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Contemporary American Government examines the structure, functions, and dynamics of the United States government in the modern era. The course explores the foundational principles of the Constitution, the roles and interactions of the legislative, executive, and judicial branches, and the impact of political parties, interest groups, and the media on policymaking. Emphasis is placed on current issues and debates, including the evolution of civil rights, electoral processes, and challenges facing democratic governance in the 21st century. Through analysis of recent case studies and contemporary events, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how American government adapts to changing social, economic, and political landscapes.
Recommended Textbook
American Government Power and Purpose 15th Edition by Stephen Ansolabehere
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Q1) Explain the following four features of institutions that structure politics, using specific examples to illustrate each point.
Answer: (1) Jurisdiction: Congressional committees; federal agencies have defined roles.
(2) Agenda power and veto power: Congressional committees and party leaders engage in gatekeeping. The president has veto power.
(3) Decisiveness: Congress has rules that specify when votes may be taken, the sequence in which votes on amendments occur, and how many supporters determine whether a motion passes or fails.
(4) Delegation: Delegation is the act of giving authority to some other official or body for their use. Citizens delegate to representatives through voting.
Q2) A tribal council that meets occasionally to advise the chief has all the essential elements of a government.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) The radicals led by Samuel Adams hoped that the Boston Tea Party would goad the British into strong reprisals. Which principle does this strategy illustrate?
A)rationality principle
B)institution principle
C)policy principle
D)collective action principle
Answer: A
Q2) Federal judges are given lifetime appointments.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The British soldiers involved in the Boston Massacre were defended by __________, a pillar of Boston society and future president of the United States.
A)John Adams
B)Thomas Jefferson
C)George Washington
D)Ben Franklin
Answer: A
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Q1) In the federal system, the 50 state governments retain sovereignty, which prevents the federal government from interfering in the financial matters of states. However, state governments can become involved in the fiscal matters of local governments, which is evident in recent state takeovers of the city finances of Harrisburg, Pennsylvania, and Flint, Michigan. Why can state governments interfere in the fiscal matters of local governments when the federal government cannot do so with state governments?
A)The Constitution was amended to increase the power of states over local matters.
B)The Constitution explicitly gives states the right to intervene in local affairs.
C)Local governments are not recognized by the U.S. Constitution.
D)Congress passed a law allowing the states to intervene in local affairs.
Answer: C
Q2) In the case of United States v. Nixon, the Supreme Court ruled that executive privilege did not extend to data in presidential files and tapes involved in criminal prosecutions.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) What is the difference between libel and slander?
A)Libel is spoken, and slander is written.
B)Libel is illegal; slander is not.
C)Libel is written, and slander is spoken.
D)Slander is illegal; libel is not.
Q2) The requirement that the judicial system must proceed according to law and with adequate protection for individual rights is known as
A)due process of law.
B)the fairness clause.
C)the equal protection clause.
D)the habeas corpus rule.
Q3) The Supreme Court decided in the Barron v. Baltimore case that states are prohibited from treating people as property.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Alexander Hamilton and other Federalists argued that adding the Bill of Rights to the Constitution was not necessary.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In Brown v. Board of Education, the Supreme Court overturned Plessy v. Ferguson because
A)the federal government had no authority to enforce either political or social equality.
B)Linda Brown was a child, and no tests of the "separate but equal" doctrine had involved a minor.
C)separate educational facilities did not deprive children of adequate educational opportunities.
D)separate educational facilities are inherently unequal.
Q2) De facto segregation refers to segregation that takes place because of formal laws.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A policy that gave extra points toward law school admission for a minority student would exemplify which kind of program?
A)reparations
B)affirmative action
C)quota systems
D)supportive redistribution
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Q1) The agency conception of representation is based on the ambition of politicians (as agents) and the ability of constituents (as principals) to
A)contribute significantly to campaign funds.
B)become fully informed about policy debates before Congress.
