Course Introduction
Contemporary Biology
Chapter Exam Questions
Contemporary Biology explores the fundamental principles and current advances in the field of biology, emphasizing the relevance of biological concepts in today's world. This course covers key topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the impacts of biotechnology and environmental issues. Through critical analysis of case studies, current research, and emerging technologies, students develop an understanding of how biology shapes modern society, informs public policy, and addresses global challenges like disease, climate change, and biodiversity conservation.
Recommended Textbook
Scientific American Biology for a Changing World 2nd Edition by Michele Shuster
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Process of Science Java Report
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why can't science answer questions about the existence of a supernatural being?
Answer: Science requires a hypothesis that is testable and falsifiable.There is no way to test the existence of a supernatural being,nor is it possible to prove that something does not exist.
Q2) Why do some media reports about scientific discoveries end up being exaggerations?
A) Findings can be misunderstood and misinterpreted.
B) Some studies are not done using the proper controls or scientific method, so they are unreliable; however, journalists often do not realize the distinction.
C) Media reports can come from sources that are not peer reviewed.
D) Media agencies may sensationalize news to draw more attention.
E) All of the above.
Answer: E
Q3) Which group is the experimental group and which is the control group?
Answer: Group 1 is the experimental group; group 2 is the control group.
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Chapter 2: Chemistry and Molecules of Life Mission to Mars
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Sample Questions
Q1) The six most abundant elements in the human body,listed from most common to least common (highest percentage to lowest percentage),are
Answer: oxygen,carbon,hydrogen,nitrogen,calcium,and phosphorus.
Q2) An element's identity is defined by its A) protons. B) neutrons. C) electrons. D) protons and neutrons. E) protons and electrons.
Answer: A
Q3) Why doesn't oil dissolve in water?
Answer: Water only dissolves molecules with charges or that are polar; therefore,oil is electrically neutral and nonpolar.Or,oil is hydrophobic.
Q4) The four elements that make up most of your body are
Answer: carbon,hydrogen,oxygen,and nitrogen.
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Chapter 3: Cell Function and Structure Wonder Drug
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proteins that move large or hydrophilic molecules across a cell membrane are called ____ proteins.
A) transfer
B) osmotic
C) integral
D) transport
E) diffusion
Answer: D
Q2) Peptidoglycan is made of A)lipids. B)sugars.
C)amino acids.
D)A and B but not C.
E)B and C but not A.
Answer: E
Q3) The exterior surface of the bilayer in a cell membrane is hydro-_____.
Answer: philic
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Chapter 4: Nutrition,metabolism,enzymes the Peanut Butter Project
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a cofactor?
Q2) Most of our body's ____ is stored in the skeleton.
A) calcium
B) proteins
C) carbohydrates
D) iron
E) oxygen
Q3) Photosynthesis builds glucose molecules from carbon dioxide.What type of metabolic reaction is this?
Q4) Specialized proteins called ____ help break your food down into smaller chemical units.
A) amino acids
B) nitrogenous bases
C) enzymes
D) corticosteroids
E) digestizymes
Q5) Explain the difference between essential and non-essential amino acids in the human diet.
Q6) Why are vegetarians often advised to consume legumes?
Q7) Describe the metabolic route of a protein molecule that is consumed by a human. Page 6
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Chapter 5: Energy Flow and Photosynthesis the Future of Fuel
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Sample Questions
Q1) The O<sub>2</sub> released during photosynthesis comes from splitting
A) glucose.
B) H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>.
C) water.
D) CO<sub>2</sub>.
E) ATP.
Q2) The main energy currency of the cell (the molecule used to fuel the cell)is
A) ATP.
B) cyclic AMP.
C) GNP.
D) ADP.
E) DNA.
Q3) Which of the following places the sources of energy used by the United States in order from most used to least used?
A) coal nuclear hydroelectric petroleum
B) coal petroleum hydroelectric nuclear
C) petroleum coal nuclear hydroelectric
D) petroleum coal hydroelectric nuclear
E) nuclear petroleum hydroelectric coal
Q4) What is the simplified equation for photosynthesis?
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Chapter 6: Dietary Energy and Cellular Respiration
Supersize Me
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Sample Questions
Q1) You decide to go on a fad diet consisting of protein shakes that contain 50 grams of protein and 15 grams of carbohydrates per shake.Your target is 1300 Calories/day.How many shakes will you drink each day? Explain.
