Contemporary Biology
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Contemporary Biology is an introductory course designed to explore fundamental concepts and current advances in the biological sciences. Covering topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and biotechnology, the course emphasizes how biological principles shape our understanding of living systems and their relevance to modern issues such as health, environment, and technology. Through a combination of lectures, discussions, and hands-on activities, students will critically examine scientific methods, analyze recent breakthroughs, and consider the societal impact of biological research.
Recommended Textbook
Inquiry into Life 14th Edition by Sylvia Mader
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Study of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement concerning reproduction is false?
A) Hereditary information is passed on to the next generation.
B) Hereditary information is in the form of genes.
C) The offspring of asexual organisms have the same genes as the single parent.
D) The offspring of sexual organisms have roughly one half of the genes from each parent.
E) The offspring of multicellular organisms tend to be identical to the parent.
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following biological technology has enabled scientists to extend the life span of individuals who are suffering from HIV / AIDS?
A) Virology
B) Cell biology
C) Biology
D) Physics
E) Technology
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: The Molecules of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The backbone of a nucleic acid strand is composed of A) glycerol.
B) "R" groups.
C) nitrogenous bases.
D) alternating pentose sugars and phosphate groups.
E) alternating adenines and thymines.
Answer: D
Q2) The atomic mass of an element
A) is determined by its protons and neutrons.
B) equals the number of protons plus the number of electrons.
C) equals the number of neutrons.
D) changes after each reaction.
E) depends on the number of electrons in the outermost shell.
Answer: A
Q3) Briefly describe how ATP is broken down and turned into ADP.
Answer: Answers will vary but should include the following: The last two phosphate bonds in ATP are unstable and easily broken.The terminal phosphate bond is hydrolyzed leaving ADP and an inorganic phosphate.Energy is released when the phosphate is broken off.
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) Because plants evolved from bacterial ancestors,the primary plant cell wall and the bacterial cell wall are both composed of peptidoglycan.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Thylakoids and cristae are respectively structures of
A) lysosomes and the endoplasmic reticulum.
B) the nucleus and nucleolus.
C) chloroplasts and mitochondria.
D) mitochondria and chloroplasts.
E) the cell wall and the plasma membrane.
Answer: C
Q3) Which structure regulates passage of molecules into and out of the bacterial cell?
A) plasma membrane
B) nucleus
C) mitochondria
D) chloroplast
E) flagella
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Membrane Structure and Function
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Q1) Molecules such as glucose and amino acids are NOT lipid soluble and therefore they A) easily pass across the cell membrane.
B) require active transport to cross the cell membrane.
C) must be converted to lipids before they can enter a cell.
D) combine with carrier proteins and pass across by facilitated transport.
E) must be engulfed by a cell using endocytosis.
Q2) The same signaling molecule that binds to the receptor on the outside of the cell is used to alter gene expression in the nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The pressure that is generated when water flows through a differentially permeable membrane is termed
A) osmotic pressure.
B) turgor pressure.
C) plasmolysis.
D) crenation.
E) tonicity.
Q4) Compare and contrast exocytosis and endocytosis.
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6
Chapter 5: Cell Division
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Q1) Mitotic division is the normal process of cell reproduction to build and maintain the body of an organism,while meiosis takes place only in the formation of gametes for reproduction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not involved in the regulation of the cell cycle?
A) cyclins
B) internal and external signals
C) growth factors
D) check points
E) caspases
Q3) Centrioles are absolutely necessary to the process of mitosis in all organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements is NOT true about oogenesis in humans?
A) It occurs in the ovary.
B) The egg will contain 23 chromosomes.
C) Four equal size daughter cells will form.
D) Three nonfunctional polar bodies will form.
E) Once started, it will not necessarily go to completion.
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Chapter 6: Metabolism: Energy and Enzymes
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an enzymatic reaction,what happens to the enzyme?
A) It becomes the product.
B) It becomes the substrate.
C) It is used up.
D) The enzyme and the substrate form a permanent complex.
E) The enzyme and the substrate form a temporary complex.
