Contemporary Biology
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Contemporary Biology explores the fundamental principles of life sciences through the lens of current scientific discovery and societal challenges. This course covers core topics such as cellular structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and biotechnology, emphasizing how modern research impacts health, the environment, and technology. Students will engage with recent case studies, ethical debates, and applications of biology in real-world contexts, fostering an understanding of how biology shapes and is shaped by contemporary issues. Designed for non-majors and majors alike, the course aims to develop scientific literacy and critical thinking skills necessary for informed participation in todays rapidly changing world.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Biology 3rd Edition by Sylvia Mader
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32 Chapters
1770 Verified Questions
1770 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: A View of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pond ecosystem includes small water fleas which feed on submerged aquatic plants. When the water fleas die, they sink to the bottom of the pond and where they decompose with the help of bacteria. List in order the producer, decomposer, and consumer in this system.
A) water fleas, bacteria, aquatic plants
B) aquatic plants, water fleas, bacteria
C) bacteria, water fleas, aquatic plants
D) aquatic plants, bacteria, water fleas
E) bacterial, aquatic plants, water fleas
Answer: D
Q2) Female fireflies emit flashes of light that attract males. This communication is an example of which characteristic of life?
A) maintaining homeostasis
B) metabolism
C) interactions with the environment
D) energy regulation
E) organization
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would not be a valuable use for radioactive isotopes?
A) carbon-14 dating
B) destroying abnormal cells as a type of cancer treatment
C) tracing the path of various chemicals in the body for imaging
D) determining the age of biological specimens
E) damaging DNA of healthy cells.
Answer: E
Q2) You are caring for the freshwater aquarium of a friend while they are on vacation. You are told to check the pH of the tank and make sure that it stays between 6.5 and 7.0.
When you check the water the pH is 8.0. The water in the tank is
A) 1 to 1.5 times more basic than it should be.
B) 1 to 1.5 times more acidic than it should be.
C) 10 to 15 times more basic than it should be.
D) 10 to 15 times more acidic than it should be.
E) 100 to 150 times more basic than it should be.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: The Organic Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A gene in DNA is the code for ________.
A) a sequence of amino acids
B) a sequence of glucose molecules
C) a sequence of fatty acids used in a fat
D) a sequence of sugars
E) a sequence of functional groups
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following levels of protein folding would include shapes identified as helix and pleated sheet?
A) primary structure
B) secondary structure
C) tertiary structure
D) quaternary structure
Answer: B
Q3) The shape of a protein is a critical factor in its function.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Inside the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a function of the endomembrane system?
A) prepares molecules for export from the cell
B) provides a place for produced cellular materials to be refined
C) manufactures molecules
D) acts as the control center of the cell
E) assists in moving materials from one part of the cell to another
Q2) Chloroplasts and mitochondria are similar in that they both
A) contain DNA.
B) are involved in protein production for the cell.
C) are involved in energy conversion.
D) are membranous sacs involved in storage.
E) are involved in helping to maintain cell shape.
Q3) Which of the following is the correct sequence for an altered protein that is secreted from the cell?
A) rough endoplasmic reticulum - Golgi apparatus - plasma membrane
B) Golgi apparatus - ribosome - plasma membrane
C) nucleus - smooth endoplasmic reticulum - Golgi apparatus
D) Golgi apparatus - smooth endoplasmic reticulum - plasma membrane
E) smooth endoplasmic reticulum - plasma membrane - Golgi apparatus - ribosome
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Page 6
Chapter 5: The Dynamic Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the types of cellular activities listed below would not use ATP?
A) active transport
B) muscular contraction
C) flagella movement
D) passive transport
E) protein synthesis
Q2) Identify which of the following statements is
A) ATP is formed when energy is released during cell respiration.
B) When ATP becomes ADP + P, the amount of energy released is enough for a biological purpose.
C) ATP is comprised of a sugar, base, and two phosphate groups.
D) ATP contains the energy form used for cellular work.
