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Contemporary American Politics explores the major trends, institutions, and issues shaping the United States' political landscape today. The course examines the roles of political parties, the media, public opinion, interest groups, and social movements, alongside the structure and function of the federal government. Emphasis is placed on current events, recent policy debates, electoral dynamics, and ongoing challenges such as polarization, voting rights, and the balance of power. Through analysis of case studies and discussion of significant legislation and Supreme Court rulings, students gain a nuanced understanding of how American democracy operates in the 21st century.
Recommended Textbook
Politics in America 2014 Elections and Updates Edition 10th Edition by Thomas R. Dye
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Q1) The meaning of the word __________ is "rule by the many."
Answer: democracy
Q2) Government shifts of income from taxpayers to persons regarded as deserving are called __________.
A)public goods
B)the social contract
C)income transfers
D)externalities
Answer: C
Q3) Deciding who gets what,when,and how is the best definition of __________.
A)government
B)public policies
C)lobbying
D)politics
Answer: D
Q4) In a democracy,the majority is always right.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) One of the theories of __________ is that advanced capitalist countries turned toward war and colonialism to make their own workers relatively prosperous.
Answer: Leninism
Q2) The awareness of one's class position and the feeling of political solidarity with others in the same class in opposition to other classes is called __________.
Answer: class consciousness
Q3) Today,about 90 percent of all African Americans live in the South.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Which of the following concepts is shared by classical liberalism and capitalism?
A)the freedom to make contracts
B)the idea that natural law is above government law
C)the right to own property
D)the right to trade in a free market
Answer: B
Q5) Secular politics would not allow __________ in public life. Answer: religion
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Q1) For which of the following did the Constitution allow selection by popular vote?
A)House of Representatives
B)presidency
C)Senate
D)Supreme Court
Answer: A
Q2) Which delegate believed in universal male suffrage?
A)John Adams
B)Benjamin Franklin
C)John Jay
D)Thomas Jefferson
Answer: B
Q3) The original Constitution placed most of the tax burden on Americans in the form of
A)tariffs on imported goods
B)an income tax
C)a national sales tax
D)property taxes
Answer: A
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Q1) Which clause in the Constitution ensures that judicial decrees and contracts made in one state will be binding and enforceable in another?
A)Commerce
B)Due Process
C)Equal Protection
D)Full Faith and Credit
Q2) Which best describes the difference between total preemption and partial preemption?
A)In partial preemption,state regulatory standards need to be as least as stringent as those of the federal government.
B)In partial preemption,states can determine which regulatory standards need to match that of the federal government.
C)In partial preemption,state law in a particular field is valid as long as it does not conflict with federal law.
D)In partial preemption,state law in a particular field is valid even if the federal government has all regulatory powers in the field.
Q3) The power to regulate commerce within a state belongs to the __________ government(s).
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Q1) In the 2012 presidential election,about what percentage of votes were cast by nonwhites?
A)about 10 percent
B)more than 25 percent
C)nearly 40 percent
D)over half
Q2) By which means were African Americans "legally" disenfranchised from participating in the electoral process in the American South by the Democratic Party?
A)the middle way
B)redlining
C)suffrage
D)the white primary
Q3) Although deciding upon voting times,places,equipment,and ballots is the responsibility of state governments,most states pass on this responsibility to which political entity?
A)county governments
B)municipal governments
C)local party operators
D)precinct captains
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Q1) Unlike newspapers and magazines,broadcasters must be __________.
A)approved by a board of directors
B)regulated by a federal ratings board
C)licensed by a government agency
D)allocated a specific time slot for broadcasting
Q2) Which of these best describes the Corporation for Public Broadcasting?
A)a private corporation
B)a news agency
C)a television channel
D)a public nonprofit
Q3) What is the main determinant of advertising revenue for newspapers?
A)prestige
B)number of pages
C)circulation
D)quality of data presented
Q4) What is the focus of political candidates early in their competition for office?