Q2) If A \(\rarr\) B \(\rarr\) C \(\rarr\) D \(\rarr\) E represents a metabolic pathway,then letter E would be
A) a substrate.
B) a product.
C) energy.
D) an enzyme.
E) an enzyme-substrate complex.
Q3) ATP can be broken down into
A) ADP.
B) ADP plus phosphate.
C) ADP plus phosphate plus energy.
D) pyruvate.
E) lactate.
Q4) Explain the difference between an endergonic and an exergonic reaction?
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Chapter 7: Cellular Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do organisms without oxygen need to convert pyruvate to lactate?
A) in order to regenerate NAD<sup>+</sup>
B) because lactate is needed to produce ATP
C) because pyruvate is toxic to the cells
D) in order to use lactate in the citric acid cycle
E) because the conversion provides much more ATP for the cell
Q2) Which of the following does not describe the role of NAD<sup>+</sup> in cellular respiration?
A) It accepts 2 electrons.
B) It is a coenzyme.
C) It helps to oxidize the substrate.
D) It is reduced.
E) It provides the energy for the reaction.
Q3) The ATP synthase complex is located in the
A) cytoplasm outside the mitochondria.
B) matrix inside the mitochondria.
C) cristae of the mitochondria.
D) outer membrane of the mitochondria.
E) plasma membrane of the cell.
Q4) List the inputs and outputs of glycolysis.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) We set up an experiment where the same species of plant is grown in boxes covered with plastic that only allows a single color of light.In which box would we expect the least plant growth and even perhaps the death of the plant to occur?
A) white
B) blue
C) red
D) green
E) indigo
Q2) The main function of stomata is to
A) expose the chlorophyll to sunlight.
B) transport water to the chlorophyll.
C) allow passage of CO<sub>2</sub> and O<sub>2</sub> into the leaf.
D) store glucose.
E) store pyruvate and provide the site of the Calvin cycle.
Q3) What are the stages of the Calvin cycle?
A) carbon dioxide fixation and reduction
B) carbon dioxide fixation and regeneration of RuBP
C) the noncyclic electron pathway and the cyclic electron pathway
D) the light reactions, regeneration of RuBP, and cyclic electron pathway
E) carbon dioxide fixation, carbon dioxide reduction, and regeneration of RuBP
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Chapter 9: Plant Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) What organic substance makes the walls of sclerenchyma cells tough and hard?
A) suberin
B) stomata
C) trichomes
D) cuticle
E) lignin
Q2) The waxy material known as the Casparian strip is found on the A) cuticle.
B) xylem vessels.
C) vascular cambium.
D) endodermal cells.
E) epidermal cells.
Q3) Most of the water obtained by a plant enters through the A) cambium layer.
B) palisade cells.
C) root hairs.
D) stomata.
E) bark.
Q4) Explain the difference between stolons and rhizomes.
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Chapter 10: Plant Reproduction and Responses
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Q1) You are examining a seed with tiny white plumes attached to it.How is this type of seed most likely dispersed?
A) by animals who eat it
B) by floating on water
C) by the wind
D) by attaching to the fur of animals
E) by bursting forth from the seed pod
Q2) A friend complains that all of her houseplants have bent stems.You examine the plants and find that their stems all curve toward the light.What would you recommend to your friend to correct the problem?
A) Apply an auxin to the shady side of the stems.
B) Water the plants more frequently.
C) Apply gibberellins to the bases of the stems.
D) Turn each plant occasionally.
E) Repot the plants.
Q3) One of the new technologies developed from tissue culture and genetic engineering is plant hybridization.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Human Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some very important persons such as Japanese Emperor Hirohito and China's Premier Zhou Enlai were kept alive during their last days by many transfusions of blood.Without knowing further details of their ailments,which of the following functions most likely provided the most significant contribution to keeping them alive?
A) oxygen and carbon dioxide carrying capacity
B) supplement of hormone levels
C) provision of organic nutrients such as glucose, amino acids, and fats
D) provision of albumin and fibrinogen
E) provision of immune antibodies
Q2) The type of membrane that covers the heart is called a
A) mucous membrane.