Q2) ______ is considered short-term energy storage and ______ is long-term energy storage in humans.
A) Glycogen; starch
B) Starch; fat
C) Glycogen; fat
D) Fat; glycogen
E) Glycogen; sugar
Q3) One Calorie equals
A) 1000 calories.
B) 1 kilocalorie.
C) a unit of energy.
D) 1 kcal.
E) All of the above.
Q4) Compare and contrast saturated and unsaturated fats with respect to their sources (plant or animal),which is solid and which is liquid at room temperature,and which is better for your health.
9
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Chapter 7: DNA Structure and Replication Biologically
Unique
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Sample Questions
Q1) A parent gives half their DNA to their child.This means that when 10 STRs are studied,at least _____ bands will be identical on a gel comparing one parent and child.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 20
D) more than 20
E) 5 but no more than 10
Q2) Do you think STRs could be used to prove paternity? How?
Q3) Which is the best description of how nucleotides are attached to make DNA? Nucleotides are attached to each other ________.
A) phosphate to phosphate
B) sugar to sugar
C) phosphate to sugar
D) base to base
E) base to phosphate
Q4) You have DNA samples isolated from three separate locations at a crime scene.You have amplified the DNA and run it through CODIS and have no matches.What are your next steps?
Q5) What is "junk DNA"? What important use do scientists have for "junk DNA"?
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Chapter 8: Genes to Proteins Medicine From Milk
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is FALSE?
A) Some proteins contain more than one amino acid chain.
B) A protein's function can be altered by just one amino acid change.
C) The side chains of amino acids are responsible for protein folding.
D) All proteins begin with the amino acid methionine.
E) All proteins fold into the same basic three-dimensional shape.
Q2) Each gene carries the instructions to make _______.
Q3) If a gene is activated,what is being produced?
A) DNA
B) protein
C) amino acids
D) chromosomes
E) cells
Q4) The cellular machines that make proteins are called
A) vesicles.
B) lysosomes.
C) ribosomes.
D) Golgi bodies.
E) enzymes.
Q5) How does the sequence of amino acids in a protein influence the way it folds?
Page 11
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Chapter 9: Cell Division and Mitosis Natures Pharmacy
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Sample Questions
Q1) In drawings of chromosomes,the "X" shape indicates that A) the DNA has been replicated.
B) two sister chromatids exist.
C) cell division hasn't yet occurred.
D) the cell is probably ready for mitosis.
E) All of the above.
Q2) Define apoptosis.Why is apoptosis important?
Q3) Sister chromatids are NOT present during A) interphase.
B) DNA replication.
C) the cell cycle.
D) G1 stage of cell cycle.
E) S phase of cell cycle.
Q4) If you cut yourself,the damaged cells are A) sloughed off.
B) repaired by surrounding cells.
C) replaced by surrounding cells.
D) repaired by your immune system.
E) All the above.
Q5) Why would a chromosome decondense following mitosis?
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Chapter 10: Mutations and Cancer Fighting Fate
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Sample Questions
Q1) How can a person acquire mutations in their DNA?
A) inheritance
B) carcinogens
C) replication errors
D) mutagens
E) All of the above.
Q2) How does a mutation in a noncoding region of DNA affect the final shape of the protein?
A) A mutation in a noncoding region would not affect the final protein shape, but it could affect gene regulation.
B) A change in the noncoding region leads to a change in amino acid sequence, which changes the way the protein folds.
C) A change in the amino acid sequence causes the DNA to pair incorrectly.
D) A change in the noncoding region causes the protein to fold "inside out."
E) None of the above.
Q3) Explain the effect of environmental mutagens in determining whether a woman with a mutation in one of her BRCA genes will actually get cancer.
Q4) Explain the difference between an oncogene and a proto-oncogene.How is this related to cancer?
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Chapter 11: Single-Gene Inheritance and Meiosis Rock for a Cause
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Sample Questions
Q1) A human female has how many pairs of homologous chromosomes?
A) 46
B) 44
C) 22
D) 23
E) 48
Q2) Two people with Huntington disease,an autosomal dominant disorder,have a son.What are the chances he will get the disease? (Draw a Punnett square to help you determine the answer.)
