Contemporary Biology Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Contemporary Biology explores the fundamental concepts and recent advances in the field of biology, emphasizing their relevance to real-world issues and scientific innovation. The course covers essential topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and physiology, while integrating current discoveries in biomedical research, biotechnology, environmental science, and societal impacts of biological advancements. Through lectures, discussions, and practical assignments, students develop a foundational understanding of how biological systems operate and interact, equipping them to analyze modern challenges and ethical questions in the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
The Living World 7th Edition by George Johnson
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Science of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of using and transforming energy is known as:
A) response to stimulation
B) complexity
C) metabolism
D) homeostasis
Answer: C
Q2) Explain why a student of biology needs to study the hierarchy of levels of organization within and among living things.
Answer: All living things are made up of chemicals.An understanding of chemistry is the foundation for understanding how living things function.All living things are made up of cells.An understanding of cell function is necessary to understand how tissues work,and how it is possible for tissues to be organized into organs.Understanding the needs of individual organisms helps the student determine the workings of populations and communities.
Q3) The sources of the ozone-destroying contaminants in the upper atmosphere were found to be _______________________.
Answer: chlorofluorocarbons,or CFCs
Q4) All organisms on earth encode their genes in strands of ________.
Answer: DNA
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) What property of water is NOT attributable to hydrogen bonding between water molecules?
A) Heat storage
B) Ice formation
C) Polarity
D) Cohesion
Answer: C
Q2) When an electron is transferred from one atom to the next,and the two atoms are then electrically attracted to one another,the type of bond is a(n)__________________ bond.
A) hydrogen
B) covalent
C) kinetic
D) ionic
Answer: D
Q3) Cells contain chemical substances called ____________ that minimize changes in concentrations of H<sup>+</sup> and OH<sup>-</sup>.
Answer: buffers
Q4) The chemical bond within a water molecule is a ______ bond.
Answer: covalent
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Chapter 3: Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nucleic acids are long polymers of repeating subunits called __________.
Answer: nucleotides
Q2) The carbohydrate that is found in plant cell walls is:
A) starch
B) cellulose
C) chitin
D) fructose
E) sucrose
Answer: B
Q3) The bases of the two DNA chains are linked in the middle of the molecule by _________ bonds.
A) covalent
B) ionic
C) hydrogen
D) There are no bonds connecting the chains.
Answer: C
Q4) A __________ bond links two amino acids together.
Answer: peptide
Q5) The polysaccharide found in the cell walls of plants is __________.
Answer: cellulose
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Chapter 4: Cells
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Q1) Which of the following functions to isolate particular chemical activities from the rest of the cell?
A) Peroxisomes
B) Golgi complex
C) Chloroplasts
D) Nucleus
E) Ribosomes
Q2) Choose the membrane molecule responsible for aiding passage of polar molecules into and out of the cell.
A) Phospholipids
B) Cell surface proteins
C) Transmembrane proteins
D) Carbohydrate chains
Q3) Why are most cells so tiny?
Q4) The surface of a nucleus is bounded by a special kind of membrane called the ______________________.
Q5) The big difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is that eukaryotes have _____________________,which prokaryotes do not.
Q6) Explain an instance when a membrane defect can cause a disease.
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Chapter 5: Energy and Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enzymes are catalysts because they operate to:
A) lower activation energy
B) raise activation energy
C) supply activation energy
D) supply the reactants
Q2) Which are the components of an ATP molecule?
A) deoxyribose,3 phosphates,1 guanine
B) ribose,2 phosphates,1 thymine
C) deoxyribose,ribose,1 cytosine
D) ribose,3 phosphates,1 adenine
E) glucose,3 phosphates,1 guanine
Q3) Which of the following activities does NOT require cellular energy?
A) Swimming movements of some types of cells
B) Driving endergonic reactions
C) Movement of organelles within cells
D) Movement of water across the cell membrane
Q4) Distinguish between reactants,substrates,and products.