B) serous membrane.
C) basement membrane.
D) pleural membrane.
E) plasma membrane.
Q3) When you drink coffee,which is more acidic than you bloodstream,the pH of your blood drops.
A)True
B)False
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) There is a condition where a baby is born with an opening [foramen ovale] in the septum or wall between the atria.What are reasonable consequences?
A) more efficient pumping of blood through the body with pressure from both ventricles
B) an equal reading for blood pressure, that is diastole equals systole
C) disability when deoxygenated blood is mixed and sent to the body and partly oxygenated blood is sent to the lungs
D) death due to loss of blood from the circulatory system
E) no significant differences would occur
Q2) The pacemaker of the heart is termed the
A) AV node.
B) cardiac center in the medulla.
C) SA node.
D) vagus nerve.
E) Purkinje fibers.
Q3) List the 5 different types of white blood cells found in the human body in order of frequency,with the most common one first.
Q4) Compare the structural differences between the walls of arteries and veins.
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Chapter 13: Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) If we inject three different antigens into a human at the same time,
A) one plasma cell will produce three different antibodies.
B) plasma cells will produce three times the amount of one antibody.
C) at least three different plasma cells will be involved in antibody production since each plasma cell only produces one specific antibody.
D) three different immunoglobulins will assist one plasma cell in responding to the antigen.
E) three complement plasma proteins will assist one plasma cell in responding to the antigen.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of both T cells and B cells?
A) They are both lymphocytes.
B) They both pass through the thymus.
C) They both function in immunity.
D) They both are specific.
E) They both originated in bone marrow.
Q3) Describe the three major functions of the lymphatic system.
Q4) List the steps involved with the production of monoclonal antibodies.
Q5) Would untreated SCID be considered a lethal disease?
Q6) List the function of the following antibodies: IgG,IgM,IgA,IgD,and IgE.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Digestive System and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hepatic portal vein is located between
A) the gallbladder and the liver.
B) the gallbladder and the small intestine.
C) the pancreas and the small intestine.
D) the small intestine and the liver.
E) the large intestine and the small intestine.
Q2) If the hepatic portal vein was blocked,where would the blood that was supposed to flow into the hepatic portal vein back up?
A) the inferior vena cava
B) the capillaries of the small intestine
C) the capillaries of the liver
D) the hepatic artery
E) the hepatic vein
Q3) Which of the following is not related to obesity?
A) sedentary activities
B) family eating habits
C) exercise and sensible diet
D) excessive intake of fatty foods
E) body fat content above 20% ideal body weight
Q4) List the seven functions of the liver.
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Chapter 15: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The maximum volume of air that can be moved in plus the maximum volume of air that can be moved out during a single breath is the A) tidal volume.
B) inspiratory reserve volume.
C) expiratory reserve volume.
D) vital capacity.
E) residual volume.
Q2) The Adam's apple is actually a part of the A) pharynx.
B) larynx.
C) glottis.
D) vocal cords.
E) trachea.
Q3) Food is prevented from entering the trachea by the A) pharynx.
B) larynx.
C) bronchioles.
D) saliva.
E) epiglottis.
Q4) List and describe the three major functions of the respiratory system.
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Chapter 16: Urinary System and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) How can urine contain a higher concentration of wastes (be hypertonic)than the blood?
A) Urine cannot since the process is passive diffusion.
B) Reabsorption of water in the loop of the nephron and collecting ducts leaves behind a more concentrated urine.
C) All stages in the kidney involve active transport.
D) Urine can be hypertonic for small molecules if it is hypotonic for an equal number of big molecules.
E) The whole nephron is impermeable to water.
Q2) Since the proximal convoluted tubule reabsorbs molecules by diffusion,what structure would you expect to find at the microscopic level?
A) microvilli to increase surface area
B) smooth muscle to stretch as the volume inside increases
C) numerous mitochondria to allow active transport
D) loose connective tissue so that liquids can pass through the cells
E) many neurons to stimulate the cells to reabsorb
Q3) Urine excreted from the body should be sterile.
