codon recognition, termination
C) initiation, codon recognition, termination
D) peptide bond formation, translocation, codon recognition
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Page 12
Chapter 11: How Genes Are Controlled
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the first level of control of eukaryotic gene transcription?
A) RNA splicing
B) attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter
C) DNA packing and unpacking
D) the binding and unbinding of transcription factors to enhancer sequences
Q2) At one point,you were just an undifferentiated,single cell.You are now made of many cells; some of these cells function as liver cells,some as muscle cells,some as red blood cells,while others play different roles.What name is given to the process that is responsible for this?
A) gene expression
B) regeneration
C) carcinogenesis
D) cellular differentiation
Q3) Data suggest that the normal version of BRCA1 functions as a(n)______.
A) oncogene
B) tumor-suppressor gene
C) proto-oncogene
D) silencer
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13
Chapter 12: DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are attempting to link an individual to a crime. The only evidence you have is a tiny drop of blood. How can you use this drop of blood to make the association?
A) You can use the sample to determine the individual's ABO blood group.
B) You can use gel electrophoresis to determine the length of the DNA found in the sample.
C) You can use PCR to increase the amount of DNA available for restriction fragment analysis.
D) You can use the sample to check for the presence of the Rhesus factor.
Q2) In human gene therapy,
A) normal versions of genes are transferred to patients who carry a mutated allele.
B) harmless bacteria make important proteins for humans that cannot produce these proteins on their own.
C) bacterial plasmids are used to transfer genes to human patients.
D) genetically engineered alleles, usually from other species, replace mutated alleles.
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Chapter 13: How Populations Evolve
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Q1) Your family is taking a long driving vacation across the midwestern and western United States.As you travel,you notice that the flowers,birds,and trees of the Midwest and the Rocky Mountains are very different.As you ponder why,you remember that such differences in the distribution of species are part of the field of ______.
A) paleontology
B) geology
C) biogeography
D) morphology
Q2) Which of the following is the most likely explanation for a particular human population with a higher incidence of polydactyly (extra fingers/toes)than the human population as a whole?
A) directional selection
B) diversifying selection
C) founder effect
D) bottleneck effect
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Chapter 14: How Biological Diversity Evolves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Graphically,the graduated model of speciation can be described as appearing as a
A) Y
B) W
C) horizontal line with vertical branches
D) vertical line with horizontal branches
Q2) Which of the following is a binomial?
A) sapiens
B) Nitzschia jouseae
C) diatom
D) Rhizosolenia
Q3) Analogous structures are evidence of ______.
A) common ancestry
B) divergent evolution
C) stabilizing selection
D) convergent evolution
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Evolution of Microbial Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A vector is an organism that transfers a pathogen to a host. In the case of malaria,the vector(s)is(are)______.
A) humans only
B) humans and Anopheles mosquitoes
C) Anopheles mosquitoes only
D) humans, Plasmodium, and Anopheles mosquitoes
Q2) ______ are responsible for toxic red tides.
A) Plasmodial slime molds
B) Dinoflagellates
C) Red algae
D) Diatoms
Q3) Why is RNA thought to have been the first genetic material?
A) RNA is structurally simpler than DNA.
B) RNA has been found on meteorites; DNA has not.
C) RNA is capable of self-replication; DNA is not.
D) Primitive organisms, such as some viruses, have RNA as their genetic material.
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17
Chapter 16: Plants, Fungi, and the Move onto Land
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Sample Questions
Q1) From the point of view of an angiosperm,what is the function of fruit?
A) It is where the male gametophyte develops.
B) It is a mechanism for the dispersal of seeds.
C) It provides nutrients to germinating seeds.
D) It attracts pollinators.
Q2) Why are bryophytes considered incompletely liberated from their ancestral aquatic habitat?
A) Their embryos do not develop within gametangia.
B) Their sperm are flagellated.
C) The gametophyte generation is dominant.
D) They lack a cuticle.
Q3) Which of the following is a component of the female structure of a flowering plant?
A) petal
B) filament
C) anther
D) stigma
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18
Chapter 17: The Evolution of Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do New World monkeys differ from Old World monkeys?
A) New World monkeys have a prehensile tail.
B) New World monkeys have enhanced depth perception.
C) Old World monkeys are arboreal.
D) New World monkeys have nails; Old World monkeys have claws.