E) ADP is low in potential energy.
Q3) Which of the following is not a type of potential energy?
A) the energy in a glucose molecule
B) the energy contained in an rock sitting at the top of a cliff
C) the energy of a ball rolling down a hill
D) the energy contained in a hamburger
E) the energy of a diver standing on a diving board
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Energy for Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following events does NOT take place in the light reactions?
A) transfer of electrons to the reaction center of photosystem I
B) generation of ATP from ADP + P<sub>i</sub>
C) splitting of water, releasing an electron
D) generation of NADPH from NADP<sup>+</sup>
E) conversion of 3PG to G3P
Q2) Replacement electrons for the reaction center of photosystem II are derived from
A) H<sub>2</sub>O
B) NADP<sup>+</sup>
C) G3P
D) NADPH
E) CO<sub>2</sub>
Q3) RuBP carboxylase (rubisco) is able to bind with both
A) Carbon dioxide and water.
B) Carbon dioxide and oxygen.
C) Carbon dioxide and NADPH.
D) Oxygen and water.
E) NADPH and ATP.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Energy for Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type(s) of organisms does cellular respiration occur in?
A) autotrophs
B) heterotrophs
C) decomposers
D) producers
E) All answers given are correct.
Q2) Fermentation occurs if ________.
A) glucose is not present
B) excess ATP is present
C) oxygen is not present
D) carbon dioxide is present
E) carbon dioxide is not present
Q3) What molecule most directly provides the energy you need for your muscles to contract?
A) glucose
B) ATP
C) NADH
D) ADP
E) oxygen
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Cellular Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Place the stages of mitosis in the correct order.
A) prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
B) telophase, anaphase, metaphase, interphase
C) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
D) interphase, prophase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis
E) interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis
Q2) Multicellular organisms undergo mitotic cell division to
A) produce new organisms.
B) produce gametes.
C) increase the variability of the population.
D) increase the size of the organism.
E) facilitate sexual reproduction.
Q3) If a cell has 46 chromosomes at the beginning of mitosis, then at the end of anaphase there would be a total of
A) 23 chromatids.
B) 23 chromosomes.
C) 46 chromotids.
D) 46 chromosomes.
E) 92 chromosomes.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Goats have a diploid chromosome number of 60. At prophase I, each cell would have ____ tetrads present, for a total of _____ chromatids.
A) 30; 120
B) 30; 60
C) 60; 120
D) 60; 240
E) 30; 240
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Chromosomes are classified into two categories, the sex chromosomes that determine gender and autosomes that determine non-gender related traits.
B) Homologous chromosomes differ in banding patterns, the traits they code for and size.
C) While sex chromosomes determine different genders they look the same until they are stained.
D) In humans all 46 chromosomes have an identical match called the homologue.
E) Chromosomes are classified into two categories, autosomes that determine gender and the sex chromosomes that determine non-gender related traits.
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Vitamin-D resistant rickets is a sex-linked dominant trait which leads to softening of the bones which can cause fractures and deformities. Rickets is often due to a deficiency of vitamin D, however, with vitamin-D resistant rickets, ingestion of vitamin D is ineffective. Maria's mother is normal and does not display any symptoms of this disease; however, Maria's father has the disease. Will Maria have the disease?
A) Yes because this is a dominant disease so only one copy of the bad gene is needed to express the disease.
B) No because 2 copies of the gene are needed for a woman to display symptoms of an X-linked trait.
C) Yes because a daughter always expresses X-linked traits that she inherits from her from her father.
D) No, only male children will exhibit X-linked traits.
E) Yes, because Maria's mother is likely a carrier for the disease.
Q2) Which variable will determine the coat color in Himalayan rabbits?
A) the genetics will determine it 100%
B) the environment will determine it 100%
C) both the genetics and environment will determine the coat color
D) neither the environment or genes will play a role in determining coat color
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Page 12
Chapter 11: DNA Biology and Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) For a DNA strand that contains the sequence AGT in the 5' to 3' direction, what nucleotides are found on the other DNA strand in the 5' to 3' direction?