A)True
B)False
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myelinated axons that run together in bundles in the CNS are
A) ventricles.
B) meninges.
C) cortex.
D) tracts.
E) ganglia.
Q2) Which lobe of the cerebrum is responsible for vision?
A) frontal
B) parietal
C) temporal
D) occipital
E) insular
Q3) Which is a combination of physiological and psychological dependence?
A) tolerance and withdrawal
B) increasing a drug to get the same effect and preoccupation with trying to get more drugs
C) seizures and craving for cocaine
D) the rush of cocaine and the hallucinations of marijuana
E) a cocaine binge and a nicotine craving
Q4) Explain the transmission across a synapse from one neuron to another.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Senses
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Hearing is not dependent on the inner ear.
B) All parts of the organ of Corti hear all ranges of sound.
C) Loud music does not damage your ears.
D) Hearing is dependent on mechanical pressure.
E) Sound is similar to light insofar as it is transmitted through the vacuum of space.
Q2) You are a sun worshipper,constantly sunbathing without sun screen or other protective devices.In addition you are also a smoker.These behaviors have significantly increased your chances of getting what disease?
A) glaucoma
B) cataracts
C) vertigo
D) Meniere's disease
E) anosmia
Q3) The most frequent cause of blindness in adults are retinal disorders.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List the parts of the ear that make up the outer ear,middle ear,and inner ear.
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Chapter 19: Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) Which one of the following is NOT a part of the appendicular skeleton?
A) ribs
B) fibula
C) humerus
D) coxal
E) radius
Q2) A structure that reduces the weight of the skull and drains into the middle ear would be
A) a fontanel.
B) a diaphysis.
C) yellow bone marrow.
D) red bone marrow.
E) a sinus.
Q3) Which is NOT a correct association of bone structures and functions?
A) osteoblasts-cells that build up bone tissue
B) osteoclasts-cells that break down bone tissue
C) osteons-tubular units of compact bone
D) canaliculi-holes through which blood vessels run
E) lacunae-tiny chambers in concentric circles around a central canal
Q4) Describe the six characteristics used to name skeletal muscles.
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Chapter 20: Endocrine System
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Q1) List the six hormones produced by the anterior pituitary and indicate their primary function.
Q2) Endocrine glands have no ducts.
A)True B)False
Q3) What is the cascade of events that follows a stress or trauma to produce adrenal reaction?
A) hypothalamus (ACTH-releasing hormone) \(\rarr\) anterior pituitary (ACTH) \(\rarr\) adrenal cortex glucocorticoids
B) hypothalamus (ACTH-releasing hormone) \(\rarr\) anterior pituitary (ACTH) \(\rarr\)adrenal medulla epinephrine and norepinephrine
C) anterior pituitary (ACTH) \(\rarr\) hypothalamus (ACTH-releasing hormone) \(\rarr\)adrenal medulla epinephrine and norepinephrine
D) adrenal cortex glucocorticoids \(\rarr\) anterior pituitary (ACTH) \(\rarr\) hypothalamus (ACTH-releasing hormone)
E) adrenal medulla epinephrine and norepinephrine \(\rarr\) hypothalamus (ACTH-releasing hormone) \(\rarr\) anterior pituitary (ACTH)
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Reproductive System
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Q1) Which is a correct comparison of the role(s)of hormones in male and female cycles and sexual development?
A) The same hormones are used by both systems; the names are simply different.
B) The hypothalamus-pituitary uses a completely separate set of hormones to communicate with ovaries in contrast to testes.
C) In males, the hypothalamus-pituitary and testes communicate; in females the uterus is an additional actor along with the ovaries and the hypothalamus-pituitary.
D) In both males and females, there is a monthly cycle of changing hormone levels although in males, this only results in sperm production.
E) The hypothalamus controls the male sexual development and keeps sperm production level; the pituitary constantly cycles the female production of eggs.
Q2) List and describe the function of the female reproductive organs.
Q3) The refractory period of female orgasm is significantly longer than that of a male.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Development and Aging
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Q1) The neural tube of vertebrates develops during morphogenesis of the nervous system by the
A) folding of ectoderm tissue.