Q5) When an endergonic reaction is driven by the splitting of ATP molecules,such that both these reactions occur simultaneously,the two-part reaction is called a _____________ reaction.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Photosynthesis: Acquiring Energy From the Sun
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does not do photosynthesis?
A) Algae
B) Leaves of plants
C) Some bacteria
D) Roots of plants
E) None of the choices is correct.
Q2) After the phosphate bonds are broken in ATP in the Calvin cycle,what happens to the ADP?
A) It evaporates from the cell.
B) It is used in cellular respiration.
C) It breaks down further into AMP plus phosphate.
D) It is recycled back to the light-dependent reactions.
E) It is re-used again in the Calvin cycle,losing another phosphate.
Q3) The fluid portion of the chloroplast is called the:
A) matrix
B) stroma
C) cytoplasm
D) gel
E) thylakoid
Q4) What is the purpose of accessory pigments,such as carotenoids,in photosynthesis?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: How Cells Harvest Energy From Food
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Q1) Why do oxidation and reduction always take place together?
Q2) Under what environmental conditions do yeast carry out fermentation?
A) Absence of oxygen
B) High temperature
C) Low pH
D) High osmotic pressure
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which of these is an electron carrier molecule?
A) NAD<sup>+</sup>
B) ATP
C) Adenylate kinase
D) Carbonic acid
Q4) The Krebs cycle turns _______ times per glucose.
Q5) The internal compartment of the mitochondria is the _______.
Q6) During fermentation,_______ is recycled by transferring its electrons to a molecule other than oxygen.
Q7) Explain which process evolved first-glycolysis or the Krebs cycle.
Q8) Oxidation and reduction reactions always take place together.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 8: Mitosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutations disabling key elements of the G<sub>1</sub> checkpoint are associated with many cancers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Mutated proto-oncogenes become cancer-causing genes called _________.
Q3) The diploid number of chromosomes in humans is 46.The haploid number is:
A) 138
B) 92
C) 46
D) 23
Q4) The proper sequence,beginning to end,for the stages of mitosis is:
A) prophase-metaphase-anaphase-telophase
B) telophase-anaphase-metaphase-prophase
C) anaphase-prophase-metaphase-telophase
D) prophase-anaphase-metaphase-telophase
Q5) Describe what occurs during prophase of mitosis.
Q6) During mitosis,chromosomes are lined up at the equator of the cell during this phase _________________________.
Q7) Pairs of chromosomes that have the same size,shape,and function are
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Chapter 9: Meiosis
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Q1) In animals,asexual reproduction can involve the budding off of cells which grow by mitosis into a new individual.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cells that will eventually undergo meiosis and produce gametes are often referred to as _______________ cells.
Q3) Bacteria reproduce by meiosis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In most respects,the second meiotic division is identical to a normal _________ division.
Q5) After meiosis,the gamete joins with another gamete in all eukaryotic organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The purpose of meiosis I is:
A) to separate homologous chromosomes
B) to replicate chromosomes
C) to create 4 haploid cells
D) to separate sister chromatids
E) to repair errors in DNA synthesis
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Foundations of Genetics
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Q1) White flower color is recessive to purple.What is the genotypic ratio when two heterozygous pea plants are crossed?
A) 3:1
B) 4:0
C) 1:2:1
D) 1:1
E) 2:1
Q2) An individual is said to be _____________ if it has two copies of the same factor for a given trait.
Q3) Down syndrome in humans is due to:
A) monosomy (one copy of chromosome #21)
B) two Y chromosomes
C) trisomy (three copies of chromosome #21)
D) three X chromosomes
Q4) A woman with blood type B has a baby with blood type O.A man she says is the baby's father has blood type A,but he denies having fathered the child.Could he be the father?
Q5) ______________ is the interaction between the products of two genes in which one of the genes modifies the phenotypic expression produced by the other.
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Chapter 11: DNA: The Genetic Material
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is correct about DNA replication?
A) The strand made continuously is the lagging strand.
B) DNA polymerase adds nucleotides in the 3' to 5' direction.
C) DNA polymerase can build DNA from scratch.
