Contemporary Biology Exam Bank
Course
Introduction
Contemporary Biology is an engaging exploration of the major concepts, principles, and trends that shape the modern biological sciences. This course examines fundamental processes such as cellular structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life, while also delving into current research, biotechnological advances, and the societal implications of biological discoveries. Students gain a comprehensive understanding of how biological knowledge is developed and applied, emphasizing scientific inquiry, critical thinking, and the dynamic nature of biology in addressing real-world challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Discover Biology 6th Core Edition by Anu Singh
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25 Chapters
2110 Verified Questions
2110 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A group of organisms can develop new characteristics over time through the process of ________.
Answer: evolution
Q2) To survive,living organisms must be able to sense and respond to both their internal and external ________.
Answer: environments
Q3) Scientists can propose testable predictions after first developing a(n)________.
Answer: hypothesis
Q4) Charles Darwin introduced the concept of adaptation,which he defined as features that
A) help organisms survive and reproduce.
B) enable organisms to resist the pressures of evolutionary change.
C) enable organisms to change their environment in ways that best ensure continued survival.
D) enable organisms to alter their DNA in a selective fashion.
Answer: A
Q5) Because the California sea lions that live along the Pacific Coast freely migrate and regularly interbreed with one another,biologists classify this group as a ________.
Answer: population
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) When you place a piece of red meat on a hot barbeque,it slowly changes from soft to firm.Meat is primarily made of proteins.Which of the following might account for the change in texture during cooking?
A) The heat causes the cells in the meat to produce more protein.
B) The heat causes chemical bonds to form between the proteins and nucleic acids in the meat.
C) The heat from the barbeque converts proteins into lipids.
D) The addition of heat causes proteins to denature and link together. Answer: D
Q2) A solution with a pH of 7 is neither acidic nor basic. A)True B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Molecules with an uneven distribution of charge are described as ________. Answer: polar
Q4) Lipids with a four-ring structure are called ________. Answer: sterols
Q5) A group of monomers bonded together form a ________. Answer: polymer
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Q1) The entire contents of a cell,except for the nucleus,are included in the ________.
Answer: cytoplasm
Q2) All of the energy in the food we eat is produced when organelles in plants called ________ convert the energy in sunlight to chemical energy.
Answer: chloroplasts
Q3) You are an astronaut and have discovered an alien photosynthetic organism.It has organelles that are responsible for photosynthesis; these organelles appear to work in much the same way as the chloroplasts in plants on Earth.The only difference is that they are red.Which color of light is NOT likely to drive photosynthesis in these alien organelles?
A) green
B) blue
C) red
D) violet
Answer: C
Q4) Organisms whose cells lack internal,membrane-bound organelles are classified as
Answer: prokaryotes
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Chapter 4: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) A white blood cell at the site of a puncture wound engulfs a large cluster of bacteria forming a large internal vesicle.This is an example of A) exocytosis.
B) pinocytosis.
C) receptor-mediated endocytosis.
D) phagocytosis.
Q2) Cell surface receptors of chemical messages are made of A) protein.
B) DNA.
C) lipids.
D) sugars.
Q3) Active carrier proteins are not found in the same cells as passive carrier proteins. A)True B)False
Q4) The passive movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane is called
Q5) The concentration of solutes is higher within the mitochondria than it is in the cytosol.Therefore,the cytosol is ________ to the inside of the mitochondrion.
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Chapter 5: Energy, Metabolism, and Enzymes
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Q1) Heat speeds up chemical reactions by
A) causing the cell to produce enzymes that lower the activation energy of the reactions.
B) decreasing the amount of oxygen available for redox reactions.
C) inhibiting catabolic reactions and promoting anabolic reactions.
D) causing reactants to collide more often.
Q2) In accordance with the first law of thermodynamics,the energy in a gallon of gas consumed in a mileage test is equal to the A) amount of work performed (a calculation based on miles traveled and the weight of the vehicle).
B) amount of work performed plus the heat created from the friction of moving parts.
C) amount of work performed plus the heat from friction, plus the heat of the exhaust from the motor.