A) 1:4 chance
B) 2:4 chance
C) 3:4 chance
D) 4:4 chance
E) less than 1:4
Q3) The ability to roll your tongue into a U-shape is a recessively inherited trait.What are all the possible parental combinations that would produce a child heterozygous for this trait? List the parental combinations as [Parent 1 genotype] × [Parent 2 genotype].Use the letters "R" and "r" to designate dominant and recessive alleles,respectively.As an example,note that "RR × rr" is equivalent to "rr ×RR"; thus,you only need to list one,not both.
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Complex Inheritance Qa: Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following human chromosomes usually does NOT exchange DNA during meiosis?
A) X chromosome
B) Y chromosome
C) chromosome 1
D) chromosome 12
E) chromosome 17
Q2) Which of the following is not an X-linked trait?
A) cystic fibrosis
B) color-blindness
C) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
D) hemophilia
Q3) Explain why the incidence of aneuploidy increases as a woman's age increases.
Q4) The term autosome refers to
A) all chromosomes, including the X and Y.
B) all chromosomes, except the X and Y.
C) all chromosomes, including the X but not the Y.
D) all chromosomes, including the Y but not the X.
E) only the X and Y chromosomes.
Q5) Briefly explain the significance of the SRY gene.What phenotype(s)does it cause?
Page 15
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Chapter 13: Stem Cells and Cell Differentiation Grow Your
Own
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Q1) Reproductive and therapeutic cloning differ because
A) Reproductive cloning uses two egg cells, while therapeutic cloning involves only one egg cell.
B) therapeutic cloning uses two egg cells, while reproductive cloning involves only one egg cell.
C) both methods involve implantation into a uterus for cell division, but in therapeutic cloning, the cell mass is removed from the uterus.
D) reproductive cloning involves implantation of the egg cell into a uterus, while therapeutic cloning is carried out in a laboratory.
E) reproductive cloning has never been successful on any organism, while therapeutic cloning has had great success.
Q2) When growing a replacement organ,what is the next step in the process after the doctor takes a biopsy of a patient's organ?
A) give the patient antirejection drugs
B) replace the diseased tissue with the new cells
C) grow the isolated cells on a scaffold
D) isolate and grow the stem cells from the organ
E) None of the above.
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Chapter 14: Natural Selection and Adaptation Bugs That Resist Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Staphylococcus aureus can cause
A) boils.
B) sores.
C) pimples.
D) death.
E) All of the above.
Q2) Which of the following is TRUE of bacterial reproduction?
A) The daughter cells are identical to the parent cell.
B) One cell divides to produce four cells.
C) Reproduction is sexual and thus allows for genetic diversity in the new cells.
D) It takes 24 hours for a bacterial population to double in size.
E) Bacterial reproduction is called binary fusion.
Q3) If bacterial cells can divide every 20 minutes,how many bacteria will be present after 2 hours if the starting population is 100 cells?
A) 700
B) 1200
C) 1300
D) 3200
E) 6400
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Chapter 15: A: Nonadaptive Evolution and Speciation Urban
Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is genetic diversity important for the survival of a species?
Q2) You are a geneticist studying the population genetics of barn swallows.You are particularly interested in one gene,and upon examining the 100 alleles present in 50 individuals,you find that one allele is quite common,accounting for 30 of those alleles.The allelic frequency of this allele is
A) 0.3.
B) 0.5.
C) 0.6.
D) 2.0.
E) 3.3.
Q3) An extremely harsh winter causes the death of 75% of an endangered antelope population.When considering the future survival of this population,which of the following is a concern for scientists?
A) genetic drift
B) reduced allelic diversity
C) the ability of this population to exchange genes with neighboring populations
D) inbreeding depression among survivors
E) All of the above.
Q4) Why is inbreeding likely to limit the ability of a population to survive?
Page 18
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Chapter 15: B: Nonadaptive Evolution and Speciation Urban
Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are scientists concerned about the possible extinction of cheetahs more than they are concerned about the possible extinction of several similar cat species?
Q2) Two populations of frog are separated from each other by a large distance and rarely interbreed with each other.However,approximately one male frog a year makes the journey and breeds with females in the other population.Would you expect these populations to eventually become separate species? Why or why not?
Q3) All of the following are true of genetic drift,EXCEPT
A) changes in allelic frequencies are always random.
B) changes in allelic frequencies may benefit the population.
C) changes in allelic frequencies may harm the population.
D) genetic drift has the greatest influence on large populations.
E) over time, genetic drift decreases the genetic diversity of a population.