D) The place where the parent DNA becomes unzipped during DNA replication is called the replication fork.
E) DNA is made conservatively.
Q2) Meselson and Stahl proved that:
A) DNA is the genetic material
B) DNA is made from nucleotides
C) DNA replicates in a semiconservative manner
D) DNA contains nitrogen
Q3) The place where the parent DNA molecule becomes unzipped for replication is called the ___________________.
Q4) A base substitution will lead to a frame-shift mutation.
A)True B)False
Q5) The copying of DNA before cell division is referred to as DNA
Page 13
Q6) What is meant by "semiconservative replication?"
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Chapter 12: How Genes Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bases of RNA are the same as those of DNA with the exception that RNA contains:
A) cysteine instead of cytosine
B) uracil instead of thymine
C) cytosine instead of guanine
D) uracil instead of adenine
Q2) The genetic code is universal,the same in practically all organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The RNA copy of DNA that leaves the nucleus and travels to the cytoplasm to make proteins is:
A) ribosomal RNA
B) tRNA
C) mRNA
D) RNA polymerase
Q4) Which site on the ribosome does the new tRNA bring an amino acid to?
A) A
B) P
C) E
D) C
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Chapter 13: The New Biology
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Q1) In animal cloning,DNA donated from an adult stem cell:
A) has to be inserted into the egg cell before the egg cell's nucleus is removed
B) has to be reprogrammed for the gene expression needed for early development C) has to be from another species
D) has to be obtained from an embryonic stem cell
Q2) How do you feel about cloning? Explain your position in the light of science.
Q3) The genes encoding rRNA are examples of __________________ of genes.
Q4) What percent of the human genome is coding DNA?
A) 1 - 1.5%
B) 5 - 7.5%
C) 9.5 - 15%
D) 34 - 55%
E) It changes during a person's life.
Q5) To seal the cut fragments of DNA together,an enzyme called __________ is used.
A) amylase
B) peptidase
C) trypsin
D) ligase
Q6) A.Argue in support of using adult tissue stem cells rather than embryonic stem cells.
Page 15
B.Argue against using adult stem cells rather than embryonic stem cells.
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Chapter 14: Evolution and Natural Selection
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Q1) Two populations of flowers are separated by a mountain range and would not be capable of interbreeding.This is an example of:
A) behavorial isolation
B) mechanical isolation
C) ecological isolation
D) geographical isolation
Q2) During fossilization,remains of an organism may become suspended in fossilized plant sap,which is called ________.
Q3) ________________ results from microevolutionary changes that increase the likelihood of survival and reproduction.
A) Adaptation
B) Macroevolutionary change
C) Inheritance of acquired traits
D) Selection
Q4) The bones of vertebrate forelimbs are similar because of descent from a common ancestor.These forelimbs can be called __________________ structures.
Q5) Bats,pterosaurs,and birds are examples of _________ evolution.
Q6) Give an example of behavioral isolation.
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Chapter 15: How We Name Living Things
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Q1) To what class does the Eastern Gray Squirrel belong?
A) Chondrichthyes
B) Amphibia
C) Aves
D) Mammalia
Q2) The kingdoms within the domain Eukarya:
A) include the animals,plants,fungi,and protists
B) evolved as a result of endosymbiosis in an early ancestral cell
C) exclude the prokaryotes
D) All of these are correct.
Q3) Why was the classification scheme devised by Linnaeus such an improvement over those used in his day?
Q4) A branching tree that represents the evolutionary relationships among a number of species is,in scientific terms,called a(n):
A) family tree
B) phylogenetic tree
C) androgeny
D) pedigree
Q5) Cladograms provide information about _____________ relationships.
