
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Concepts of Biology provides an introduction to the fundamental principles of biological science, emphasizing the structure, function, and processes of living organisms. The course covers key topics such as cell biology, genetics, evolution, ecosystems, and the diversity of life. Students explore how organisms grow, reproduce, interact with their environments, and adapt to changing conditions. Through lectures, laboratory activities, and discussions, this course offers a foundational understanding of biological concepts and scientific reasoning, preparing students for more advanced studies in the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Essential Biology with Physiology 5th Edition by Eric J. Simon
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Q1) The branch of biology that explains both the diversity and the unity of life is
A) evolution
B) microbiology
C) taxonomy
D) genetics
Answer: A
Q2) Taxonomy is the ________.
A) study of cells
B) naming and classifying of species
C) study of organisms and their interaction with the environment
D) study of genes
Answer: B
Q3) Humans are ________.
A) producers
B) producers and consumers
C) consumers
D) producers and decomposers
Answer: C
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Q1) Using the table above,what kind of cancer do you think Xofigo is used to treat?
A) liver cancer
B) bone cancer
C) brain cancer
D) lung cancer
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following would be the best experiment to determine whether this drug is an effective treatment option for cancer patients?
A) Give the drug to a single cancer patient and ask him how he feels several months later.
B) Give the drug to a group of mice that have artificially induced tumors and measure whether their tumors are destroyed.
C) Give the drug to a group of cancer patients and measure whether their tumors are destroyed.
D) Give the drug to a single cancer patient and measure whether her tumor is destroyed.
Answer: C
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Q1) What name is given to the following reaction? sucrose + water glucose + fructose
A) hydrogenation
B) hydrolysis
C) glycolysis
D) dehydration
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is hydrophilic?
A) cellulose
B) testosterone
C) butter
D) cholesterol
Answer: A
Q3) People with lactose intolerance do not have enough ________.
A) lactose
B) lactase
C) glucose
D) fructose
Answer: B
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Q1) What evidence suggests that mitochondria might have evolved before chloroplasts?
A) Mitochondria can sometimes divide to produce chloroplasts.
B) Only mitochondria have their own DNA.
C) Some mitochondria have chloroplasts inside of them.
D) Almost all eukaryotes have mitochondria but only some cells have chloroplasts.
Q2) What structures move proteins from the ER to the Golgi apparatus?
A) transport proteins
B) central vacuole
C) transport vesicles
D) nucleolus
Q3) Plants are susceptible to bacterial infections,which can damage their structure or even kill them.Which of the following would be the best antibiotic to treat a plant that is infected with bacteria?
A) a drug that interferes with mitochondria function
B) a drug that disrupts cell wall structure and function
C) a drug that destroys the central vacuole
D) a drug that blocks gene expression in circular chromosomes
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Q1) The act of a white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is ________.
A) osmosis
B) diffusion
C) exocytosis
D) phagocytosis
Q2) Which one of the following is TRUE?
A) An enzyme's function depends on its three-dimensional shape.
B) Enzymes work generally on a broad range of substrates.
C) Enzymes are used up in chemical reactions.
D) Enzymes emerge changed from the reactions they catalyze.
Q3) Diffusion is an example of ________.
A) phagocytosis
B) active transport
C) endocytosis
D) passive transport
Q4) Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction by ________.
A) increasing the temperature of the substrates
B) contributing electrons to the reaction
C) decreasing activation energy
D) changing the pH of the environment
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Q1) Which of these stages of cell respiration can occur without the others?
A) the electron transport chain
B) the citric acid cycle
C) lactic acid fermentation
D) glycolysis
Q2) The waste products of cellular respiration include ________.
A) water only
B) carbon dioxide only
C) water and carbon dioxide
D) water and glucose
Q3) The second stage of aerobic respiration is ________.
A) ATP production
B) the citric acid cycle
C) lactic acid fermentation
D) glycolysis
Q4) Which part of cellular respiration produces the most NADH?
A) electron transport chain
B) citric acid cycle
C) glycolysis
D) fermentation
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Q1) When a molecule absorbs a photon,one of its electrons is raised to the ________ state.
A) energetic
B) quantum
C) positive
D) excited
Q2) Which wavelength is best for your plants' growth?
A) 650 nm
B) 550 nm
C) 500 nm
D) 400 nm
Q3) The products of the light reactions of photosynthesis are ________.
A) ATP and NADH
B) ATP and NADPH
C) RuBP and O
D) ATP and NADP
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Q1) A(n)________ is an example of an organism that can sometimes reproduce asexually by parthenogenesis.
A) cat
B) human
C) Komodo dragon
D) mouse
Q2) During telophase,________.
A) the events of prophase are reversed
B) chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell
C) sister chromatids become separate chromosomes
D) the nuclear envelope breaks up
Q3) What chromosomes belong to a normal human male?