Q2) What is the greatest threat to birds today?
A) pollution
B) poaching
C) habitat loss
D) the illegal pet trade
Q3) All chordates have ______.
A) a dorsal, hollow nerve cord and a notochord
B) a post-anal tail and a single opening for the mouth and anus
C) a cranium and vertebrae
D) pharyngeal slits and a cranium
Q4) A(n)______ is an example of a mollusc that does not have a shell.
A) octopus
B) snail
C) squid
D) oyster
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Chapter 18: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Q1) Aquatic organisms ______.
A) have a waxy coating to prevent water loss
B) may experience problems with water balance
C) typically have a plentiful supply of nitrogen
D) never find light to be in short supply
Q2) Which nutrients often limit the distribution and abundance of photosynthetic organisms?
A) water and oxygen
B) nitrogen and phosphorus
C) carbon dioxide and nitrogen
D) water and carbon dioxide
Q3) Which of the following can moderate climate by absorbing heat when the air is warm and releasing heat when the air is cold?
A) clouds
B) glaciers
C) mountains
D) oceans
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Chapter 19: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The red-cockaded woodpecker,an endangered species,is dependent upon ______ for maintenance of its source habitat.
A) thick vegetation at least 15 feet in height
B) fire
C) floods
D) corn snakes
Q2) You arrive back in the United States after having visited a foreign country located on another continent.The customs agent stops the person in front of you and confiscates the fruit basket this person is bringing home.Being the knowledgeable person you are,you calmly explain to your enraged fellow traveler that the reason for the detainment is that the fruit basket may be ______.
A) carrying endangered fruit
B) carrying a non-native species that could damage North American ecosystems
C) contaminated with CFCs that will damage the ozone layer above North America
D) contaminated with sufficient DDT to cause serious harm to anyone who eats the fruit
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21
Chapter 20: Communities and Ecosystems
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Q1) In order to assess the species diversity of a community,you would need to know the number of different species present as well as ______.
A) the number of trophic levels in the community
B) the intensity of interspecific competition in the community
C) the fraction of these species that are plants
D) the relative abundance of the different species
Q2) E.O.Wilson coined the term ______ for our innate appreciation of wild environments and living organisms.
A) bioremediation
B) bioethics
C) biophilia
D) biophobia
Q3) Modern conservation science increasingly aims at ______.
A) protection of federally listed endangered species
B) countering pollution
C) sustaining entire ecosystems
D) maintenance of genetic diversity within species
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22
Chapter 21: Unifying Concepts of Animal Structure and Function
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Q1) Which of the following is the most common type of connective tissue in the typical human body?
A) fibrous connective tissue
B) adipose tissue
C) loose connective tissue
D) bone
Q2) Bone is a type of
A) connective tissue
B) epithelial tissue
C) extracellular matrix
D) adipose tissue
Q3) Which type of tissue forms a communication and coordination system within the body?
A) nervous
B) blood
C) connective
D) muscle
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) An digestive tube is best defined as ______.
A) the compartment in which an animal digests its food
B) a tube-shaped digestive compartment with either one or two openings
C) a tube-shaped digestive compartment that has two openings and through which food moves in one direction
D) a tubelike digestive compartment that has two openings and consists, at minimum, of a mouth, esophagus, stomach, intestine, and anus
Q2) Someone with liver failure will,in particular,have problems with the digestion and absorption of ______.
A) minerals
B) fats
C) carbohydrates
D) proteins
Q3) The four stages of food processing are,in order:
A) ingestion, absorption, elimination, digestion
B) ingestion, elimination, digestion, absorption
C) ingestion, digestion, absorption, elimination
D) digestion, absorption, ingestion, elimination
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Chapter 23: Circulation and Respiration
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Q1) Together,inhalation and exhalation are referred to as ______.
A) diffusion
B) breathing
C) active transport
D) negative pressure
Q2) Which one of the following is a characteristic of open circulatory systems but not closed circulatory systems?
A) a heart
B) a vascular system
C) blood
D) open-ended blood vessels
Q3) Animals need O<sub>2 </sub>because it ______.
A) plays a role in obtaining energy from food
B) helps animals synthesize proteins
C) is necessary to make CO<sub>2</sub>
D) is needed to deliver hemoglobin to the cells of an animal's body
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Chapter 24: The Body's Defenses
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Q1) Which of the following statements best explains why people with Hodgkin's disease often show signs of immunodeficiency?