Q6) Phylogenetic systematics ___________ characters.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Prokaryotes: The First Single-Celled Creatures
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Q1) Lysogenic conversion is responsible for all the following diseases except:
A) scarlet fever
B) plague
C) botulism
D) cholera
E) diphtheria
Q2) Flu viruses are most likely to arise in the Far East because:
A) of overpopulation in these areas
B) of lack of sanitation
C) common hosts (ducks,chickens,pigs)for influenza viruses live in close proximity to humans
D) of lack of medical care
Q3) All viruses have an envelope around their capsid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Spherical bacteria are called:
A) cocci
B) bacilli
C) spirilla
D) None of these
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Chapter 17: Protists: Advent of the Eukaryotes
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Q1) Amoebas move by:
A) cilia
B) flagella
C) pseudopods
D) gliding mechanisms
E) All of these
Q2) Which organism is the most photosynthetically productive living organism that forms underwater forests over 100 meters long?
A) Golden algae
B) Brown algae
C) Green algae
D) Red algae
E) Diatoms
Q3) Downy mildews such as Phytophthora infestans belong to this group.
A) Ciliates
B) Cellular slime molds
C) Plasmodial slime molds
D) Water molds
Q4) Why do biologists believe that red algae may be one of the most ancient groups of eukaryotes?
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Chapter 18: Fungi Invade the Land
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Q1) A lichen is made up of a(n)___________ and a __________.
A) alga;fungus
B) animal;fungus
C) fungus;plant
D) animal;protist
Q2) The fungal phyla are distinguished primarily by:
A) their color
B) their size
C) their mode of sexual reproduction
D) whether they make spores or not
E) their habitat
Q3) The slender filaments that make up the body of a fungus are called ____________.
Q4) An organism made up of many highly specialized kinds of cells that coordinate their activities is a:
A) colonial organism
B) aggregation
C) complex multicellular organism
D) simple multicellular organism
Q5) Fungi obtain nutrients by _______________ digestion.
Q6) There are _______________ species found in the basidiomycetes.
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Chapter 19: Evolution of the Animal Phyla
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Q1) Arthropods cannot grow to a very large size because they lack:
A) a head end
B) jointed appendages
C) mandibles
D) an endoskeleton
Q2) Which is incorrect about deuterostomes?
A) The commitment of embryonic cells to prescribed developmental pathways occurs later than in protostomes.
B) The blastopore becomes the animal's anus.
C) The archenteron outpockets to form coelom.
D) They are derived from the protostomes.
E) Embryonic cells cleave in a spiral pattern.
Q3) The phylum that shows the greatest diversity,or the greatest number of species,is:
A) Arthropoda
B) Echinodermata
C) Chordata
D) Mollusca
Q4) _______ is the field of study in which unique sequences of certain genes are used to identify clusters of related groups.
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Chapter 20: History of the Vertebrates
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Q1) Which of these is not a characteristic of fishes?
A) Gills
B) Nutritional deficiencies
C) Pulmonary veins
D) Single-loop blood circulation
Q2) Archaeopteryx is believed to be the transition fossil between reptiles and birds because Archaeopteryx had feathers and:
A) a tail similar to modern birds
B) scales
C) a long reptilian tail
D) a pointed,elongated mouth that could evolve into a beak
Q3) What is the function of the operculum?
A) To pump water over the gills
B) To cleanse the blood from toxins
C) To detect changes in water pressure
D) To store urine until excreted
E) To regulate buoyancy
Q4) Why are there so many species of living things alive on earth now,more than at any time in Earth's history?
Q5) What were the three major invasions of living creatures on land?
Page 22
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Chapter 21: How Humans Evolved
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Q1) Humans and chimpanzees share _________ of their nuclear DNA.
A) 55%
B) 75.5%
C) 85.4%
D) 95%
E) 98.6%
Q2) The evolution of __________________ marks the beginning of the hominids.
Q3) Prosimians look like gorillas.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Homo rudolfensis's brain volume is:
A) 400-550 cm<sup>3</sup>
B) 680 cm<sup>3</sup>
C) 750 cm<sup>3</sup>
D) 1000 cm<sup>3</sup>
Q5) Evidence that early humans were able to walk upright includes:
A) shorter arms
B) bowl-shaped pelvis
C) spinal cord exits at the bottom of the skull
D) All of these are correct.
23
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Chapter 22: The Animal Body and How It Moves
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Q1) Connective tissue includes blood cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Another name for red blood cells is ___________________.