B) migration of mesoderm cells.
C) fusion of ectoderm and mesoderm.
D) contraction of the endoderm away from the mesoderm.
E) extension of endoderm into a thin spinal column.
Q2) The egg from a ___ has been observed to form a gray crescent after fertilization.
A) fish
B) frog
C) reptile
D) chicken
E) human
Q3) Which system below develops first in the embryo?
A) reproductive
B) circulatory
C) excretory
D) respiratory
E) nervous
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Chapter 23: Patterns of Gene Inheritance
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Q1) A man with blood type AB could NOT be the father of a child with A)blood type A.
B)blood type B.
C)blood type AB.
D)blood type O.
E)A man with blood type AB can have a child of any blood type.
Q2) Unattached earlobes (EE or Ee)are dominant over attached earlobes (ee).A couple both have unattached earlobes.Both notice that one of their parents on both sides have attached earlobes (ee).Therefore,they correctly assume that they are carriers for attached earlobes (Ee).If the couple proceeds to have four children,then
A) they can be certain that three will be heterozygous and one homozygous recessive.
B) if the first three are heterozygous, the fourth must be homozygous recessive.
C) the children must repeat the grandparents' genotype (Ee).
D) all children must have unattached earlobes since both parents possess the dominant gene for it.
E) two heterozygous, one homozygous dominant, and one homozygous recessive is a likely outcome, but all heterozygous, or two, three or all four homozygous is also possible.
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Chapter 24: Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) Which refers to the addition of a repeat segment of a chromosome?
A) inversion
B) translocation
C) deletion
D) duplication
E) monosomy
Q2) Generally,it is not possible to determine whether nondisjunction failed to occur in oogenesis or spermatogenesis.However,it is possible to assert that _____ resulted in nondisjunction in ____.
A) XXY; oogenesis
B) XYY; spermatogenesis
C) XXX; oogenesis
D) XXY; spermatogenesis
E) XO; oogenesis
Q3) If a person inherits two X chromosomes,this individual will be
A) female.
B) male.
C) colorblind.
D) sterile.
E) a poly-X female.
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Chapter 25: DNA Structure and Gene Expression
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Q1) Specific DNA sequences that have the ability to move within and out of chromosomes are called
A) transposons.
B) introns.
C) exons.
D) operators.
E) ribozymes.
Q2) Which is most directly responsible for the sequence of amino acids in a protein?
A) the sequence of the anticodons
B) the number of codons in mRNA
C) the enzyme that attaches the amino acid to tRNA
D) the proteins associated with rRNA
E) the sequence of codons in mRNA
Q3) Which is NOT true about the genetic code?
A) It is exactly the same in all organisms.
B) It is composed of a triplet code of three bases per codon.
C) It produces 64 different possibilities of codon sequences.
D) Some amino acids are coded for by more than one codon.
E) It contains start and stop codons as instructions.
Q4) Summarize the process of DNA replication.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Biotechnology and Genomics
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Q1) What structure is used to seal the DNA into an opening created by the restriction enzyme during recombinant DNA technology?
A) DNA ligase
B) restriction enzymes
C) plamids
D) vectors
E) DNA helicase
Q2) Gene pharming is
A) the use of bacterial DNA to impart drug resistance to plants.
B) the use of transgenic farm animals to produce pharmaceuticals.
C) the creation of new genes to be implanted in farm animals.
D) the creation of crop plants to replace the use of farm animals as a source of protein.
E) the application of genetic principles to breeding farm animals.
Q3) Which of the following is not a use of DNA fingerprinting?
A) Paternity tests
B) Identifying Superbowl footballs
C) Forensic analysis
D) Determining a predisposition to cancer
E) All of the above are uses of DNA fingerprinting
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Chapter 27: Evolution of Life
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Q1) Anatomical features that are fully developed and functional in one group of organisms but reduced and functionless in a similar group are termed
A) vestigial.
B) homologous.
C) analogous.
D) polygenic.
E) sympatric.