Q4) Which of the following is a human-caused environmental change that animals face?
A) climate change
B) urbanization
C) urban dwelling
D) A and B
E) A, B, and C
Q5) Why doesn't the egg cell receive the mitochondria found in a sperm cell?
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Chapter 16: Evidence for Evolution a Fish With Fingers
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain how mutations in genes can lead to homologous structures in different species.
Q2) A paleontologist studies
A) sedimentary rocks.
B) invertebrates.
C) relative dating.
D) radiocarbon dating.
E) fossils.
Q3) The dissimilarities of the physical appearance of vertebrate adults can be explained by
A) species variation.
B) analogous structures.
C) vestigial structures.
D) descent from a common ancestor.
E) differential gene expression.
Q4) What gives the most accurate dating of a fossil,relative dating or radiometric dating? Explain your answer.
Q5) Regardless of the specifics,fossils may only form if the organism is preserved quickly.Why?
Q6) What is mineralization?
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Chapter 17: Life on Earth Qa: Evolution
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Q1) Which type of evolutionary tree is most useful to scientists,a tree based on similarity of appearance or phylogeny? Explain your answer and be sure to include the definition of phylogeny.
Q2) Members of a(n)_______ are LESS closely related to each other than members of a class.
A) order
B) genus
C) family
D) phylum
E) species
Q3) Put the following in order of their evolution.
A) invertebrates algae amphibians birds reptiles mammals
B) invertebrates algae vertebrates reptiles amphibians mammals
C) algae invertebrates vertebrates reptiles amphibians mammals
D) algae vertebrates amphibians reptiles mammals invertebrates
E) algae invertebrates vertebrates amphibians reptiles mammals
Q4) How likely would it be to find a rock with 90% lead-206? Explain.
Q5) If you don't know how many radioactive isotope atoms were present at the time a rock was formed,how can you tell how many have decayed since that time?
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Chapter 18: Prokaryotic Diversity Lost City
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prokaryotes can be found in which of the following environments?
A) glaciers
B) salt lakes
C) intestines
D) miles underground
E) All the above.
Q2) The research from Lost City and its inhabitants has scientists thinking about
A) the evolution of life at deep-sea underwater hydrothermal vents.
B) Earth's primordial past environment.
C) life without oxygen.
D) a possibility of life in outer space.
E) All of the above.
Q3) Malaria is a mosquito-borne disease that can be deadly when transmitted to humans.Malaria is caused by a parasite.Knowing this,you expect the parasite to be a member of domain
A) Bacteria.
B) Archaea.
C) Eukarya.
D) Bacteria or Archaea equally.
E) Archaea or Eukarya equally.
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Chapter 19: A: Eukaryotic Diversity Rain Forest Riches
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Q1) Which would NOT be considered a protist?
A) amoeba
B) Giardia lamblia
C) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
D) euglena
E) Trichomonas vaginalis
Q2) Fungi are found
A) on, in ,and under vegetation.
B) on and in animals.
C) in and on top of soil.
D) in dead trees and animal carcasses.
E) All of the above.
Q3) How are the members of domain Eukarya different from members of domains Bacteria and Archaea?
Q4) Which are all members of the domain Eukarya?
A) animals, plants, protists, and prokaryotes
B) protists, animals, and prokaryotes
C) eukaryotes and prokaryotes
D) plants, animals, fungi, and protists
E) plants, animals, fungi, and bacteria
Page 23
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Chapter 19: B: Eukaryotic Diversity Rain Forest Riches
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Q1) Species richness describes
A) the abundance of species in a community.
B) the number of different species in a community.
C) the number of species in a population.
D) the landscape of a region.
E) all the biotic and abiotic factors in an ecosystem.
Q2) Why would a park that encompasses multiple habitat types have a greater diversity of organisms than would a park that encompasses only one habitat type?
Q3) Which describes plant groups in order of terrestrial adaptations from earliest to the most recent?
A) ferns, bryophytes, gymnosperms, and angiosperms
B) bryophytes, gymnosperms, ferns, and angiosperms
C) angiosperms, bryophytes, ferns, and gymnosperms
D) ferns, gymnosperms, bryophytes, and angiosperms
E) bryophytes, ferns, gymnosperms, and angiosperms
Q4) List at least three ways that humans are reducing global biodiversity.
