Course Introduction
Contemporary Biology
Exam Materials
Contemporary Biology offers an introduction to the fundamental concepts and current advancements in the biological sciences. The course explores key topics such as cell structure and function, genetics and heredity, evolution, biodiversity, ecology, and the impact of biotechnology on society. Students will examine real-world applications and contemporary issues, including human health, environmental challenges, and ethical considerations. Through a combination of lectures, discussions, and laboratory experiences, students gain an appreciation for the dynamic nature of biology and its relevance to everyday life and global challenges.
Recommended Textbook
LIFE 1st Edition by John H. Postlethwait
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25 Chapters
906 Verified Questions
906 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: What Is Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The units of inheritance are A)heredities.
B)evolutions. C)twins.
D)metabolic activities. E)genes.
Answer: E
Q2) The scientific name for the black-footed ferret is Mustela nigripes. The name Mustela indicates the ____________ to which this organism belongs.
A)class
B)family C)genus
D)phylum
E)species
Answer: C
Q3) List the units of the hierarchy of life in order from smallest to largest. Answer: biological molecules \(\rarr\) organelles \(\rarr\) cells \(\rarr\) tissues \(\rarr\) organs \(\rarr\)organ systems \(\rarr\) organism
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Chapter 2: Cells and the Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an atom, the electrons are
A)housed within the nucleus.
B)moving through the nucleus.
C)present in various energy shells.
D)usually at rest, but occasionally move.
E)positively charged.
Answer: C
Q2) This element is prominent in both living organisms and in the Earth's surface.
A)carbon
B)hydrogen
C)silicon
D)aluminum
E)oxygen
Answer: E
Q3) What differentiates various atoms?
Answer: Different atoms have differing numbers of subatomic particles. An oxygen atom, for example has 8 electrons and 8 protons, while a sodium atom has 11 electrons and 11 protons.
Q4) Most of a living organism (approximately 98%)is made up of what three elements?
Answer: carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen
Page 4
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Chapter 3: How Cells Take in and Use Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do you have to use an oven to transform batter into a cake?
Answer: The chemical reaction that occurs to transform batter into cake requires a certain amount of energy (the activation energy) in order to take place. The heat from the oven provides this necessary energy.
Q2) In photosynthesis, the light-dependent reactions
A)can take place day or night.
B)produce ADP and carbon dioxide.
C)are uncoupled from the light-independent reactions.
D)lead to carbon fixation.
E)produce ATP and energy stored in electron carriers.
Answer: E
Q3) Almost all enzymes are
A)carbohydrates.
B)proteins.
C)lipids.
D)nucleic acids.
E)amino acids.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: The Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an organism's diploid chromosome number is 18, how many different possible combinations of homologous chromosomes lining up during meiosis exist for the eggs or sperm produced by that organism?
A)9
B)18
C)36
D)128
E)512
Q2) Why are chemotherapy and radiation therapy more effective on cancerous cells than normal cells?
Q3) Match the following structures with the proper description.
13. __ centromers
14. __chromosomme
15. __ Kinetochore
16. __ chromatid
A. separate, duplicated structures composed of DNA visible under the microscope
B. a duplicated strand of DNA held to ts duplicate by a centromers
C. a proteinaceous bard holding duplicate copies of the genetic material
D. a structure that holds the sister chromatids to the spindle fibers
Q4) Describe the function of the mitotic spindle.
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Chapter 5: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tall corn plants (T)are dominant to dwarf plants (tt). Solid green leaves (G)are dominant to leaves with a white tip (gg). A cross between two corn plants yielded the following phenotypes: 51 tall plants with a white tip on their leaves; 43 dwarf plants with solid leaves; 48 dwarf plants with white tips on their leaves; 45 tall plants with solid leaves. What are the genotypes of the parents that produced these plants?
A)TtGg x TtGg
B)TtGg x Ttgg
C)ttGG x TTgg
D)TtGg x ttgg
E)None of the above
Q2) A young couple already has three children and is expecting a fourth. Through a genetic test, the couple finds out that each of them is a carrier for cystic fibrosis. Upon counseling, they are informed that there is a 1 in 4 chance of their unborn child having cystic fibrosis and a 1 in 2 chance that he/she will be a carrier. Describe how the genetic counselor was able to determine these probabilities. The husband deduces that the child will be born with cystic fibrosis because the other 3 children do not have it. Explain why this reasoning is faulty. How would you handle the situation?
Q3) Compare and contrast the blending and particulate models of heredity.
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Chapter 6: DNA: The Thread of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteriophages were used by Hershey and Chase to further elucidate our understanding of heredity. Why were bacteriophages used?
Q2) DNA evidence is sometimes used to address what legal issues? How reliable is DNA evidence in a court of law?