A) The Hodgkin's disease virus infects and destroys B cells.
B) Hodgkin's disease involves the deposition of immune complexes in the kidneys.
C) Hodgkin's disease is a type of cancer that affects lymphocytes.
D) Hodgkin's disease occurs when an immune response elicited by streptococcal bacteria kills normal heart cells as well.
Q2) Which of the following is one of the body's first lines of defense against infection?
A) several antibodies
B) obstacles such as skin and mucous membranes
C) increased production of certain hormones and changes in the blood circulation
D) none of the above
Q3) Antibodies are ______.
A) composed of four fatty acid chains
B) a type of lymphocyte
C) proteins with short carbohydrates attached
D) proteins consisting of four polypeptide chains
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Chapter 25: Hormones
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Q1) One of your best friends loves to run long distances.You ask her what she enjoys about running.In addition to good physical fitness,she tells you that after a run she feels extra happy.You suspect that her joy might be related to increased production of ______ by the anterior pituitary gland.
A) endorphins
B) releasing hormones
C) prolactin
D) ibuprofen
Q2) Which of the following glands secretes hormones that enable the body to respond to stress?
A) pancreas
B) adrenal
C) pineal
D) parathyroid
Q3) Which of these hormones is countered by diuretics such as alcohol?
A) ADH
B) glucagon
C) HGH
D) FSH
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Which one of the following statements is true?
A) Natural family planning is one of the most reliable forms of birth control.
B) Morning-after pills are about 25% effective at preventing pregnancy.
C) Tubal ligation prevents ovulation.
D) A vasectomy involves removing a section of each vas deferens.
Q2) Menstruation ______.
A) involves the breakdown of the endometrium
B) is stimulated by HCG
C) occurs after ovulation but prior to degeneration of the follicle
D) is triggered by an LH surge
Q3) Which of these events occurs first?
A) gastrulation
B) cleavage
C) implantation
D) formation of the placenta
Q4) A diaphragm functions as a birth control device by ______.
A) preventing ovulation
B) preventing implantation of an embryo
C) stimulating the production of sperm-killing antibodies
D) preventing the movement of sperm into the uterus
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Chapter 27: Nervous, Sensory, and Locomotor Systems
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Q1) Multiple sclerosis primarily involves ______.
A) destruction of the medulla oblongata
B) deterioration of the corpus callosum
C) destruction of the myelin sheath
D) deterioration of parts of the spinal cord
Q2) What causes the inside of a membrane to become positively charged during an action potential?
A) Negatively charged ions rush out.
B) Positively charged ions rush in.
C) Positively charged ions rush in, and negatively charged ions rush out.
D) Negatively charged ions rush in.
Q3) Which of the following neurons are part of the peripheral nervous system?
A) sensory neuron and motor neuron
B) interneuron neuron and motor neuron
C) interneuron neuron and sensory neuron
D) only motor neurons
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Chapter 28: The Life of a Flowering Plant
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Q1) Which of the following describes the sites of leaf attachment in a stem?
A) joints
B) nodes
C) internodes
D) cotyledons
Q2) Which of the following best characterizes the monocots?
A) embryo with one seed leaf, leaves with parallel veins, stems with vascular bundles scattered, and flower parts in threes
B) embryo with one seed leaf, leaves with parallel veins, stems with a ring of vascular tissue, and flower parts in fives
C) embryo with two seed leaves, leaf veins not parallel, stems with ring of vascular tissue, and flower parts in fives
D) embryo with two seed leaves, leaf veins not parallel, stems with vascular bundles scattered, and flower parts in threes
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Chapter 29: The Working Plant
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the conversion that occurs during nitrogen fixation?
A) ammonium to nitrate
B) nitrate to ammonium
C) nitrogen to ammonium
D) nitrogen to ammonium or nitrate
Q2) Which of the following is exemplified by a pea tendril contacting a string or wire and coiling around it for support?
A) gravitropism
B) geotropism
C) thigmotropism
D) phototropism
Q3) Which of the following best describes a night-neutral plant?
A) The plants flower at night.
B) Plants tend to flower in longer photoperiod conditions.
C) Plants tend to flower in shorter photoperiod conditions.
D) The flowering in these plants is not affected by photoperiod.
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