Q5) List three of the four kingdoms belonging to domain Eukarya.
Q6) Explain the role of fungi in an ecosystem.What would happen if fungi were not present?
Page 24
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Chapter 20: Human Evolution Skin Deep
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Q1) Which offspring would not inherit their mother's (maternal)mitochondria?
A) daughter
B) son
C) daughters' daughter
D) son's daughter
E) daughter's son
Q2) Chimpanzee and human divergence occurred
A) 6 million years ago.
B) 13 million years ago.
C) 50-100,000 years ago.
D) 1 million years ago.
E) 6 million years ago.
Q3) Ultraviolet light is essential for the formation of this vitamin.
A) K
B) A
C) B6
D) D
E) B9
Q4) If humans had evolved in northern climates,what do you think humans would look like today in terms of body hair and skin pigmentation?
Page 25
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Chapter 21: A: Population Ecology on the Tracks of Wolves and Moose
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Q1) Proponents of hunting explain that hunting laws keep populations in check,thereby preventing massive population loss due instead to starvation.Explain this statement,incorporating the concept of carrying capacity.
Q2) A few years after a predator species population decreases,the ____.
A) predator population will increase
B) prey population must decrease
C) predator population will decrease
D) predator population will exceed carrying capacity
E) prey population will increase
Q3) It appears that all of the wolves on Isle Royale are the descendants of a single pair of wolves that made it to the island from the Canada.How would you compare the gene pool of the island's wolves to the wolves of the mainland?
Q4) What information could be obtained from wolf scat?
A) DNA profiles
B) vegetation preference
C) presence of arthritis
D) amount of urea
E) time since last meal
Q5) How does a high predator population affect the population of a prey species?
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Chapter 21: B: Population Ecology on the Tracks of Wolves and Moose
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Q1) What can an examination of moose scat tell you about that moose?
Q2) In the absence of a predator species,herbivores like moose _____.
A) will continue to have an exponential growth rate
B) will almost always die off because of the presence of density-dependent diseases
C) may exceed carrying capacity and have a fast die-off
D) will evolve to no longer require predators to balance their population size
E) may eventually become omnivores
Q3) You are discussing population growth with a friend who says that once you know how many deer can live in 100 square miles in your state,then you know that is the same number of deer that can live in 100 square miles anywhere in the country.Do you agree or disagree? Explain your answer.
Q4) How can an abiotic factor be a density-dependent factor as well? Give an example.
Q5) Which of the following conditions would lead to the fastest population growth?
A) birth rate = death rate; immigration = emigration
B) birth rate = death rate; immigration > emigration
C) birth rate > death rate; immigration > emigration
D) birth rate > death rate; emigration > immigration
E) birth rate > death rate; immigration = emigration
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Chapter 22: A: Community Ecology Whats Happening to Honey Bees
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Q1) Listed below are examples of symbiotic relationships.Next to each one,write a "P" if it represents parasitism,a "C" if it represents commensalism,or an "M" if it represents mutualism.Note that the same answer may be used more than once. man's relationship with dogs ticks on a dog spiders building their webs on plants clown fish getting shelter from a sea anemone and chasing away fish that eat anemones
Q2) Mice eat fruits,nuts,and insects,while foxes eat fruits,nuts,and insects as well as mice.Speculate on what would happen to the abundance of mice,fruits,nuts,and insects if foxes are removed from the community.
Q3) All of the following are true of honey bees,EXCEPT
A) they pollinate more than 100 different crops.
B) the crops they pollinate are worth $15 billion annually.
C) they are a keystone species.
D) they help pollinate angiosperms.
E) the workers are all male.
Q4) Are insects such as bees more important to coniferous plants or angiosperms? Explain your answer.
Page 28
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Chapter 22: B: Community Ecology Whats Happening to Honey Bees
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Q1) In angiosperms,the male reproductive structure is called the _________ and is topped with a pollen-saturated _________.The female structure is called the _________ and is topped with a sticky organ called the _________,where pollen is deposited.
A) stamen; anther; pistil; stigma
B) anther; stamen; stigma; pistil
C) stamen; stigma; pistil; anther
D) pistil; stigma; stamen; anther
E) pistil; anther; stamen; stigma
Q2) All of the following are true of honey bees,EXCEPT
A) they pollinate more than 100 different crops.
B) the crops they pollinate are worth $15 billion annually.
C) they are a keystone species.