C)acquiesce to legislative initiatives that may counter citizens' immediate interests.
D)reward and punish on the basis of the legislator's performance and reputation.
Q2) Who is the chief presiding officer in the U.S. House of Representatives?
A)the Speaker of the House
B)the majority leader
C)the president pro tempore
D)the House clerk
Q3) How long is the term of office for a U.S. senator?
A)two years
B)four years
C)six years
D)life
Q4) Describe the formal and informal processes and actors involved with a bill becoming a law.
Q5) Explain how bicameralism influences the policy-making process.
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Q1) The main value of the vice presidency is as an electoral resource for the president.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most presidents of the past 25 years have sought to use their vice presidents as management resources after the election.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Presidents typically gain more political support the longer they are in office.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Since it was established by law in 1947, presidents have relied on an inner cabinet composed of the president; vice president; secretaries of state, defense, and treasury; and the attorney general for foreign policy decisions. What is the term for this inner cabinet?
A)the kitchen cabinet
B)the Executive Office of the President
C)the National Security Council
D)the Office of Legislative Affairs
Q5) Is the American president too powerful? Why or why not?
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Q1) Congress intends for some bureaucracies to promote, serve, or represent a particular interest. What is the general term for this type of department or bureau?
A)interest group
B)constituent liaison
C)ombudsman
D)clientele agency
Q2) Describe a personal experience you have had with a federal bureaucratic agency. Overall, was your experience pleasant or unpleasant? Helpful or unhelpful?
Q3) Politicians delegate little power to bureaucrats.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Amtrak is an example of which type of bureaucratic structure?
A)cabinet department
B)independent agency
C)independent regulatory commission
D)government corporation
Q5) The Department of State is an agency for internal security.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Public law is a form of criminal law.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Under what authority does the U.S. military operate its own court system that governs the behavior of men and women in uniform?
A)Defense Judiciary System
B)Military Tribunal Authority
C)Uniform Code of Military Justice
D)Federal Circuit Court
Q3) An individual who claims in court that she would be damaged by a bill passing through Congress, but not yet law, is likely to fail which test for access to the court system?
A)ripeness
B)mootness
C)standing
D)certiorari
Q4) The chief justice assigns the task of writing the majority opinion on every case.
A)True
B)False
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Questions
Q1) Which of the following concepts explains why high-income African Americans are more apt to support policies that are likely to help large numbers of low-income or underemployed African Americans?
A)fatalism
B)collective action
C)public opinion
D)linked fate
Q2) What are two ways social groups influence citizen preferences?
A)shaping the preferences of group members, and identifying shared preferences
B)advertising and bribing
C)priming and framing
D)inducement and shaming
Q3) A method used by pollsters to select a representative sample in which every individual in the population has an equal probability of being selected as a participant is called
A)random walk sampling.
B)probability sampling.
C)selection sampling.
D)democratic sampling.
Q4) Is the U.S. government responsive to public opinion? Should it be?
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Q1) Which of these is not a major factor in citizens' voting decisions?
A)endorsements from foreign governments
B)party affiliation
C)policy issues
D)candidate characteristics
Q2) The institution principle states that political rules shape political outcomes. Which of the following is a feature of election laws that shape election outcomes?
A)establishing federal guidelines for proper voting decisions
B)deciding which questions are asked at presidential debates
C)deciding who can vote in U.S. elections
D)determining the coalitions of the two political parties
Q3) Both Minnesota and Wisconsin allow individuals to register to vote on the same day as the election. This opportunity to register on the day of the election is also known as A)same-day registration.
B)all-in-one registration day.
C)registration day.
D)ballot-day registration.
Q4) Do elections promote accountability from political leaders? Why or why not?
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Q1) Labor unions have been an important part of the Democratic party coalition since the 1930s.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are the advantages and disadvantages of political parties in American government and politics?