A) ACT
B) TGA
C) AGT
D) TCA
E) GTA
Q2) RNA differs from DNA because RNA
A) is double-stranded, whereas DNA is not.
B) may double back and base pair with itself, whereas DNA does not.
C) is never single-stranded, whereas DNA may or may not be.
D) can self-replicate, whereas DNA replication requires enzymes.
E) is replicated along with DNA, but does not require strand separation like DNA does.
Q3) mRNA must be processed in the cytoplasm before being used in protein synthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Transgenic plants may have genes from animals inserted into their DNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Gene Regulation and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman inherits a mutant BRCA1 allele from her mother. She has an increased risk of developing breast cancer because
A) every cell in the woman's body has a copy of the mutant BRCA1 allele.
B) she still has one normal allele of the BRCA1 gene that can make up for the loss of function in the mutant allele.
C) some of the cells in her body are already cancerous, meaning that no further mutations are needed for a tumor to form.
D) the normal BRCA1 allele is more likely to mutate than in an individual without a mutant BRCA1 allele.
E) a mutation in her normal BRCA1 allele may lead to cancer, whereas a normal individual would have to acquire two mutations (one in each allele) to develop cancer.
Q2) In eukaryotes, one gene may specify the construction of several proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cancer will occur if one copy of a mutant tumor suppressor gene is inherited.
A)True
B)False
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Genetic Counseling
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mutation in a gene that causes the protein to acquire an abnormal activity, such as aggregating within the cell, will usually cause a dominant inherited disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A genetic profile includes
A) the location of all known genes in the human genome.
B) the entire base sequence of an individual's genome.
C) all of an individual's normal genes.
D) an individual's complete genotype, including mutations.
E) all of an individual's genetic markers.
Q3) A female child with an unaffected father can exhibit an X-linked recessive disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Chorionic villus sampling carries less risk of causing miscarriage than amniocentesis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Darwin and Evolution
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Q1) The species of finches, tortoises, cacti, iguanas, and many others that are found on the Galápagos Islands are found nowhere else in the world. Which physical attribute of these islands has not played a role in permitting such unique life forms to evolve?
A) There is geographic isolation from mainland species.
B) Multiple islands exist.
C) Food is plentiful and diverse on every island.
D) The islands are small compared to the South American mainland.
E) Each island has its own unique environment.
Q2) Lyell's theory of uniformitarianism stated that
A) new and different processes are continually shaping the Earth in new and different ways.
B) the processes that shape the Earth today are the same process that have always shaped the Earth.
C) the processes that shape the Earth occur at a constant rate.
D) the processes that shape the Earth slow down over time.
E) the processes that shape the Earth occur uniformly around the globe.
Q3) Environmental catastrophes are a requirement of natural selection.
A)True
B)False
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Evolution on a Small Scale
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Q1) If a population recovers to its original population size after experiencing a bottleneck, which statement is correct regarding this population?
A) The recovered population is as likely to go extinct as is the population prior to the bottleneck.
B) The bottleneck subjected the population to directional selection.
C) The recovered population shows less genetic diversity that the population prior to the bottleneck.
D) The recovered population shows more genetic diversity than the population prior to the bottleneck.
E) The recovered population is more likely to go extinct as is the population prior to the bottleneck
Q2) A female peacock chooses a male as a mate based on his showy plumage and courtship dance. This is an example of
A) random mating.
B) assortative mating.
C) sexual selection.
D) gene flow.
E) natural selection.
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Chapter 16: Evolution on a Large Scale
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Q1) All of the following are criteria by which a species may be defined except A) the ability to reproduce.
B) possession of a shared gene pool.
C) ability to hybridize through interbreeding.
D) reproductive isolation.
E) the ability to produce fertile offspring.