Q3) Hershey and Chase performed an experiment in which they used radioactive isotopes of phosphorus and sulfur to label different components of bacterial viruses. Their results clearly showed that
A)DNA was entering into the infected bacteria.
B)the viruses did not contain protein.
C)the viruses did not contain DNA.
D)protein was entering into the infected bacteria.
E)genetic material normally contains radioactive isotopes.
Q4) The bases are bonded to what part of the backbone of the DNA molecule?
A)the 1' carbon atom of the sugar molecule
B)the 2' carbon atom of the sugar molecule
C)the 3' carbon atom of the sugar molecule
D)the 4' carbon atom of the sugar molecule
E)the 5' carbon atom of the sugar molecule
Q5) Why is it important that DNA replication be so accurate but not perfect?
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Chapter 7: Genes, Proteins, and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the concept "the genetic code is almost universal." Why is it important?
Q2) The anticodon
A)is found on mRNA.
B)has the same sequence as the codon.
C)is a sequence found on DNA.
D)helps the ribosome begin translation.
E)helps bring in the correct amino acid to add to the growing polypeptide chain.
Q3) The AT3 protein that Harry Meade was working with.
A)is important to aid in clot formation.
B)has never been cloned.
C)can prevent blood clots from forming.
D)is found only in sheep.
E)is produced in the salivary glands.
Q4) What types of mutations are the most harmful, and why?
Q5) If a certain stretch of DNA reads ATTACGAG, what would the corresponding amino acid sequence be?
Q6) What enzymes are used to cut DNA molecules? How do they work?
Q7) First, give the amino acid sequence for the following DNA segment: AATCGAGGTACA. If a base substitution mutation occurred in this segment of DNA, would the resultant amino acid chain be affected?
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Chapter 8: Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sperm-producing cells are referred to as A)spermatocytes.
B)Sertoli cells.
C)interstitial cells.
D)seminiferous cells.
E)spermatogenic cells.
Q2) Name the male accessory sexual glands and characterize the organs and their secretions.
Q3) Which of the following chemicals plays a part in a man's erection?
A)carbon dioxide
B)carbon monoxide
C)nitric oxide
D)phosphoric acid
E)carbonic acid
Q4) Pregnancy begins with A)implantation.
B)blastocyst formation.
C)gastrulation.
D)conception.
E)formation of the amnion.
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Chapter 9: The Mechanisms of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Darwin's ideas on evolution were based on a number of observations. Among the most important observation was that
A)all the types of organisms that have lived on Earth are present today.
B)individuals within a population are all virtually identical to each other.
C)there is usually ample food and water for all populations.
D)when natural resources become scarce, competition occurs between members of the same species.
E)populations will only produce as many offspring as can be accommodated by the environment.
Q2) Reproductive isolating mechanisms
A)occur within a species.
B)can prevent members of the same species from reproducing.
C)only act after fertilization.
D)can prevent members of different species from interbreeding.
E)only act before fertilization.
Q3) List several types of fossils. Why are they more commonly found in sedimentary rock?
Q4) There are two types of genetic drift. Describe and give an example of the founder effect.
Q5) Explain the basic principle of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Lifes Origins and Biodiversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stanley Miller conducted a famous experiment in the 1950s. This experiment
A)tried to determine how evolution occurs.
B)mimicked the early Earth's atmosphere as we know it today.
C)showed that simple organic molecules came from outer space.
D)used sunlight as an energy source.
E)showed that some organic molecules could be formed from non-organic starting materials.
Q2) Since all organisms contain DNA (or RNA), how can DNA be used as a trait in studying phylogeny?
Q3) Contrast homologous and analogous traits, giving examples.
Q4) What level of biological classification is less inclusive than class?
A)domain
B)phylum
C)kingdom
D)order
E)division
Q5) In many areas of the world, humans are destroying habitats at an alarming rate. Why is habitat destruction so dangerous?
Q6) Compare the first forms of photosynthesis to evolve with the form used by green plants today.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Single-Celled Life
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Q1) Scientists think diplomonads and amoeboflagellates are primitive and that their characteristics are similar to those of the first eukaryotic cells. What does this tell you about what the first eukaryotes were like and what kind of environment they might have inhabited?
Q2) Cyanobacteria play a tremendous ecological role. Among other things, they are responsible for
A)removing tons of oxygen from the atmosphere.
B)converting nitrogen in the soil to nitrogen gas.
C)providing usable forms of carbon and nitrogen for other organisms.
D)killing harmful bacteria in soil.
E)producing many antibiotics.
Q3) In bacteria, the cell wall is composed mainly of
A)peptidoglycans.
B)lipids.
C)glycoproteins.
D)proteins.
E)various polysaccharides.
Q4) Discuss how the world might be different without bacteria.