Q3) Choose the bone or set of bones that belong to the appendicular portion of the human skeleton.
A) Skull
B) Pelvic girdle
C) Vertebral column
D) Ribs
Q4) _______________________ is only a single cell layer thick and lines the major body cavities.
A) Columnar epithelium
B) Simple epithelium
C) Cuboidal epithelium
D) Stratified epithelium
Q5) List three major evolutionary changes that occurred in animals,leading to greater complexity and specialization.
Q6) Explain how calcium is needed for muscle contraction.
Q7) __________________ are the nerve cells of the body.
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Chapter 23: Circulation
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Q1) Unlike other blood cells,certain types of _________________ are not confined to the bloodstream,but instead can squeeze through the walls of capillaries to get to where they are needed.
A) erythrocytes
B) leukocytes
C) thrombocytes
D) platelets
Q2) The heart valve guarding the entrance to the aorta is the _________ valve.
Q3) All these animals have a closed circulatory system except:
A) earthworm
B) fly
C) leeches
D) camels
E) lions
Q4) The average lifespan of a red blood cell is approximately:
A) 15 days
B) 1 month
C) 2 months
D) 4 months
E) 6 months
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Respiration
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Q1) Fish move water in only one direction over their gills,permitting countercurrent flow.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Capturing energy by animals is in effect a process that utilizes ______ and produces ______.
A) oxygen;carbon dioxide
B) N<sub>2</sub>;carbon
C) nitrogen;H<sub>2</sub>O
D) carbon dioxide;oxygen
E) ATP;AMP
Q3) Oxygen and carbon dioxide bind to the same sites on the hemoglobin molecule at different times.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Where does gas exchange occur in terrestrial arthropods?
A) Through gills
B) Through tracheae
C) Through lungs
D) Through their skin
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Chapter 25: The Path of Food Through the Animal Body
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Q1) Within the stomach lining,special cells secrete substances to aid digestion.Which type of cells secretes hydrochloric acid?
A) Parietal cells
B) Chief cells
C) Enteroendocrine cells
D) Mucous cells
Q2) Intrinsic factor is made by parietal cells of the ___________ and needed for the intestinal absorption of _________.
A) mouth;iron
B) duodenum;calcium
C) stomach;vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
D) large intestine;fat
E) appendix;protein
Q3) The amino acids we cannot produce within our bodies that are necessary for good health are termed ____________ amino acids.
Q4) The islets of Langerhans produce bicarbonate.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the three main functions of the stomach?
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Chapter 26: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) Most mammals have uricase,which converts uric acid into ________.
A) urea
B) water
C) ammonia
D) allantoin
Q2) Only mammals and birds can produce urine that is _______.
A) isotonic
B) hypertonic
C) hypotonic
Q3) When blood sugar is low,______ from the pancreas stimulates the breakdown of _______ in the liver.
A) insulin;glycogen
B) glycogen;glucose
C) glucagon;glycogen
D) insulin;glucagon
E) glucagon;protein
Q4) ________________ is the final product to be expelled from the body after the kidney has reabsorbed needed nutrients and water.
Q5) The _____________ is the functional unit within the kidney.
Q6) Explain how Bowman's capsule works.
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Chapter 27: How the Animal Body Defends Itself
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Q1) Which proteins act as messengers that protect other cells in the vicinity from viral infection?
A) Perforins
B) MHC proteins
C) Plasma proteins
D) Interleukin-1
E) Interferons
Q2) __________ is a type of an allergic response in which the release of histamines triggers breathing passages to become narrow.
Q3) The bronchi and bronchioles leading to the lungs have an effective mechanism for trapping incoming microbes.This method consists of:
A) bacteriolytic enzymes
B) roaming patrols in the airways
C) mucus and cilia
D) airborne antibodies
Q4) Every cell in the body carries special identification marker proteins called
Q5) A(n)____________________ is a disease in which antibodies attack specific cells of the body.
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Chapter 28: The Nervous System
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Q1) Which part of the brain regulates balance and coordination?