D) amount of work performed plus heat from friction, plus heat from the exhaust, plus the potential energy of combustion products in the exhaust.
Q3) Almost all the chemical reactions that occur in cells are catalyzed by ________.
Q4) A rotted log exemplifies the operation of the ________ law of thermodynamics.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Photo Synthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) The electron transport chains (ETCs)in the chloroplasts and the mitochondria gradually lower the energy content of an electron as it passes from carrier to carrier.This process is similar to the reduction in the energy content of a A) cannonball that reaches the high point of its flight and then returns to the ground. B) bowling ball bouncing down a flight of stairs and landing temporarily on each step. C) pair of sunglasses that intercepts ultraviolet radiation before it reaches our eyes. D) newly baked pie cooling on the counter before it can be cut and eaten.
Q2) Most people respond to a prolonged stay at high altitude by producing more hemoglobin,producing more and larger red blood cells,or both.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The energy source that makes oxidative phosphorylation possible comes from A) phosphate group transfers from ATP.
B) electrons that are transferred from NADPH.
C) electrons that are transferred from NADH.
D) electrons that are removed from CO during its oxidation.
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Chapter 7: Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a drug that inhibits the formation of microtubules is added to a culture of cells during the G phase,how would the cell division be affected?
A) Cytokinesis would occur more rapidly.
B) The nuclear envelope would be unable to break down.
C) DNA synthesis would not occur.
D) The spindle apparatus would be unable to form.
Q2) When appropriately prompted,diploid individuals of Ulva prolifera form spores that germinate to become haploid individuals.What is the most likely mechanism by which diploid individuals could be created to complete the life cycle?
A) Haploid individuals meiotically produce egg cells and sperm cells, which subsequently fuse.
B) Some haploid individuals undergo multiple rounds of mitosis without cytokinesis, followed by nuclear fusion.
C) Some of these individuals differentiate to become haploid gametes and then fuse to produce a diploid zygote.
D) Haploid individuals undergo two sequential S phases in their cell cycle to reestablish the diploid state.
Q3) Sister chromatids are held together at a constriction point called a ________.
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Chapter 8: Cancer and Human Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Breast cancer that is not inherited is caused by ________ mutations.
Q2) A benign growth is noncancerous.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The binding of a growth factor to a receptor protein on the surface of a cell results in signal transduction that affects gene expression in the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mutations cause only a few types of cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Normal cell division requires ________ proto-oncogenes and ________ tumor suppressor genes.
A) inactivated; activated
B) inactivated; inactivated
C) activated; activated
D) activated; inactivated
Q6) Cancer-causing chemicals increase the risk of cancer by promoting ________ in the DNA,causing changes in the DNA base sequences.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) By observing the offspring in a series of pea-breeding experiments,Gregor Mendel deduced the laws of ________.
Q2) One of the first medical tests a newborn receives determines if the child has phenylketonuria (PKU).PKU is the result of a mutation in a single gene that causes mental retardation and a host of other phenotypes (light hair and skin color,eczema,and a "mousy" smell).By detecting PKU early,doctors are able to reduce the effect of this condition with a modified diet.PKU is an example of
A) epistasis.
B) a polygenic trait.
C) pleiotropy.
D) codominance.
Q3) In a genetic cross of Gg with Gg guinea pigs,none of the four offspring were gg.This outcome
A) disproves Mendel's law of independent assortment.
B) neither supports nor disproves Mendel's law of independent assortment.
C) supports Mendel's law of independent assortment.
D) supports Mendel's law of segregation.
Q4) The I and I alleles involved in human blood type differ in that they attach different ________ to the surface of red blood cells.
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Chapter 10: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chance that any two siblings will be genetically identical is astronomically small. A)True
B)False
Q2) Males with a recessive X-linked allele that causes a disorder do not always show symptoms because they can also carry a dominant allele on their Y chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Human males have one chromosome that females do not,known as the ________ chromosome.
Q4) Chromosomes that are NOT involved in determining gender are known as A) autosomes.
B) sex chromosomes.
C) homologous.
D) linked.