A) 22 autosomes and two Y chromosomes
B) 44 autosomes and two Y chromosomes
C) 44 autosomes, one X chromosome, and one Y chromosome
D) 46 autosomes, one X chromosome, and one Y chromosome
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Q1) A mating between a purebred purple-flowered pea plant and a purebred white-flowered pea plant would produce a(n)________.
A) purebred variety
B) hybrid
C) P generation
D) F generation
Q2) A dihybrid cross produces 30 recombinant offspring out of a total of 1,000 offspring.What is the recombination frequency of the two gene pairs?
A) 6%
B) 3%
C) 30%
D) 1.5%
Q3) To determine the phenotype of an individual who expresses a dominant trait,you would cross that individual with an individual who ________.
A) expresses the dominant trait
B) is homozygous recessive for that trait
C) is homozygous dominant for that trait
D) is heterozygous for that trait
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Q1) Where is translation accomplished?
A) lysosomes
B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C) ribosomes
D) nucleoli
Q2) How can bacteriophage DNA be spread from cell to cell without causing cell death?
A) by altering the way a cell splices its RNA
B) via a lytic cycle
C) via a lysogenic cycle
D) by changing the length of its DNA molecules
Q3) As an experiment,you infect bacteria with an unknown virus to see how the bacteriophage affects the bacteria.After a few days,you notice that the bacterial population is growing normally and that the cells appear healthy.Assuming that the infection occurred,what can you conclude from your observations?
A) The virus is a bacteriophage that is reproducing the lytic cycle.
B) The virus is a retrovirus that is reproducing the lytic cycle.
C) The virus is a bacteriophage that is reproducing the lysogenic cycle.
D) The virus is a retrovirus that is reproducing the lysogenic cycle.
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Q1) Which of these is most likely to cause the development of a six-legged frog?
A) mutation of homeotic genes
B) binding of repressors to operons
C) a mutation in DNA polymerase that affects all cells
D) conversion of a proto-oncogene to an oncogene
Q2) What happened when researchers added BPDE,a component of tobacco smoke,to human lung cells in a laboratory experiment?
A) The cells behaved normally.
B) The cells shrank in size.
C) The cells developed mutations in their p53 genes.
D) The cells required less energy to grow.
Q3) Which of these lifestyle choices will increase cancer risk?
A) jogging
B) spending less time in the sun
C) a diet low in plant fiber
D) quitting smoking
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Q1) Which of the following is a genetically modified organism?
A) an organism carrying a gene that was acquired by artificial means
B) the first organism in which a particular mutation has appeared
C) a cloned organism carrying two different alleles
D) an organism that gestated in an artificial womb
Q2) Which of the following best defines the term "transgenic organism"?
A) an organism that is the first of its kind to bear a particular allele
B) an organism in which a genetic defect has been corrected using recombinant DNA therapy
C) an organism containing a gene from another species
D) an organism containing genes from three or more species
Q3) The gel shown above includes a DNA ladder that can be used to estimate the sizes of DNA molecules.The ladder increases in 100 nucleotide increments,from 100 to 700.Four DNA molecules have been separated on this gel (labeled A to D.) What is the approximate size of DNA molecule A?
A) 250 nucleotides
B) 300 nucleotides
C) 350 nucleotides
D) 400 nucleotides
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Q1) Which of the following examples results from stabilizing selection?
A) The birth weight at which newborn humans are most likely to survive and the average weight of newborn humans are about the same.
B) There is an increase in antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria.
C) There is an increase in the number of different breeds of dog.
D) Garter snakes with different coloration patterns behave differently when threatened.
Q2) Which of the following examples results from disruptive selection?
A) The birth weight at which newborn humans are most likely to survive and the average weight of newborn humans are about the same.
B) There is an increase in antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria.
C) There is an increase in the number of different breeds of dog.
D) Garter snakes with different coloration patterns behave differently when threatened.
Q3) Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Natural selection works on variation already present in a population.
B) Natural selection works on nonheritable traits.
C) Individuals evolve through natural selection.
D) Individual organisms evolve structures that they need.
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Q1) Which one of the following is the only domain that contains eukaryotes?
A) Animalia
B) Plantae
C) Archaea
D) Eukarya
Q2) Dinosaurs (aside from the lineage that produced birds)were extinct by the end of the ________.
A) Cretaceous
B) Silurian
C) Eocene
D) Permian
Q3) The current geological era is the ________.
A) Paleozoic
B) Cenozoic
C) Mesozoic
D) Cambrian
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Q1) ________ is an example of bioremediation.
