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Construction Project Management focuses on the principles, techniques, and tools needed to efficiently plan, execute, monitor, and close construction projects. The course covers project life cycles, stakeholder management, cost estimation, scheduling, contract administration, risk assessment, and resource allocation. Students learn about modern project management methodologies, including the use of software applications, Building Information Modeling (BIM), and sustainability practices. Emphasis is placed on communication, leadership, and problem-solving skills to effectively manage teams and deliver projects on time and within budget, while adhering to quality and safety standards.
Recommended Textbook
Project Management Process Technology and Practice 1st Edition by Ganesh Vaidyanathan
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12 Chapters
960 Verified Questions
960 Flashcards
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80 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pre-feasibility study is usually used to assess whether to conduct a full feasibility study.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Project success and project management success are the same.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The act of collaboration among people and other required resources such that a project is planned,organized,and controlled effectively to accomplish its goals and objectives best defines
A)project management.
B)knowledge acquisition.
C)project planning.
D)project implementation.
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) A work breakdown structure is a list of tasks broken down to small manageable activities.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) At the CMMI Level 1,an organization focuses on continuous process improvement.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) A working prototype that is implemented to design and define various functionalities of the project and show customers the friendly software interface and the story line of functionalities involved in the project best describes the SDLC
A)analysis phase.
B)systems investigation phase.
C)preliminary design phase.
D)testing phase.
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) After TMAP's brainstorming step,the project's scope cannot be changed.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) When there is concern about some team members not participating,NGT can result in a high-quality decision-making process.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A table or form that is used to allow a team to systematically record and compile data from historical sources or observations as they happen in real time best defines A)burndown chart.
B)affinity diagram.
C)SWOT analysis.
D)check sheet.
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Wheelwright and Clark,which of the following project types breeds future commercial products,new systems,and novel services?
A)alliances and partnership projects
B)breakthrough projects
C)derivative projects
D)basic research projects
Q2) A document that formally recognizes a project and includes a problem statement,project objectives,benefits,process owners,and a project sponsor or a champion best defines
A)business case.
B)organizational mission statement.
C)project charter.
D)statement of work.
Q3) Which of the following is the return or discount rate that makes NPV = 0?
A)ROI
B)IRR
C)PMI
D)QFD
Q4) Identify five ways that project requirements may be gathered.
Q5) Identify five objectives that must be achieved for a project.
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Q1) The process improvement plan defines the acceptable level of quality in a project in accordance with the requirements of the customers and describes how the project will ensure an acceptable level of quality in its deliverables and processes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The end result of a method that decomposes a project into small manageable activities best defines
A)WBS.
B)QFD.
C)BPR.
D)KAP.
Q3) Which of the following refers to a project management process where changes to a project are formally introduced and approved?
A)change management
B)resource management
C)scope management
D)direction management
Q4) What is a contract? List six types of contracts.
Q5) What is a quality management plan? What might it include?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Accepting risk,transferring risk,and avoiding risks are ways of managing risk.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A log of identified risks along with its owners,risk scores,RPNs,risk responses,triggers,residual and secondary risks,and contingency plans for cost and schedule best defines
A)risk register.
B)risk charter.
C)risk matrix.
D)contingency plan.
Q3) Risk identification should address every possible negative event.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Delivery challenges,scaling of product or service,and complexity in processes are examples of functional risk.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Project risks can be classified as internal or external.
A)True
B)False

8
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Sample Questions
Q1) The extent to which a product is unlikely to fail or break down best describes A)reliability.
B)conformance.
C)serviceability.
D)aesthetics.
Q2) The eight quality management principles identified by the ISO include each of the following <b>except</b>
A)customer focus.
B)leadership.
C)accuracy.
D)involvement of projects.
Q3) Speed and efficiency are the primary drivers behind benchmarking.
A)True B)False
Q4) The profitability index is the ratio of payoff to investment of a proposed project. A)True B)False
Q5) Identify five reasons why scope changes are forced into projects.
Q6) Identify and describe four control charts.
Page 9
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Sample Questions
Q1) The CCPM method modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Free float is an early warning and an indicator that corrective measures to scheduling have to be taken.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Benefits of networking project activities include
A)an estimate of time and cost at any point of a project.
B)the interdependence of the activities of a project.
C)a graphical representation of work to be performed.
D)all of the above.
Q4) When constructing the PDM,an activity can have
A)predecessors with no successors.
B)successors with no predecessors.
C)both predecessors and successors.
D)all of the above.
Q5) In PDM,an activity can have predecessors with no successors.
A)True
B)False

10
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Sample Questions
Q1) Resources include A)people.
B)facilities.
C)equipment.
D)all of the above.
Q2) Schedule variance is planned value minus earned value.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An indirect cost rate is the percentage of a project's indirect costs to its direct costs and is a standardized method of charging individual projects for their share of indirect costs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Unquantifiable costs relating to an identifiable source best defines A)variable costs.
B)unspecified costs.
C)flexible costs.
D)intangible costs.
Q5) Describe three common methods employed in estimating costs.
Q6) Identify five benefits of EVA.
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Q1) List ten factors that signal early project closure.
Q2) Which of the following project audit report questions addresses PMBOK's integration management knowledge area?
A)Do value-related processes exist?
B)Do scope-related processes exist?
C)Do schedule-related processes exist?
D)Are budget variances part of the project budget review?
Q3) A postmortem analysis should include a comprehensive analysis of the technical objectives,budget,resources,project termination,and implications due to the technology and project management.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A project audit begins with
A)defining the scope of the audit.
B)conducting interviews with project sponsors.
C)preparing a communication plan.
D)identifying performance measures.
Q5) What should a project audit contain?
Q6) Identify five benefits of project audits.
Q7) What areas are included in a project audit?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following roles spells out suggestions using examples?
A)initiator-contributor
B)opinion seeker
C)elaborator
D)energizer
Q2) The project lifespan stage that kicks in after the team starts working together best describes
A)forming.
B)storming.
C)norming.
D)performing.
Q3) Under what conditions will the department structure work well?
Q4) The self-confessor deflates the status of others by making personal attacks using belittling and insulting comments.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The dominator makes a display of his or her lack of involvement in the project.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Identify nine reasons organizations outsource projects.
Page 13
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of power where the targeted persons comply believing that the project manager has special knowledge is called
A)coercive power.
B)reward power.
C)legitimate power.
D)expert power.
Q2) In preparation for a meeting,a project manager should prepare and distribute an agenda.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a speaker leans back with his/her hands behind his/her head,this shows superiority or confidence.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Modes of knowledge conversion include each of the following<b>except</b>
A)internalization.
B)socialization.
C)externalization.
D)reduction.
Q5) What is knowledge management? Identify five benefits of knowledge management.
Page 14
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