D) they help pollinate angiosperms.
E) the workers are all male.
Q3) House sparrows are an introduced species from Europe that nest in cavities and birdhouses favored by native bluebirds.Speculate on all the possible outcomes of this competition and what may happen to bluebird population numbers.
Q4) Explain how human activities are causing honey bee populations to decline.
Q5) Name at least three factors implicated in causing colony collapse disorder.
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Chapter 23: A: Ecosystem Ecology the Heat Is on
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Q1) All of the following are likely to reduce the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere,EXCEPT
A) drive electric cars.
B) plant forests.
C) reduce consumption of meat.
D) reduce population growth.
E) All of the above.
Q2) Which predator-prey pairing would likely have the most negative impact on a forest ecosystem if the predator is forced to migrate because of increased temperature?
A) birds and blueberry bushes
B) birds and insects
C) rabbits and hawks
D) wolves and rabbits
E) fox and mice
Q3) Explain how the greenhouse effect warms Earth and list two greenhouse gases.
Q4) How would you respond to someone who says that the increase in global temperatures of the last 200 years is just part of normal global temperature fluctuations?
Q5) List three sources of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
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Q1) Carbon dioxide has rapidly increased in
A) the last 50 years.
B) the last 1000 years.
C) the last 20 years.
D) the last 100 years.
E) the last 500 years.
Q2) The maple tree would most likely be found in which biome?
A) tundra
B) temperate deciduous forest
C) boreal forest
D) coniferous forest
E) rainforest
Q3) Which is NOT true of greenhouse gases?
A) Humans are adding to the amount of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.
B) Carbon dioxide is a result of the burning of fossil fuels.
C) Global temperature is rising due to the greenhouse effect.
D) Greenhouse gases trap infrared radiation close to Earth's surface.
E) Greenhouse gases are relatively new in Earth's atmosphere.
Q4) List three sources of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
Q5) Explain how carbon cycles between inorganic and organic forms.
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Chapter 24: A: Sustainability the Makings of a Green City
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Q1) Why would a nondeveloped country with a low per-capita footprint have a similar total footprint to a more developed country?
A) The nondeveloped country is more sustainable.
B) The developed country is less sustainable.
C) The nondeveloped country has a larger population.
D) The nondeveloped country has fewer people.
E) The developed country has more people.
Q2) Which of the following is a drawback to using coal as an energy source?
A) Coal miners have increased risk of respiratory illness.
B) Mining damages large areas of land.
C) Burning coal releases greenhouse gases.
D) Coal contains pollutants such as arsenic, nitrogen dioxide, and sulfur dioxide.
E) All of the above.
Q3) List at least four ways you can reduce your ecological footprint.
Q4) List at least three drawbacks of using solar and wind power as sources of energy.
Q5) Why are some regions of the world more water-stressed than others?
Q6) List three drawbacks of using nuclear power and two advantages.
Q7) What factors can make one region of the world more water-stressed than another?
Page 32
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Chapter 24: B: Sustainability the Makings of a Green City
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Q1) An ecologically friendly city that has housing,work,and schools located close to each other would decrease the requirement for
A) pedestrian traffic.
B) cars.
C) bikes.
D) public transportation.
E) electricity.
Q2) Although cities occupy __________ of Earth's surface and have only __________ of the world's population,they consume more than __________ of Earth's natural resources.
A) 2%; 50%; 75%
B) 2%; 75%; 90%
C) 5%; 50%; 90%
D) 5%; 75%; 90%
E) 8%; 50%; 75%
Q3) Define biocapacity and explain the relationship of biocapacity to the human ecological footprint.
Q4) What is an ecological footprint?
Q5) Describe at least three ways in which a city can become more ecologically friendly.
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Chapter 25: A: Overview of Physiology Man Versus Mountain
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Q1) What is an effector?
Q2) When the body is overheated,
A) blood vessels near the skin surface will dilate.
B) lymph nodes will shrink.
C) the body will produce more blood to cool itself.
D) the heart will pause every few beats to reduce blood flow.
E) the body will begin to shiver.
Q3) A hormone that regulates blood-glucose levels is
A) glycogen.
B) phosphofructokinase.
C) glucagon.
D) insulin.
E) both glucagon and insulin
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a factor for which the body has a set point,or narrow range within which it must be maintained?