Q3) Third parties in the United States tend to have a long lifetime.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Party brand names make voting a more complex task.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The process by which a party selects a single candidate to run for each elective office is known as
A)enlistment.
B)recruitment.
C)appointment.
D)nomination.
Q6) Compare and contrast the organization of the two major political parties in the United States.
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Q1) Modern research indicates that interest groups easily form in response to changes in the political environment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Organized protests as strategy for winning support for a group's policy positions
A)are generally not protected as free speech because of the inherent dangers in protests.
B)create a sense of community and raise the consciousness of people outside the protest.
C)are effective for unions but are not effective for other groups.
D)tend to work for Democrats but not for Republicans.
Q3) Which of the following explains the growth and presence of interest groups in Washington, D.C., in the 1930s?
A)the dramatic expansion of the national government
B)the leftist movement that gained hold during the Great Depression
C)federal deregulation of interest group formation
D)the development of radio and broadcast media
Q4) To what extent are interest groups effective at influencing political outcomes?
Q5) Why do interest groups form, and what are the challenges to collective action?
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Q1) In general, publishers are most concerned with the A)liberal-conservative tone of their papers.
B)partisan tone of their papers.
C)profitability of their papers.
D)artistic merit of their design layout.
Q2) In the case of Cable News Network v. Noriega, the Supreme Court ruled that prior restraint is permissible to preserve
A)state secrets.
B)the Ninth Amendment right to privacy.
C)the right of free speech.
D)the right to a fair trial.
Q3) When an unidentified source revealed information concerning President George W. Bush's secret wiretapping program for suspected terrorists, the revealed information was known as
A)a news leak.
B)an info-drop.
C)a press release.
D)soft news.
Q4) What do you see as the future impact of the Internet on the political process?
Q5) What are the sources of media power?
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Q1) The 2010 Dodd-Frank financial reform bill created an agency to protect financial consumers from banks and other financial institutions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The organization that provides advice to presidents about whether to stimulate or depress the economy (via manipulation of tax and spending policies) is the
A)Department of the Treasury.
B)kitchen cabinet.
C)Small Business Administration.
D)Council of Economic Advisers.
Q3) The existence of a single firm in a market that controls all the goods and services of that market is called a(n)
A)single company sector.
B)captured market.
C)dominated market.
D)monopoly.
Q4) What is deregulation? Why did it emerge, and what do you see as its future?
Q5) Describe the government's role in creating the foundation for a market economy.
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Q1) The Supplemental Security Income program is an example of a A)means-tested program that is contributory.
B)means-tested program that is noncontributory.
C)non-means-tested program that is contributory.
D)non-means-tested program that is noncontributory.
Q2) Until 1996, what was the most important noncontributory public assistance program?
A)the Job Training Partnership Act (JTPA)
B)the Aid to Families with Dependent Children (AFDC) program
C)the Temporary Assistance to Needy Families (TANF) program
D)the Comprehensive Employment and Training Act (CETA)
Q3) What is one condition a person must satisfy to qualify for means-tested welfare programs (e.g., TANF, Medicaid, food stamps) that does not apply to tax expenditures like the home mortgage interest deduction?
A)regular recertification
B)voter registration
C)U.S. citizenship
D)regular church attendance
Q4) What challenges are facing the current Social Security system? How should these problems be addressed?
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Q1) The three elements of promoting human rights as a foreign policy goal are international environmental policy, international human rights policy, and international peacekeeping.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When President Donald Trump met with Russian leader Vladimir Putin in Helsinki in July 2018, he demonstrated his preference for _________ to conduct foreign policy.
A)deterrence
B)personal diplomacy
C)surrogates
D)kompromat
Q3) Describe the structure and purpose of the United Nations.
Q4) What conflict marked the last time the U.S. Congress officially declared war?
A)the Korean War
B)World War II
C)the second Iraq war
D)Afghanistan and the global war against terrorism
Q5) What are the foreign policy goals of the United States? How has the United States prioritized these goals in the past?
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