A) Medulla oblongata
B) Hypothalamus
C) Amygdala
D) Occipital lobe
E) Cerebellum
Q2) A number of trends have been identified that have become progressively more pronounced as nervous systems evolved greater complexity.From the list below,choose the item that is not one of these trends.
A) More sophisticated sensory systems
B) Differentiation of sensory and motor nerves
C) Elaboration of the brain
D) All of these are among the major evolutionary trends.
Q3) The simplest nervous system occurs among:
A) cnidarians
B) nematodes
C) platyhelminthes
D) mollusks
E) sponges
Q4) Compare the sympathetic nervous system with the parasympathetic nervous system.
To
Chapter 29: The Senses
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Q1) Two senses that detect changes in chemical concentration are:
A) touch and pressure
B) sight and smell
C) hearing and balance
D) taste and smell
Q2) Cilia from sensory cells that detect motion are located within the:
A) interior eye
B) semicircular canals
C) upper nasal cavity
D) cochlea
Q3) Describe the path that sound travels to reach the inner ear.
Q4) Balance is associated with the movements of little __________ in the inner ear.
Q5) What is not possible when eyes are located on the side of the head?
A) Seeing distances
B) Seeing in black and white
C) Seeing green
D) Depth perception
Q6) The chamber of the inner ear that is shaped like a tightly-wound snail shell is the
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Chapter 30: Chemical Signaling Within the Animal Body
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Q1) _______________ hormone is produced by the four little parathyroid glands.
Q2) Why is it so important to have several controls over the amount of calcium in the blood?
Q3) ____________________ are peptide hormones derived from tyrosine and tryptophan.
Q4) ______________ stimulates carbohydrate metabolism and reduces inflammation,and synthetic forms of this hormone have been used as anti-inflammatory agents.
A) ACTH
B) Epinephrine
C) Aldosterone
D) Cortisol
Q5) Joe has recently lost a lot of weight,has an increased heart rate and elevated body temperature.What gland might not be working right?
A) Parathyroid
B) Thyroid
C) Adrenal
D) Pancreas
Q6) _______________ is the hormone released by the pancreas to lower levels of glucose in the blood.
Q7) The adrenal ___________ releases adrenaline and norepinephrine.
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Chapter 31: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) The muscular ring at the base of the uterus is the ___________.
Q2) A human female is most likely to become pregnant on the two days preceding and following ovulation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The lining of the uterus builds up,ready for the implantation of a zygote,when?
A) During the follicular phase
B) During ovulation
C) During the luteal phase
D) At any time
Q4) Which hormone,secreted by the embryo,is tested for in all pregnancy tests?
A) Luteinizing hormone
B) Follicle-stimulating hormone
C) Progesterone
D) Estrogen
E) Human chorionic gonadotropin
Q5) In the ________________ growth pattern,different parts of the body grow or cease growing at different times.
Q6) The monthly cycle of a human female is more accurately called the ______________ cycle.
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Evolution of Plants
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Q1) A common name for secondary plant growth in stems is ________.
Q2) Which phyla lacks a vascular system?
A) Pterophyta
B) Gnetophyta
C) Ginkgophyta
D) Hepaticophyta
E) Arthophyta
Q3) The outermost whorl of a flower is called the:
A) sepals
B) petals
C) stamens
D) carpel
Q4) Why is the evolution of secondary growth important for plants?
Q5) All of the following phyla belong to the Gymnosperms except:
A) Coniferophyta
B) Lycophyta
C) Ginkgophyta
D) Cycadophyta
E) Gnetophyta
Q6) In some seeds,_____________ is used up in the formation of the cotyledons.
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) Most plants acquire minerals from:
A) rain
B) air
C) soil
D) digested insects
Q2) The _______________ cambium gives rise to thick layers of secondary xylem and phloem.
Q3) __________________ cells provide support for plant organs in which secondary growth has not yet occurred and are alive at maturity.
A) Parenchyma
B) Collenchyma
C) Sclerenchyma
D) Meristem
Q4) Which of the following is a function of trichomes?