A) blood pressure
B) body temperature
C) blood-glucose concentration
D) blood pH
E) All of the above are factors for which the body has a set point.
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Chapter 25: B: Overview of Physiology Man Versus Mountain
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Q1) List four tightly regulated body functions whose regulation is part of maintaining the body's homeostasis.
Q2) Vasoconstriction
A) lowers body temperature.
B) increases heart rate.
C) stimulates skeletal muscle activity.
D) stimulates brain activity.
E) conserves body heat.
Q3) One way to generate heat is through
A) vasoconstriction.
B) vasodilation.
C) shivering.
D) sleeping.
E) All of the above.
Q4) The ideal temperature for the function of most human enzymes is about
A) 98.6°C.
B) 37°C.
C) 25°C.
D) 20°C.
E) 52.4°C.
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Chapter 26: Digestive System Drastic Measures
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Q1) In the esophagus,peristalsis __________.
A) mechanically breaks down food
B) moves food from the mouth to the stomach
C) secretes pepsin to help break down protein
D) mixes food with acid and pepsin
E) C and D
Q2) Food passes through which of the following digestive organs?
A) stomach
B) liver
C) pancreas
D) A and B
E) A, B, and C
Q3) The organ labeled 4 is the __________.
A) pancreas
B) stomach
C) large intestine
D) small intestine
E) rectum
Q4) The organ where most absorption occurs is the _______.
Q5) Which group had the greatest immediate weight loss?
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Chapter 27: A: Cardiovascular System Death in Bogalusa
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is obesity a risk factor for cardiovascular disease?
A) Obesity can lead to hypertension.
B) Obesity can lead to type 2 diabetes.
C) Obesity overworks the heart.
D) A and C only.
E) A, B, and C are risk factors.
Q2) What structural similarity do the capillaries of the lungs and the capillaries of the systemic body have that allows for their gas exchange function?
Q3) What is the primary function of the combined cardiovascular system structures?
Q4) Blood contains ____________,which do not have a nucleus.
A) leukocytes
B) erythrocytes
C) platelets
D) plasma
E) white blood cells
Q5) Considering the functions of the cardiovascular system,why is heart disease such a deadly condition?
Q6) Explain how carbon dioxide moves into capillaries,and how oxygen moves into tissues.
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Chapter 27: B: Cardiovascular System Death in Bogalusa
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cholesterol in the blood must be carried by LDL or HDL because of what property?
A) It is hydrophilic lipid.
B) It is a hydrophobic lipid.
C) It is a hydrophilic specialized protein.
D) It is a hydrophobic specialized protein.
E) Cholesterol is a lipid-protein complex that must bind LDL or HDL to be able to reside in blood.
Q2) What chemical property did scientists and physicians utilize in order to identify the early signs of atherosclerosis in young people? What were they identifying?
Q3) Explain the difference between how LDL and HDL affect cholesterol.Which one of the two is disadvantageous to humans?
Q4) List at least four major components found in blood and provide the major function of each.
Q5) What is the number one killer of men and women in the developed world?
A) cardiovascular disease
B) cancer
C) atherosclerosis
D) diabetes
E) malnutrition
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Chapter 28: Respiratory System Peak Performance
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Q1) What protein carries oxygen in erythrocytes,and how are its structure and function related?
Q2) Why would measuring the percentage of red blood cells in the blood be a means to identify EPO doping?
A) Because the source of natural EPO in the kidneys will maintain the percentage of red blood cells at a level below that of EPO doping.
B) Because the EPO will cause the overproduction of red blood cells over all the other blood cells originating from the bone marrow.
C) Because you can identify the source of the EPO with this test.
D) A and B only.
E) A, B, and C are all reasons.
Q3) What effect would ever-increasing partial pressures of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere have on the respiratory system?
Q4) Describe how gas exchange in the lungs and in the tissues differs.
Q5) Describe two ethical controversies regarding the use of hypoxic chambers by athletes?
Q6) Describe the gas exchange diffusion process that occurs at the respiratory surface.
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Chapter 29: A: Central Nervous System Smoke on the Brain
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Q1) The region between two neurons is known as the _______.
A) synapse
B) axon canyon
C) synaptic cleft
D) neurotransmitter
E) synaptic vacuole
Q2) This is the brain stem.
A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) 6
E) 7
Q3) The primary neurotransmitter of addiction is _______.