Q2) Elaborate courtship behaviors in animals, such as the blue-footed booby of the Galápagos islands, is an example of which of the following reproductive barriers?
A) behavioral isolation
B) mechanical isolation
C) temporal isolation
D) postzygotic isolation
E) hybrid sterility
Q3) In the figure shown here, the letter W represents which of the following?
A) the common ancestor for Y and Z
B) the common ancestor for U
C) the ancestor for Z
D) the common ancestor for X and Y
E) the common ancestor for X, Y, and Z
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Page 18
Chapter 17: The Microorganisms: Viruses, Bacteria, and Protists
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Q1) Animal viruses which have an envelope enter cells by
A) injecting their nucleic acid into the cell's cytoplasm.
B) fusing with the plasma membrane.
C) endocytosis.
D) plasmolysis.
E) either fusing with the plasma membrane or endocytosis.
Q2) Which sporozoan characteristic is most consistent with a parasitic lifestyle?
A) lack of motility
B) chemoheterotrophism
C) unicellular
D) lack of light-absorbing pigment
E) eukaryotic
Q3) What evidence helps supports the endosymbiosis theory?
A) a single membrane around the nucleus within a cell
B) a double membrane surrounding the nucleus within a cell
C) a single membrane surrounding the mitochondria
D) a single membrane surrounding the chloroplast
E) a double membrane surrounding the mitochnodria and chloroplast
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Chapter 18: Land Environment: Plants and Fungi
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Q1) Which part of the figure represents the gametophyte?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q2) Which fungal disease can lead to a major economic loss in wheat crops?
A) smut
B) rusts
C) leaf curl disease
D) blast disease
E) ergotism
Q3) If a plant has vascular tissue, megaphylls, and seeds, but not flowers, then it is a(n)
A) angiosperm.
B) gymnosperm.
C) lycophyte.
D) fern.
E) bryophyte.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Both Water and Land: Animals
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Q1) Organisms that live in a marine environment, have skin gills, tube feet, a coelom, and a water vascular system are classified as a(n)
A) tunicate.
B) lancelet.
C) planarian.
D) oligochaete.
E) echinoderm.
Q2) Which of the following is not a hominin?
A) Neandertal
B) australopithecine
C) Homo erectus
D) Cro-Magnon
E) gorilla
Q3) Which is the largest, most diverse group of arthropods?
A) arachnids
B) millipedes
C) insects
D) crustaceans
E) centipedes
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Chapter 20: Plant Anatomy and Growth
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Q1) Which of the following correctly describes a major difference between monocot and eudicot plants?
A) Xylem and phloem occur in a ring in a eudicot stem, while phloem occur between arms of xylem in a monocot stem.
B) Xylem and phloem occur in a ring in a monocot root, while phloem occur between arms of xylem in a eudicot root.
C) Xylem and phloem occur in a ring in a eudicot root, while phloem occur between arms of xylem in a monocot root.
D) Xylem and phloem occur in a ring in a monocot stem, while phloem occur between arms of xylem in a eudicot stem.
E) Xylem and phloem occur in a ring in a monocot stem, while xylem and phloem occur in scattered bundles in a eudicot stem.
Q2) Which layer is the central most layer in a woody stem?
A) bark
B) pith
C) wood
D) secondary xylem
E) phloem
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Plant Structure and Function
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Q1) Some citizens are concerned about the use of genetically modified plants because they
A) are better for the environment.
B) may harm the environment.
C) are less nutritious than the original plant.
D) are genetically identical.
E) do not grow as well as the original plant.
Q2) An advantage of using genetically modified plants is that they A) are genetically identical to the parent plant.
B) grow much more quickly.
C) may possess superior characteristics than the original plant.
D) are always virus-free.
E) cannot undergo asexual reproduction.
Q3) A monocot seed consists of a seed coat, two cotyledons, an embryo, and an endosperm.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The application of abscisic acid to a plant may prevent fruit maturation.