A)media events
B)speeches
C)press releases
D)paid advertising
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Q1) The strength of the Republican Party lies in the Northeast and on the Pacific Coast.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When did the last political realignment occur,according to most political commentators?
A)1860
B)1894
C)1968
D)1980
Q3) The official party __________ is ratified by delegates and leaders at the national party convention every four years,but given little serious attention.
A)article
B)constitution
C)platform
D)procedure
Q4) Ticket __________ divide their votes between candidates of different parties for different offices in the same general election.
Q5) Assess whether dealignment in the American party system has actually occurred.
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Q1) In the 2008 presidential election,many voters decided against Senator John McCain and the GOP because of Bush era policies.This is an example of __________.
A)retrospective voting
B)progressive voting
C)prospective voting
D)a mandate
Q2) If a traditionally conservative voter examines a candidate's past performance in office and decides to vote for a Democratic candidate rather than continuing to support the Republican candidate,what voting pattern does this exemplify?
A)retrospective
B)congressional
C)liberal
D)conservative
Q3) Retrospective voting differs from prospective voting in that the incumbent party is seen as having the best platform and policies for the future.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What kinds of campaign finance receive little or no scrutiny?
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Q1) How do interest groups lobby the executive branch?
A)by appearing at administrative hearings to offer information
B)by offering PAC contributions to agency heads
C)by filing amicus curiae briefs
D)by drafting and introducing bills
Q2) Critics of pluralism would note that __________.
A)government decisions reflect the balance of competing interests in society
B)resources and political power are unequally distributed within society
C)individuals with shared grievances always form interest groups to press their demands upon government
D)government is too responsive to the demands of interest groups
Q3) An interest group filing an amicus curiae brief is an example of __________.
A)grassroots or outside lobbying
B)how interest groups influence elections
C)lobbying an executive branch agency
D)lobbying the judicial branch
Q4) Interest groups are often criticized for failing to check majoritarianism in American politics.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The __________ decides how a bill will be debated on the floor following subcommittee review and markup.
A)Senate Judiciary Committee
B)House Oversight and Government Reform Committee
C)Senate Standing Committee
D)House Rules Committee
Q2) The Framers envisioned there would be no more than __________ people in each House district.
A)10,000
B)30,000
C)50,000
D)75,000
Q3) __________ is the only formal method for ending a filibuster and requires the approval of __________ senators.
A)Abrogation; fifty-one
B)Abrogation; sixty
C)Censure; sixty
D)Cloture; sixty
Q4) Cloture is the only way to end a(n)__________.
Q5) Evaluate the successes and failures of the two parties in Congress.
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Q1) According to the Constitution,__________ should be reserved for serious criminal offenses,not political conflicts.
Q2) What has to happen in Congress before the president can be impeached?
A)The House can impeach the president by a simple majority; the Senate does not have a vote.
B)The Senate can impeach the president by a simple majority; the House does not have a vote.
C)The House can impeach the president by a simple majority; the Senate needs a two-thirds majority.
D)The Senate can impeach the president with a two-thirds majority; the House does not have a vote.
Q3) The Senate must approve the president's appointments to leadership positions in the fifteen Cabinet departments.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Framers included a two-term limit to the presidency in the Constitution.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Judicial oversight in the bureaucracy tends to focus on __________.
A)budgetary matters that involve the president's cabinet
B)presidential appointments to agencies and commissions
C)responding to injunctions against executive agencies
D)whether agencies are acting beyond the authority granted them by Congress
Q2) Bureaucracy is a form of organization found only in government.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Compare the spoils system to the federal civil service system in terms of how each has influenced the performance of the federal bureaucracy.
Q4) Which of the following is a drawback of outsourcing?
A)The bidding process is competitive.
B)The private sector has fewer rules and regulations.
C)The private sector may be less accountable.
D)Privatized services often cost more to deliver.
Q5) As described in the "What Do You Think?" box about the environment and the economy,environmental regulation becomes __________ during periods of economic decline or uncertainty.
Q6) The president appoints,but cannot dismiss,officials who serve on __________.
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Q1) What are the two types of jurisdiction courts can have?