A) Cyanobacteria converting atmospheric nitrogen to a form that plants can use
B) The use of an autoclave to kill endospores
C) The use of prokaryotes to treat sewage
D) A dinoflagellate bloom causing massive fish kills
Q2) A photoautotrophic unicellular organism with a shell made of silica is most likely a(n)________.
A) apicomplexan
B) foram
C) dinoflagellate
D) diatom
Q3) Which protozoan group consists solely of parasitic forms?
A) apicomplexans
B) ciliates
C) flagellates
D) amoebas
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Q1) ________ were the first plants that did not require water for transferring sperm to eggs.
A) Bryophytes
B) Gymnosperms
C) Ferns
D) Angiosperms
Q2) Which aspect of truffle mushrooms drives their commercial importance?
A) size
B) smell
C) taste
D) texture
Q3) From the point of view of an angiosperm,what is the function of fruit?
A) It is where the male gametophyte develops.
B) It is a mechanism for the dispersal of seeds.
C) It provides nutrients to germinating seeds.
D) It attracts pollinators.
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Q1) The common ancestor of all animals is likely to have been a ________.
A) colonial, flagellated protist
B) colonial, ciliated protist
C) colonial, flagellated bacterium
D) sponge
Q2) Where did humans first appear?
A) South America
B) Africa
C) Asia
D) Europe
Q3) Nearly all ________ are aquatic.
A) crustaceans
B) arachnids
C) flatworms
D) roundworms
Q4) Annelids are most closely related to ________.
A) chordates
B) arthropods
C) molluscs
D) echinoderms

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Q1) What name is given to the seafloor?
A) pelagic realm
B) intertidal zone
C) benthic realm
D) aphotic zone
Q2) What level of ecology is concerned with both the biotic and abiotic aspects of an environment?
A) community
B) organism
C) ecosystem
D) population
Q3) What level of ecology is concerned with groups of individuals of the same species?
A) community
B) organism
C) ecosystem
D) population
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Q1) If a population's growth rate decreases as the population size approaches carrying capacity,the population's growth follows a(n)________ model.
A) exponential
B) boom-and-bust
C) logistic
D) density-independent
Q2) During a 1-year study,a graduate student attempted to count the wolves and moose on the island.He estimated that there were 950 moose and 120 wolves.How many organisms,populations,and species were included in this study?
A) organisms = 2; populations = 1; species = 2
B) organisms = 1,070; populations = 1; species = 2
C) organisms = 2; populations = 2; species = 1,070
D) organisms = 1,070; populations = 2; species = 2
Q3) An unexpected freeze that kills a population of chipmunks is an example of
A) a density-independent factor
B) a biological control
C) a density-dependent factor
D) a population momentum
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Q1) A movement corridor ________.
A) is a path used by migratory animals when they move to their winter habitats
B) is the path most commonly used by an animal within its home range
C) connects otherwise isolated patches of quality habitat for a species
D) is a natural component of the environment
Q2) Herbivory is an example of a ________ interaction.
A) +/+
B) -/-
C) 0/+
D) +/-
Q3) Populations of two coexisting species are both tertiary consumers in a community.What relationship may exist between these two organisms?
A) predation
B) mutualism
C) competition
D) succession
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Q1) Connective tissue is different from the other major tissue types in that ________.
A) it is made up of cells
B) the cells are sparsely scattered through an extracellular matrix
C) it is not made up of cells
D) it is found only in humans
Q2) In humans,goosebumps are a vestige of a mammalian adaptation related to
A) thermoregulation
B) water conservation
C) osmoregulation
D) positive feedback
Q3) When body temperature is too low,which of the following occurs?
A) Blood vessels in the skin constrict.
B) Muscles relax.
C) Sweat glands are activated.
D) Blood vessels at the body surface dilate and fill with blood.
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Q1) How many loaves of bread would an average person need to eat in order to get the FDA Daily Value of the vitamin needed to prevent photophobia?
A) 0.9
B) 1.4
C) 2.8
D) Bread does not contain this vitamin
Q2) What is the main digestive function of the pancreas?
A) It produces digestive enzymes and bile.
B) It produces bile.
C) It produces digestive enzymes and neutralizes stomach acids.
D) It secretes mucus into the small intestine.
Q3) Vitamins are ________.
A) organic molecules that are required in the diet in very small amounts
B) nutrients that we can synthesize from simpler molecules
C) important supplements for children, but not adults
D) required to synthesize most amino acids
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Q1) Heart Block is one type of electrical defect in the heart in which the electrical signal from the sinoatrial node to the relay point is delayed.Predict the effect of Heart Block on the cardiac cycle.
A) The atria relax for a shorter period of time.
B) The atria relax for a longer period of time.
C) The ventricles relax for a shorter period of time.
D) The ventricles relax for a longer period of time.
Q2) The Antarctic icefishes are the only known vertebrates to lack hemoglobin.Which of the following would be LEAST likely to alter gas transport from the environment to an icefish's cells?