Q2) Name the isolating mechanisms that exist within nature and indicate which ones are prezygotic and which ones are postzygotic.
Q3) Which of the following conditions does NOT contribute to evolution?
A) mutations
B) gene flow
C) genetic drift
D) natural selection
E) unchanging environmental conditions
Q4) List the five conditions required for the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium to be present in a population.
Q5) Summarize the four main observations that make up Darwin's theory of natural selection.
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Chapter 28: Microbiology
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Q1) Bacterial metabolism is quite diverse and can range from heterotrophic individuals that are anaerobic to ones that use mitochondria to run cellular respiration.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Viruses are
A) smaller than bacteria.
B) usually more than 1 micron long.
C) larger than protists.
D) immeasurable.
E) unicellular.
Q3) The three shapes of bacteria are
A) haplontic, diplontic, and alternations.
B) anaerobic, aerobic, and facultative.
C) heterotrophic, autotrophic, and chemosynthetic.
D) bacillus, coccus, and spirillum.
E) helical, spiral, and streptococci.
Q4) Describe the steps in viral replication.
Q5) List the four stages that are thought to have led to the formation of the first cells.
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Chapter 29: Protists and Fungi
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Q1) Explain why chytrid fungi (phylum Chytridomycota)are believed to have been the first fungi to have evolved.
Q2) When the cap of an average gilled mushroom is cut off and shaken a cloud of powdery material is released.The material released are
A) mycelia.
B) sporangia.
C) hyphae.
D) spores.
E) seeds.
Q3) Sac fungi take their name from the shape
A) of their spores.
B) of the structure that produces the spores.
C) of their fruiting bodies.
D) of their hyphae.
E) made by clusters of sac fungi together.
Q4) List the six steps in the life cycle of Plasmodium vivax,the protist that causes malaria.
Q5) List the 6 Eukaryotic Supergroups and indicate the types of organisms that belong in each.
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Chapter 30: Plants
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Q1) The function of endosperm is to
A) form the seedling.
B) develop into the fruit.
C) provide water to the embryo.
D) provide nutrients to the embryo.
E) provide a protective coating for the embryo.
Q2) Which life cycle phase is diploid in moss?
A) sporophyte generation
B) gametophyte generation
C) gametes
D) spores
E) antheridium
Q3) Which feature is common across all seed plants?
A) flowers
B) fruits
C) pollen tubes
D) flagellated sperm
E) sperm carried by windborne pollen
Q4) Identify the traits of nonvascular plants that enabled them to adapt to life on land.
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Chapter 31: Animals: the Invertebrates
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Q1) Which statement about sponges is NOT correct?
A) The larval form is flagellated and able to swim to a suitable location.
B) Sponges are classified on the basis of their type of skeletal material.
C) Sponges resemble a colony of protozoan cells more than a multicellular animal.
D) Sponges are thought to be on the evolutionary pathway leading to more complex animals such as corals and worms.
E) Sponges can reproduce sexually or asexually.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an echinoderm?
A) sea star
B) sea urchin
C) sea cucumber
D) sand dollar
E) crayfish
Q3) Identify the features unique to the molluscs.
Q4) List the five features that have contributed to the success of the arthropods.
Q5) Sponges exhibit radial symmetry.
A)True
B)False
Q6) List the 5 general characteristics shared by animals.
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Animals: Chordates and Vertebrates
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Q1) Which statement about the chordates is NOT correct?
A) Chordates have segmentation.
B) Chordates have bilateral symmetry.
C) Invertebrate chordates are marine and filter feeding.
D) Adult lancelets have all the characteristics that distinguish chordates from members of other phyla.
E) Adult tunicates lack all the characteristics that distinguish chordates from members of other phyla.
Q2) Which of these is a proper contrast between birds and mammals?
A) Birds are cold-blooded; mammals are warm-blooded.
B) Birds are egg laying; no mammals lay eggs.
C) Birds have air sacs in addition to lungs; mammals have no air sacs.
D) Birds lack a septum between the ventricles; mammals have a septum between the ventricles.