A)original and appellate
B)trial and appeals
C)constitutional and statutory
D)active and restrained
Q2) Article III guarantees that the __________ of federal judges will not be reduced during their service on the bench.
Q3) Who is generally considered to be the swing vote on the Roberts Court?
A)John Roberts
B)Elena Kagan
C)Ruth Bader Ginsburg
D)Anthony Kennedy
Q4) Which of the following is within the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
A)federal criminal matters
B)tax disputes
C)military tribunals
D)controversies between the states
Q5) The Supreme Court regularly exercises its original jurisdiction.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) According to the authors of the Declaration of Independence,individual liberty derives from what?
A)government
B)human condition
C)the Constitution
D)recognition of equality
Q2) The right to bear arms stems from colonists' distrust of standing armies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Constitution protects against search of an individual's person,home,or vehicle without __________.
A)due process
B)permission
C)a warrant
D)compensation
Q4) Yelling "Fire!" in a crowded theater is a classic example of speech that creates a(n)__________.
Q5) Most developed countries use some form of the death penalty.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) How has the Equal Rights Amendment affected women's civil rights?
A)It has ensured that men and women are treated equally in the workplace.
B)It has ensured that the courts evaluate gender discrimination using the strict scrutiny test.
C)It has eliminated gender discrimination in the military.
D)It has had little effect because it was not formally adopted.
Q2) According to the "What Do You Think?" feature box,why do some consider affirmative action a form of reverse discrimination? To what extent does the public approve of affirmative action programs for racial minorities,and how does this differ depending on the respondent's race? To what extent does the public think that college admissions should be based on enlarging diversity verses merit only? Given public opinion,should the United States continue to use affirmative action? What,if anything,should be done to reduce the racial gap in acceptance of affirmative action programs?
Q3) What provision of the Fourteenth Amendment serves as a cornerstone of our understanding of civil rights?
A)the all men are created equal clause
B)the Equal Protection Clause
C)the privileges and immunities clause
D)the Equal Rights Amendment
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Q1) Monetary economic policy uses the money supply to affect growth in the U.S.economy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Upon taking office in 2009,which of the following did President Obama advocate to deal with the economic crisis?
A)dropping interest rates
B)increasing government spending
C)lowering taxes
D)raising interest rates
Q3) Why are some social welfare programs referred to as entitlements?
A)because benefits are distributed automatically to citizens who qualify,based on a set of legal rights to benefits
B)because they are benefits available only to the working poor in the United States
C)because they are benefits funded through the Title 9 section of the 1965 Civil Rights Act
D)because they are benefits that are distributed on a case-by-case basis to select citizens in extreme need
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Q1) Which of the following is a means-tested program?
A)Social Security
B)No Child Left Behind
C)Medicare
D)Temporary Assistance for Needy Families
Q2) Contributors to health care costs in the United States are an aging population and __________.
A)individual mandates
B)employer mandates
C)chronic disease
D)the number of births
Q3) ___________ temporarily replaces part of the wages of workers who lose their jobs involuntarily and helps stabilize the economy during recessions.
Q4) Under Obamacare,the requirement that every American purchase health insurance or face a tax penalty is known as what?
A)Medicare
B)Medicaid
C)SCHIP
D)individual mandate
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Q1) The employment of NATO troops in Bosnia in 1995 was unusual,as traditionally NATO forces were never deployed outside Western Europe.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why are isolationists dissatisfied with contemporary U.S.foreign policy?
A)because the United States has not done enough to address human rights abuses in countries in which terrorists operate
B)because the United States has ignored atrocities in Africa and other developing countries while dealing with the occupation in Iraq
C)because the war in Afghanistan has demonstrated the importance of American involvement in Pakistan,but the United States hesitates to become involved
D)because the occupation of Iraq proved that the United States did not learn the lessons of Vietnam
Q3) __________ has the constitutional power to declare war.
Q4) The Cold War strategy of __________ was intended to prevent nuclear warfare by having a large enough nuclear arsenal that the Soviet Union would not dare challenge the United States.
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