A)True
B)False
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Being Organized and Steady
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Q1) White blood cells are different from red blood cells in that white blood cells
A) have nuclei.
B) carry oxygen.
C) contain hemoglobin.
D) are actually cell fragments.
E) are the most plentiful type of cell in blood.
Q2) Ligaments are made up of loose fibrous connective tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To enter the body, substances have to pass through connective tissue cells to reach the tissues beneath.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What system removes waste products from the blood and maintains water balance?
A) cardiovascular
B) urinary
C) respiratory
D) lymphatic
E) skeletal
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Chapter 23: The Transport Systems
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Q1) A heart murmur is caused by
A) blocked arteries to the heart muscle.
B) loss of oxygen to the left atrium.
C) faulty semilunar valves.
D) faulty atrioventricular valves.
E) an irregular heart beat.
Q2) A major evolutionary change seen between fish circulatory systems and amphibian, bird, and mammalian circulatory systems is the presence of a A) separate pulmonary circuit in fish.
B) two chambered heart in amphibians, birds, and mammals.
C) double loop pathway in amphibians, birds, and mammals.
D) stronger atria in amphibians, birds, and mammals.
E) four chambered heart in fish.
Q3) The two large lymphatic ducts deliver lymph to the subclavian veins.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A leak in a blood vessel is closed first by platelets and then by fibrin threads.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: The Maintenance Systems
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Q1) Each red blood cell contains about 250 million hemoglobin molecules and so can carry at least one billion molecules of oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Food in the digestive tract is called chyme after
A) the tongue mixes it with saliva.
B) the stomach processes it.
C) all nutrients have been absorbed by the small intestines.
D) elimination through the anus.
E) it is chewed by the teeth.
Q3) The mechanism by which oxygen moves into capillaries from alveoli is ________.
A) active transport
B) facilitated transport
C) diffusion
D) osmosis
E) secondary active transport
Q4) Ruminants have a stomach that enables them to digest cellulose.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Human Nutrition
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Q1) If egg yolks are a source of cholesterol, why doesn't eating a few eggs a week raise blood cholesterol?
A) Cholesterol from eggs does not affect HDL-cholesterol levels.
B) The impact on LDL-cholesterol levels is greater from dietary saturated and trans fats than from cholesterol.
C) Cholesterol from eggs naturally lowers LDL-cholesterol levels.
D) The human body produces more cholesterol than is in the two eggs.
E) Cholesterol from eggs naturally raises LDL-cholesterol levels.
Q2) Which of the following is an incorrect match?
A) trans fat - margarine
B) saturated fat - beef
C) unsaturated fat - olive oil
D) saturated fat - cold water fish
E) unsaturated fat - canola oil
Q3) Proteins must be ingested in order to obtain
A) necessary trans fats.
B) essential amino acids.
C) essential cholesterol.
D) needed minerals such as potassium and magnesium.
E) needed vitamins such as vitamin C.
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Chapter 26: Defenses Against Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true about passive immunity?
A) It is temporary.
B) It can be gained by infants through breast milk.
C) It is achieved through the production of antibodies by the person gaining the immunity.
D) It can be achieved through injections of antibodies or immunoglobulins.
E) It can be used to prevent an illness in someone who has been exposed to that illness.
Q2) ____________ cells kill virus-infected cells and tumor cells by cell-cell contact.
A) Natural killer
B) Plasma
C) Cytotoxic T
D) Memory B
E) Helper T
Q3) Macrophages present antigens to T cells by digesting the pathogen and placing the pathogen's antigens on the macrophage plasma membrane along with an MHC "self" protein.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Control Systems
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Q1) Gaps in the myelin sheath are termed
A) nodes of Ranvier.
B) interaxons.
C) ganglia.
D) nuclei.
E) synapses.
Q2) Which of these lists the events of an action potential in the correct order?