Q5) Why are infections caused by viruses so much more difficult to treat or cure than those caused by bacteria?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Fungi and Plants: Decomposers and Producers
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Q1) Bryophytes differ from other land plants in that they do not have
A)lignified water transport tissue.
B)protected sporophyte embryos. C)spores.
D)a gametophyte generation.
E)a diploid generation.
Q2) The major causes of plant diseases are A)protozoa. B)viruses.
C)bacteria.
D)worms.
E)fungi.
Q3) In fungi, a fruiting body is involved in A)protection from drought and heat. B)protection from cold.
C)reproduction. D)digestion.
E)interactions with plants.
Q4) Conifers have been very successful members of the gymnosperms. What are some of the adaptations that have contributed to their success?
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Chapter 13: The Evolution and Diversity of Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) In sponges, the choanocytes or collar cells
A)are found scattered throughout the sponge body.
B)act in obtaining food for the sponge.
C)allow exit of water from the sponge.
D)produce spicules made of silica or calcium carbonate.
E)give rise to gametes.
Q2) What role has cultural evolution played in human success? What, if any, biological adaptations support this use of culture?
Q3) Sponges are very interesting animals. Although they do not have true tissues, they have a number of cooperating cell types. How do these different cell types cooperate in obtaining nutrients for the sponge?
Q4) Mammals have two traits that set them apart from all other animals. These are
A)body hair or fur, and being homeothermic.
B)amniotic eggs and milk production.
C)four-chambered heart and milk production.
D)body hair or fur, and milk production.
E)four-chambered heart and body hair or fur.
Q5) One major innovation in animal body plan was the development of the coelom. Describe the role of the coelom.
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Chapter 14: Ecology of Populations and Communities
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a population reaches its carrying capacity, A)more individuals will die than are born.
B)a large number of individual organisms will leave the population.
C)no more deaths or births can take place.
D)there is usually one or more factors limiting increased population growth.
E)new sources of nutrition must be found or the population will crash.
Q2) Species that determine the structure of communities are called A)climax.
B)keystone.
C)transitional.
D)crucial. E)pioneer.
Q3) Describe the second phase of the growth of the human population.
Q4) Do predators control prey? Or do prey control predator populations? Explain your answer.
Q5) Both low birth and death rates characterize the demographic transition. Which factors will lower birth and death rates for twenty-first century Homo sapiens?
Q6) Prey organisms use varied strategies to try to avoid being eaten. List some of these strategies.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Ecosystems and the Biosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) This compound is capable of destroying ozone molecules.
A)carbon dioxide
B)methane
C)water vapor
D)chlorofluorocarbon
E)nitrous oxide
Q2) The term biome refers to
A)the animals present in a given area.
B)the interaction of living organisms and the physical environment in a region.
C)large regions with distinctive plant communities.
D)all the living organisms in an area.
E)only the bacteria in a region.
Q3) Which trophic level usually contains more energy than any other trophic level in an ecosystem?
A)producers
B)primary consumers
C)secondary consumers
D)tertiary consumers
E)This answer has not been determined for most ecosystems.
Q4) Explain an impact of human development on the water cycle.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Body Function, Survival, and the Steady State
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Sample Questions
Q1) ADH is also called vasopressin. What functions of vasopressin make this an appropriate name for this hormone?
Q2) A person suffers injury in a car accident, loses a serious amount of blood, and is in danger of going into shock from low blood pressure. Discuss what effect such an injury would have on the production of ADH, aldosterone, atrial natriuretic factor, angiotensin, and erythropoietin.
Q3) When cells metabolize protein, ammonia is formed. An example of an animal that directly excretes ammonia without further modification is a A)fish.
B)bird.
C)snake.
D)turtle.
E)human.
Q4) What are the three types of muscle, and where are they found?
Q5) Both marine fish and marine mammals have body fluids with a lower salt concentration. However, unlike fish, marine mammals do not drink seawater, although they do swallow some with their food. How are marine mammals able to maintain their internal supply of water?
Q6) Describe the problem a marine fish has with water balance.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Circulation and Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Only ______ have a lung designed so that air can flow through them in one direction.
A)a few fish
B)amphibians
C)birds
D)mammals
E)insects
Q2) Respiration is controlled by sensors and effectors in the brain and carotid arteries that respond to a rise in ______ by ______ the rate of breathing.
A)O<sub>2</sub>; decreasing B)O<sub>2</sub>;increasing C)CO<sub>2</sub>;decreasing D)CO<sub>2</sub>;increasing E)NO; decreasing
Q3) In insects, oxygen passes from the ______ to the tissues.
A)cuticle of the epidermis to the blood
B)tracheae directly
C)tracheae to the blood
D)lungs to the blood
E)gills to the blood
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