Q5) A chart that shows genetic relationships within a family over several generations is called a ________.
Q6) Two chromosomes that have the same set of genes,but perhaps different versions of those genes,are called ________ chromosomes.
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Chapter 11: DNA and Genes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The difference between the different alleles of a gene is
A) their DNA base sequences.
B) the way they are copied when the cell divides.
C) the type of lipid they are composed of.
D) not heritable.
Q2) A segment of DNA is present in a gene,is transcribed,but is not used in translation.This segment of DNA is a(an)
A) intron.
B) transposon.
C) spacer DNA.
D) exon.
Q3) If one strand of DNA has the sequence CGATT,the sequence of the other strand of the same molecule will be
A) CGATT.
B) GCTUU.
C) TACGG.
D) GCTAA.
Q4) DNA is tightly packed around protein spools known as ________.
Q5) The genome of a prokaryote rarely contains ________ DNA sequences that do not undergo transcription.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: From Gene to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) For translation to begin,mRNA must first bind to a ________.
Q2) Translation,a process carried out by the ribosomes,occurs in the cell ________.
Q3) Some tRNAs can recognize more than one codon because the base at the third position of their anticodon can pair with any one of two or three different bases in the codon; this phenomenon is called ________.
Q4) If a eukaryotic protein is to function properly,the initial mRNA carrying the code for its structure must be processed to remove its ________.Then,before translation occurs,the joining together of the remaining sequences of mRNA,the ________,must be accomplished.
Q5) The series of bases in mRNA that can specify a single amino acid is called a(n)________.
Q6) A tRNA molecule produced in a laboratory has the anticodon for the amino acid serine,but carries the amino acid leucine.When it reaches the serine codon on a molecule of mRNA where translation is under way,what is the most likely outcome?
A) It will not bind with the codon on the mRNA molecule.
B) A potentially dysfunctional protein will result.
C) A proofreading enzyme will change leucine to serine.
D) Translation will stop.
Q7) Most molecules of RNA are ________-stranded.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: DNA Technology
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Q1) A DNA fingerprint is also called a DNA ________.
Q2) The immune disorder adenosine deaminase (ADA)deficiency is the result of a mutation in one gene.How could gene therapy be used to treat this disorder?
A) Red blood cells could be induced to produce the protein encoded by the mutated ADA gene.
B) Cells containing a corrected ADA gene could be injected into patients with ADA.
C) The patients could swallow synthetic blood cells.
D) Patients could be injected with a hybrid molecule made of the DNA and RNA of the normal ADA gene.
Q3) Genetic engineering works only on animals and has not yet been successfully used on plants.
A)True
B)False
Q4) DNA fingerprinting can prove guilt without fail.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The FBI produces DNA fingerprints from 13 STRs using ________ based amplification.
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Chapter 14: How Evolution Works
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Sample Questions
Q1) The number of different types of organisms found on Earth is primarily a result of A) continental drift.
B) Darwin's theories.
C) natural selection and speciation.
D) common descent.
Q2) ________ are the preserved remains of formerly living organisms.
Q3) Biological evolution can be defined as
A) the process of direct observation.
B) adaptations to common descent.
C) the unchanging nature of life on Earth.
D) the change in allele frequencies in a population's gene pool over time.
Q4) The term sexual dimorphism refers to a species in which A) the population consists of males and females.
B) males produce sperm and females produce ova.
C) the males and females differ in distinct anatomical ways, such as body size, coloration, or plumage.
D) natural selection produces a higher prereproduction mortality rate for one gender.
Q5) Plate tectonics causes the ________ of Earth's landmasses over geologic time.
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Chapter 15: The Origin of Species
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of reproductive isolation?
A) Male deer with large branching antlers are more likely to mate.
B) A blue lizard washes away from a population of mostly green lizards during a hurricane and ends up on an island containing no other lizards to mate with.
C) One population of frogs mates in the deep water of a pond and another population of frogs mates on the shore of the same pond.
D) One individual from a population of fruit flies from an apple orchard is blown by heavy winds into another orchard where it mates with a different population of fruit flies.