A) Regulate the temperature of the leaf
B) Regulate the water balance of the leaf
C) Secreting sticky substances to deter herbivores
D) Secreting toxic substances to deter herbivores
E) All of the choices are functions of trichomes.
Q5) ____________ tissue is the outer protective covering of the plant.
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Chapter 34: Plant Reproduction and Growth
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Q1) Flowers which contain only male or female structures are called:
A) perfect
B) imperfect
C) clones
D) gametophytes
Q2) P<sub>r</sub> changes to P<sub>fr</sub> after absorbing ____________ nm wavelength of light.
Q3) When applied to underripe fruit,the hormone _____________ hastens ripening.
A) auxin
B) gibberellin
C) ethylene
D) abscisic acid
Q4) Dioecious plants have:
A) perfect flowers
B) both male and female flowers
C) male or female flowers
D) only asexual reproduction
Q5) Flowering plants respond to day and night length in part through the pigment ________________,which occurs in two forms.
Q6) Describe double fertilization.
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Chapter 35: Populations and Communities
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Q1) Which type of symbiosis would exist between a tapeworm living in a human host using its nutrients for its own gain and detriment to the host?
A) parasitism
B) mutualism
C) commensalism
D) benefitism
Q2) The rate at which a population can increase when food and habitat are limitless is called:
A) population expansion
B) sigmoid growth
C) logistic growth
D) the biotic potential
Q3) What types of density-dependent effects do we see in human populations as conditions become crowded due to overpopulation?
Q4) The number of different kinds of species inhabiting an ecosystem is called
Q5) Populations of different species that live together in the same place are called
Q6) _______________ is the consuming of one organism by another.
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Chapter 36: Ecosystems
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Q1) The British Isles experience warmer weather than other areas of the same latitude because of:
A) the vast forests that shelter the islands from winds
B) the warm,moist Gulf Stream
C) mountain ranges protecting the islands
D) industry causing a localized greenhouse effect
Q2) Plants obtain the carbon used in the manufacture of organic compounds from:
A) organic compounds in the soil
B) carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
C) fossil fuels
D) carbon dioxide in the soil
Q3) How have humans intruded into the global water cycle?
Q4) Which is incorrect about deep-sea organisms?
A) Some prokaryotes extract energy from hydrogen sulfide.
B) Some prokaryotes are photosynthetic there.
C) Some heterotrophic organisms obtain energy from debris that falls from above.
D) Some prokaryotes live symbiotically within the tissues of heterotrophs that live there.
Q5) Devise an example of a food chain with four links.
Q6) Why do food chains rarely have more than three or four links?
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Behavior and the Environment
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Q1) If a scientist is conducting an observation on animal behavior,for example,how an animal's senses provide a physiological basis for that behavior,she would be asking about the:
A) ultimate causation
B) proximate causation
C) stereotyped causation
D) ethological causation
Q2) This behavioral ecologist pioneered study of seagull nesting behavior.
A) Lorenz
B) Tinbergen
C) Wilson
D) von Frisch
Q3) An example of altruism is an animal alerting other members of his group that a predator is near even though it puts him in danger.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Selection that favors altruism directed towards relatives is referred to as
Q5) Discuss the benefits of mate choice.
Q6) Discuss optimal foraging theory.
Page 39
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Chapter 38: Human Influences on the Living World
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Q1) To be a viable alternative,nuclear power facilities must have:
A) security
B) safe operation
C) proper waste disposal
D) All of these
Q2) The greenhouse effect is due to high levels of which gas in the environment?
A) Nitrogen
B) Ammonia
C) Carbon monoxide
D) Carbon dioxide
E) Oxygen
Q3) Agricultural chemicals,such as DDT,are so damaging to predator populations because:
A) of biological magnification
B) top predators consume many plants
C) DDT is targeted at the top predators
D) all food items are killed by DDT,and the predators starve
Q4) _________________ is the most abundant greenhouse gas.
Q5) The number of species inhabiting an ecosystem is referred to as
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