A) higher oceanic temperatures from global warming
B) higher concentrations of carbon monoxide in the water from pollution
C) higher concentrations of carbon dioxide in the water from pollution
D) an injury that reduces the surface area of gills
Q3) The basic rhythm of the heartbeat is set by the ________.
A) systolic pressure
B) EKG
C) sinoatrial node
D) "fight-or-flight" hormone
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Q1) Herd immunity fails when what percentage of the population is NOT vaccinated?
A) 1%
B) 5%
C) 10%
D) 50%
Q2) A person's spleen may be removed (splenectomy)if it becomes enlarged due to certain types of cancer,traumatic injury,or damage.What part of the immune system will be most affected by a splenectomy?
A) internal innate immunity
B) external innate immunity
C) adaptive immunity
D) lymphatic system
Q3) The secondary response in the B cell response occurs when memory cells bind to ________.
A) antibodies
B) antigens
C) histamine
D) defensive proteins
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Q1) Many cases of pediatric thyroid cancer occurred after the 1986 Chernobyl nuclear accident in Ukraine and the cause was traced to milk containing iodine-131.Which of these might be the most effective method to prevent thyroid cancer increase following exposure to excessive radiation?
A) Do not allow anyone to drink any milk.
B) Give dairy cows large doses of iodine.
C) Give humans large doses of iodine before exposure.
D) Give people large doses of iodine a few days following exposure.
Q2) Epinephrine ________.
A) decreases metabolic rate
B) decreases heart rate
C) increases absorption of glucose by the digestive tract
D) increases breathing rate
Q3) When the concentration of glucose in the blood rises following the digestion of a meal,what is the hormonal response?
A) Increased amounts of both glucagon and insulin are released.
B) An increased amount of glucagon is released.
C) An increased amount of insulin is released.
D) Glucagon and insulin levels in the blood stay the same.
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Q1) What is gestation?
A) conception
B) fertilization
C) development
D) pregnancy
Q2) Which one of the following is the earliest event in the process of fertilization?
A) Sperm contact the jelly coat around the egg.
B) The sperm head plasma membrane fuses with the egg plasma membrane.
C) Enzymes from the acrosome are released.
D) The sperm nucleus enters the cytoplasm of the egg.
Q3) A sperm cell's acrosome ________.
A) contains the sperm's nucleus and is the part of the sperm that enters the egg during fertilization
B) fuses with the plasma membrane of the egg cell
C) contains enzymes that are released when the sperm encounters an egg and dissolves a hole in the jellylike matrix that surrounds the egg
D) contains the sperm's mitochondria
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Q1) A person who cannot focus well on distant objects has ________.
A) farsightedness
B) nearsightedness
C) astigmatism
D) cataracts
Q2) Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Cones are more sensitive to light than rods.
B) Rods can distinguish color.
C) There are three different types of cones in the human eye.
D) The human retina is completely covered with photoreceptors.
Q3) Which of the following is(are)part of the central nervous system?
A) motor system
B) brain and spinal cord
C) brain only
D) spinal cord only
Q4) Arthritis is a common result of aging,affecting persons' ability to ________.
A) catch their breath after exercise
B) move their joints
C) heal broken bones
D) produce red blood cells

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Q1) While on a hike,you notice that several burrs have become attached to your socks.You quickly pull them off.Inside the burr are several seeds.Burrs are produced by certain plants and frequently catch on animal fur (or people's clothing).After thinking about it,you decide that the burr is a type of ________ that is an adaptation for
A) leaf...protecting plants from herbivores
B) fruit...seed dispersal
C) cambium...seed protection
D) pollen grain...successful pollination
Q2) Which of the following is the usual trigger for seed germination?
A) water
B) warm temperatures
C) oxygen
D) sunlight
Q3) Which of the following are the tiny projections found on roots that increase the surface area?
A) root hairs
B) cotyledons
C) nodes
D) mesophyll
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Q1) What does a plant gain from a mycorrhizal relationship?
A) It allows roots to absorb water and solutes more rapidly.
B) It increases the surface area for photosynthesis.
C) It helps to break down complex molecules in the soil to release micronutrients.
D) It helps to break down decaying organic matter into essential plant nutrients.
Q2) A scientist finds seeds of an unknown plant on top of the soil in a desert.She measures the concentration of two hormones in these seeds.After it rains,she collects more of these seeds,and finds that the concentration of the two hormones has changed.A graph of her results is shown above.If the scientist returns to the desert to collect more seeds,a few days later,what should she observe?
A) The seeds that are still in the desert will be dormant.
B) The seeds that are still in the desert will be germinating.
C) The seeds that are still in the desert will be dead.
D) The seeds that are still in the desert will have increased levels of hormones 1 and 2.
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