Q2) Today's diversity of mammals originated with an adaptive radiation that occurred 65 million years ago.This adaptive radiation occurred because A) ecological niches were opened up and predators were removed.
B) the evolution of a novel trait that gave the animals an advantage.
C) the ancestral species colonized a new continent.
D) increased competition led to rapid natural selection.
Q3) Speciation as a result of geographic isolation generally occurs at a ________ rate than speciation as a result of polyploidy.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: The Evolution of Biodiversity
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Q1) The human and chimpanzee genomes are approximately 98% similar; thus,the 2% of genes that are different accounts for all of the differences between the two organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Many organisms decompose rapidly after death; some organisms have had soft bodies and some areas where organisms died have undergone massive geologic changes.For these reasons,the ____________________ record is incomplete.
Q3) The morphological and genetic similarities that reflect the evolutionary histories of the organisms being studied by scientists are used to construct evolutionary trees that illustrate the patterns of species evolution.The field within which such studies are conducted is called ___________
Q4) The Cambrian explosion ___________.
A) caused a lack of air in Earth's atmosphere
B) was caused by an increase in volcanic activity
C) was volcanic in nature
D) increased the diversity of animal life on Earth
Q5) A group of orders is called a(n)____________.
Q6) The first single-celled organisms arose 3.5 ____________________ years ago.
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Chapter 17: Biological Diversity, Bacteria, and Archaea
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Q1) Protists are part of the domain Bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bacteria,protists,and fungi belong to the domain Archaea.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements about the human intestinal microbiome is correct?
A) The diversity of bacteria present can affect human health.
B) Diet does not seem to affect the diversity of gut bacteria.
C) Intestinal microbiomes are made up of only a few species of bacteria.
D) The makeup of a person's intestinal microbiome is always the same from birth to death.
Q4) In addition to the Bacteria,which other kingdom is composed exclusively of prokaryotic organisms?
A) Archaea
B) Fungi
C) Protista
D) Plantae
Q5) Prokaryotes able to live in unusually cold conditions are ________.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Protista, Plantae, and Fungi
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Q1) Despite their classification as protists,the evolutionary tree suggests that amoebas and the green algae are more closely related to animals and plants,respectively,than one another.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Mature pteridophytes can be transplanted to many different habitats,but natural reproduction in this group is limited to moist environments such as forests because these organisms
A) lack true vascular tissue.
B) are unable to produce seeds.
C) have flagellated sperm that must swim to the female reproductive structures.
D) release their zygotes as zoospores rather than experiencing the embryonic development typical of the more advanced plants.
Q3) Non-human species throughout the world are imperiled by habitat loss,climate change,and introduced species,but the greatest threat to biodiversity and the immediate cause of each specific problem,is the rate of human population ________.
Q4) The defining feature of the angiosperms is the ________.
Q5) Most protists are motile,using cilia,flagella,or ________ for propulsion.
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Chapter 19: Animalia
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Q1) Ctenophores can be distinguished from cnidarians because they do not possess a complete digestive system,while cnidarians do.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The vertebrates,which include organisms such as humans,birds,and frogs,illustrate that very different forms can evolve from one basic body plan.The observation that these diverse organisms share a general body plan supports the hypothesis that A) they may simply be different variations of the same species.
B) evolution discovers and produces the most useful features for a given point in time.
C) they form a coherent lineage that began with a common ancestor.
D) highly adaptive traits have a high probability of evolving independently within otherwise unrelated groups.
Q3) The similarity in the cell-adhesion proteins seen in many animal embryos and the colonial choanoflagellates is most reasonably explained as a shared trait and indicates kinship with that group of protists.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: The Biosphere
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Q1) The seafloor drops sharply to a depth of about 6,000 meters where the ________ ends.
Q2) Relatively little precipitation falls on the side of a mountain that faces away from prevailing winds because of the ________ effect.
Q3) Climate is defined as the prevailing weather conditions in an area over a time period of decades.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The plastics involved in marine pollution undergo ________in which ultraviolet light from the sun breaks the plastic into tiny pieces.