A) acetylcholine (Ach)
B) nicotine
C) dopamine
D) egotamine
E) GABA
Q4) Do you believe that addiction is an illness? Use your knowledge of the physiology of addiction to support your answer.
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Chapter 29: B: Central Nervous System Smoke on the Brain
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Q1) Which of the following gives the name and number of the labeled structure(s)that communicate(s)with the next cell in the signaling pathway?
A) dendrites/1
B) axon terminals/1
C) dendrites/6
D) axon terminals/6
E) cell body/3
Q2) Explain why many addictive drugs require larger and larger doses with habitual use.
Q3) The ________ is responsible for conscious thought,whereas the ________ is involved with coordination of movement.
A) brainstem; cerebellum
B) cerebrum; cerebellum
C) limbic system; ventral tegumental area
D) cerebrum; diencephalon
E) limbic system; prefrontal cortex
Q4) What is a neurotransmitter?
Q5) What is the role of the myelin sheath in a neuron?
Q6) What is the diencephalon?
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Chapter 30: Reproductive System Too Many Multiples
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Q1) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) The natural occurrence of triplets is about 1 in every 6,000 births.
B) Somehow, the ovaries of most women take turns, releasing one egg per month.
C) The placenta produces estrogen and progesterone.
D) A woman cannot become pregnant from intercourse that happens before ovulation.
E) Both IVF and IUI typically begin with the woman taking fertility drugs.
Q2) This is the cervix.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Q3) A woman preparing for in vitro fertilization (IVF)takes fertility drugs to
A) stimulate egg production.
B) prepare the uterine lining for implantation.
C) block the oviducts to prevent additional embryos from being produced.
D) A and B
E) A, B, and C
Q4) Compare and contrast sexual reproduction in humans,birds,and salmon.
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Chapter 31: Immune System Viral Mysteries
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following inflammatory responses led to the increased mortality during the 1918 flu pandemic?
A) increased blood vessel leakiness, which led to decreased oxygen absorption
B) phagocytic cell-released chemicals, which led to the death of healthy tissue
C) allergic reactions to the antibiotic medications of the period
D) A and B
E) A, B, and C
Q2) Whereas B cells ________,T cells ________.
A) mature in the bone marrow; mature in the thymus
B) are produced in the bone marrow; are produced in the thymus
C) migrate to the bone marrow when mature; migrate to the thymus
D) are produced in the spleen; are produced in lymph nodes
E) are produced in lymph node; are produced in the spleen
Q3) Adaptive immunity relies upon what general kinds of defenses?
A) physical barriers to prevent pathogens from entering the body
B) chemical barriers to prevent pathogens from entering the body
C) lymphocytes that set off chains of events that inactivate or destroy invading pathogens
D) A and B only
E) A, B, and C
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Chapter 32: A: Plant Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eggs are found within this structure.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6
Q2) In plants,the aging process (including ripening)is regulated by _______.
A) auxin
B) ethylene
C) gibberellin
D) abscisic acid
E) A and B
Q3) How is this shading a water conservation strategy?
Q4) You need ripe (soft)avocados to make guacamole for a party in 3 days,but you need to do your shopping today.Although the avocados at the grocery store are all labeled with a sticker proclaiming "Ripe!" each is hard as a rock.How can you get them soft in time? Explain.
Q5) List at least three ways plants disperse their seeds.
Q6) Why do leaves of deciduous trees change color in the fall?
Q7) How would a reduction in surface area reduce water loss?
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Chapter 32: B: Plant Physiology
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Q1) In extremely hot,arid environments,plants may _______.
A) close stomata during the day and collect carbon dioxide at night
B) have adaptations allowing them to absorb carbon dioxide from leaf spaces when the stomata are closed
C) open stomata during the day because they need the carbon dioxide for photosynthesis
D) keep stomata closed to maximize sugar production
E) A and B
Q2) In plants,______ transports ______ from ______.
A) xylem; sugars; leaves to roots
B) xylem; water; leaves to roots
C) xylem; water; roots to leaves
D) phloem; water; leaves to roots and roots to leaves
E) phloem; water; roots to leaves
Q3) If you were trying to tap maple trees to gather sap for maple syrup and had your choice of trees with yellow,orange,or flaming red leaves,which would you pick? Why?
Q4) How is this shading a water conservation strategy?
Q5) List at least three ways plants disperse their seeds.
Q6) Diagram the parts of a flower.
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