E) Birds, unlike mammals, require no parental care.
Q3) The ability to throw spears and kill animals from a distance gave Cro-Magnon an advantage in their environment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Behavioral Ecology
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Q1) A digger wasp continues to close its nest even though the researcher has removed the nest's contents.This shows that nest-closing behavior in the digger wasp is
A) a learned behavior.
B) an imprinted behavior.
C) a fixed action pattern.
D) an insight learning behavior.
E) a classical conditioned behavior.
Q2) Some animals define a territory and defend it.Maintaining a territory costs in terms of the energy expended in defense and puts the defender and the aggressor at risk of an injury that could cost their life.What benefits do organisms derive from keeping a territory?
A) Obtaining a mate and defeating predators
B) Keeping a constant supply of food and encouraging other species to settle in the area
C) Encouraging other species to settle in the area and obtaining a mate
D) Obtaining a mate and keeping a constant supply of food
E) Defeating predators and encouraging other species to settle in the area
Q3) List and describe the two types of associative learning.
Q4) List the four main methods of communication among animals.
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Chapter 34: Population and Community Ecology
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Q1) Which is NOT a density-dependent factor?
A) food supply
B) weather
C) shelter or nest space
D) disease
E) predators
Q2) The outbreak of a disease,such as the bubonic plague,that kills large numbers of people in a city is an example of
A) density independent factor.
B) density dependent factor.
C) commensalistic factor.
D) a symbiotic relationship.
E) predation.
Q3) Primary succession takes much longer than secondary succession because it involves
A) colonization by more equilibrium species.
B) time for weathering of rock and development of the soil horizons.
C) more time for development of a seed bank.
D) colonization by organisms that are farther away.
E) redevelopment of the atmospheric gases.
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Chapter 35: Nature of Ecosystems
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Q1) What eventually happens to the energy passed from one trophic level to the next in a food chain?
A) It recycles back to the producers.
B) It results in a much larger decomposer population.
C) It is dissipated into the atmosphere.
D) It is recaptured by another food chain.
E) It is eventually sealed in fossil fuels such as coal and oil.
Q2) When deep wells drain aquifers,it is called
A) transpiration.
B) negative hydrology.
C) establishing a reservoir.
D) increasing the transfer rate.
E) groundwater mining.
Q3) Which of the following does NOT add carbon to the atmosphere?
A) photosynthesis
B) burning fossil fuels
C) bicarbonate from aquatic systems
D) carbon dioxide produced by cellular respiration of plants
E) carbon dioxide produced by cellular respiration of animals
Q4) Explain the steps in the hydrological cycle.
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Chapter 36: Major Ecosystems of the Biosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Epiphytes are most closely associated with A) tropical rain forests.
B) tundra.
C) deserts.
D) deciduous forests.
E) temperate deciduous forests.
Q2) As the latitude increases,which biome sequence would be present?
A) tundra, coniferous forest, deciduous forest, tropical forest
B) tundra, deciduous forest, coniferous forest, tropical forest
C) tropical forest, deciduous forest, coniferous forest, tundra
D) tropical forest, coniferous forest, deciduous forest, tundra
E) tropical forest, deciduous forest, tundra, coniferous forest
Q3) A treeless region with little rainfall in the far north is the A) grassland.
B) tundra.
C) taiga.
D) chaparral.
E) desert.
Q4) Compare the mean annual temperature and precipitation ranges required for the following biomes: temperate deciduous forest,tropical rainforest,and tundra.
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Conservation Biology
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Q1) Rosy periwinkle,the nine-banded armadillo,and some species of fungus and bacteria are examples of _________ value drawn from biodiversity.
A) agricultural
B) medicinal
C) consumptive use
D) indirect
E) no
Q2) Ecosystems are based on complex interactions between communities.What are possible consequences from a disruption of these interactions?
A) Increases in pollution
B) Increases in biodiversity
C) Increases in extinctions
D) Decreases in pollution
E) Decreases in extinctions
Q3) Biodiversity hotspots are valuable because they contain large numbers of exotic species.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List and explain the five causes of extinction.
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