Q5) The biosphere is considered to consist of all living things and the physical environments where they live.To more conveniently characterize it,the biosphere is subdivided into
A) ecosystems.
B) biomes.
C) populations.
D) habitats.
Q6) Introduced species that become serious pests are often called ________ species.
Q7) A ________ is a wetland dominated by trees and shrubs.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Growth of Populations
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Q1) Although it happened long ago,the story of Easter Island should be of concern to modern man; in some ways,the Earth is like an island-all of its resources are confined by a boundary as significant as a shoreline.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The carrying capacity of owls in an Alaskan forest is 8 per square kilometer.What will happen if 12 owls are confined to a 1-square-kilometer area?
A) The owls will survive together and develop ways to share resources.
B) The owls might survive as malnourished adults, but the next generation will have no more than eight individuals.
C) The population of owl prey organisms will increase proportionately.
D) A short-term exponential growth of owls will occur.
Q3) Pollution is one of the many density-dependent factors that can limit population growth.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A group of interacting individuals of the same species living within the same area comprises a(n)________.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Animal Behavior
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Q1) For some species,aiding in the rearing of siblings in a group rather than reproducing on one's own is the best way to ensure that an individual's genes are passed on to the next generation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An advertisement that uses images of pizza takes advantage of ________ that plays a large role in purchasing decisions.
A) a fixed behavior
B) a learned response
C) the imprinting
D) the sensation of hunger, rather than a learned behavior
Q3) If both identical twins who were raised apart exhibit the same behavior,
A) it is most likely due to environmental influences.
B) the behavior is most likely a learned behavior.
C) the behavior is altruistic.
D) it is most likely due to genetic influences.
Q4) ________ is a highly advanced form of communication found in humans.
Q5) A(n)________ is an action made by one organism in response to other organisms or to the physical environment.
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Chapter 23: Ecological Communities
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Q1) Cowbirds lay their eggs in the nests of smaller birds.The fast-developing cowbird chicks hatch first,and push the other baby chicks out of the nest as they hatch.Which interaction best describes cowbird behavior?
A) mutualism
B) parasitism
C) predation
D) exploitative competition
Q2) Parasites,and the disease they cause,represent a distinctive type of exploitation because
A) of the high mortality rates associated with infection.
B) parasites affect only specific portions of the host.
C) of the chronic and progressive debilitation of the host.
D) parasites represent the only species interaction where the symbiont lives on or in the host organism.
Q3) Mutualistic relationships can have an effect on the distribution and abundance of the species involved.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Ecosystems
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Q1) Humans have harmed hemlock populations by
A) mining nutrients from the soil.
B) fertilizer runoff from fields.
C) logging hemlock groves.
D) factories producing components for acid rain.
Q2) Once an organic molecule enters a metabolic pathway,a significant percentage of its energy
A) can be recycled through the ecosystem.
B) will be recovered and used by decomposers.
C) is lost as unrecoverable heat.
D) enters the nutrient cycle.
Q3) In an ecosystem,energy differs from nutrients in that
A) energy is recycled through photosynthesis, but nutrients are recycled through the atmosphere.
B) nutrients are recycled, but energy eventually moves out of the system and is lost.
C) nutrients are recycled through plant roots, but energy is recycled through leaves.
D) energy is recycled by producers, but nutrients are recycled by consumers.
Q4) Eventually,all biomass produced by any organism is consumed by ________.
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Chapter 25: Global Change
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Q1) Phytoplankton are ecologically important because they A) are bioindicators of the amount of ice in the polar bear's ecosystem.
B) contribute to atmospheric oxygen through photosynthesis.
C) absorb acid to prevent ocean acidification.
D) are an important source of vitamins for polar bears.
Q2) About 50 percent of the human population lives near ________ ecosystems.
Q3) Even without the melting of polar ice,global warming is causing sea levels to rise because warm water expands.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ample evidence now demonstrates that human activities are strongly associated with global warming.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Rainfall patterns around the world have changed because of A) biomagnification.
B) ocean acidification.
C) global warming.
D) land transformation.
Q6) Humans are changing the way many chemicals ________ through ecosystems.
Page 27
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