A) Na<sup>+</sup> gates open inside of axon becomes positive Na<sup>+</sup> gates close K<sup>+</sup> gates open inside of axon becomes negative
B) K<sup>+</sup> gates open inside of axon becomes positive K<sup>+</sup> gates close Na<sup>+</sup> gates open inside of axon becomes negative
C) K<sup>+</sup> gates open inside of axon becomes negative K<sup>+</sup> gates close Na<sup>+</sup> gates open inside of axon becomes positive
D) Na<sup>+</sup> gates open inside of axon becomes negative Na<sup>+</sup> gates close K<sup>+</sup> gates open inside of axon becomes positive
E) Na<sup>+</sup> gates open inside of axon becomes positive K<sup>+</sup> gates close Na<sup>+</sup> gates open inside of axon becomes negative
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29
Chapter 28: Sensory Input and Motor Output
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Q1) At a synovial joint, the bones are bound together by A) tendons.
B) osteons.
C) sarcomeres.
D) ligaments.
E) hinges.
Q2) According to the sliding filament model, when muscle tissue contracts,
A) the Z lines slide away from one another.
B) the myosin filaments shorten, while the actin filaments remain the same length.
C) the sarcomeres shorten.
D) the actin and myosin filaments shorten.
E) the T tubules shorten.
Q3) The spiral organ is located in the A) vestibule.
B) saccule.
C) utricle.
D) cochlea.
E) semicircular canals.
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Chapter 29: Reproduction and Development
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63006
Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman has passed her due date, and her cervix is dilated. This indicates which stage of childbirth?
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth
E) fifth
Q2) The male gonad is the _____, and the female gonad is the _____.
A) ovary; testis
B) vagina; penis
C) testis; uterus
D) testis; ovary
E) penis; vagina
Q3) Which list contains the correct sequence of structures a sperm nucleus must penetrate in order to fertilize an egg?
A) egg plasma membrane follicle cells zona pellucida
B) follicle cells egg plasma membrane zona pellucida
C) follicle cells zona pellucida egg plasma membrane
D) egg plasma membrane zona pellucida follicle cells
E) zona pellucida follicle cells egg plasma membrane
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Chapter 30: Ecology and Populations
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63005
Sample Questions
Q1) Jacob is studying a population of wrens in Michigan. Over several years, he notices that the population always stabilizing at around 45 individuals. What is the reason for this?
A) population at maximum density
B) death rate higher than birth rate
C) exponential growth
D) limited resources to support additional birds
E) slow lag phase
Q2) If a population of 200 squirrels has a 10 percent growth rate each year, how many individuals will there born in the next year?
A) 2
B) 10
C) 20
D) 100
E) 200
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32
Chapter 31: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be considered a mutualistic relationship?
A) Some species of crabs decorate their shells with sea anemones and other corals. These "decorations" help camouflage the crab and the movement of the crab from one area to the next exposes the corals and anemones to different sources of food.
B) Some spiders do not build webs, but live in the web of another species. When a prey item is caught in the web, the non-web building spider will sneak in and steal the prey.
C) A praying mantis hunting and eating a fly.
D) The longest tapeworm removed from a human was approximately 11 meters long. Tapeworms do not have a digestive system, but obtains all of their nutrients from the host.
E) Pseudoscorpions are small, harmless arachnids. To move from one place to another, they will sometimes latch onto the legs of flies and thus be carried long distances that they would not readily be able to traverse.
Q2) On average, 90% of biomass is transferred from one trophic level to the next.
A)True
B)False
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33
Chapter 32: Human Impact on the Biosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of compounds have been implicated in ozone depletion?
A) chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
B) volatile organic compounds (VOCs)
C) DDT
D) polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs)
E) chromium
Q2) A disproportionately large percentage of resources in more developed countries (MDCs) goes to
A) growing crops.
B) providing water.
C) growing livestock.
D) cleaning sewage.
E) pest and weed control.
Q3) Which of the following is a major drawback of dams?
A) saltwater intrusion
B) providing irrigation water
C) sediment buildup
D) depletion of aquifers
E) deforestation of nearby lands
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