
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Concepts of Biology provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles of biology, exploring the structure and function of living organisms, the basics of cellular biology, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Emphasizing scientific inquiry and the process of discovery, the course helps students understand how biological concepts apply to real-world situations and current issues. Through the study of core biological concepts, students gain an essential foundation for advanced studies in life sciences and develop critical thinking skills to analyze and appreciate the natural world.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Essential Biology with Physiology 4th Edition by Eric J. Simon
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Q1) Unequal reproductive success ______.
A) can lead to a population being less well adapted to its environment
B) increases variation
C) does not affect the frequency of expression of traits in succeeding generations of a population
D) can lead to natural selection
Answer: D
Q2) Antibiotic resistance evolves in bacteria because ______.
A) the presence of antibiotics favors bacteria that already have genes for resistance
B) farmers do not use enough antibiotics in animal feed
C) the antibiotics create resistance genes in bacteria
D) none of the above
Answer: A
Q3) Discovery science is primarily based on ______.
A) hypothesis testing
B) deduction
C) experimentation
D) observation
Answer: D
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Q1) An uncharged atom of gold has an atomic number of 79 and an atomic mass of 197.This atom has ______ protons,______ neutrons,and ______ electrons.
A) 79... 118... 79
B) 118... 79... 118
C) 118... 276... 118
D) 79... 34... 79
Answer: A
Q2) Sulfur has an atomic number of 16.How many covalent bonds can sulfur form?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 0
Answer: B
Q3) The lower the pH of a solution,the ______.
A) greater the number of oxygen atoms
B) more acidic the solution
C) less toxic the solution
D) higher the OH<sup>-</sup> concentration
Answer: B
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Q1) Nucleic acids are polymers of ______ monomers.
A) monosaccharide
B) fatty acid
C) DNA
D) nucleotide
Answer: D
Q2) In the following reaction,galactose is a ______. galactose + glucose lactose + water
A) polysaccharide
B) monomer
C) polymer
D) protein
Answer: B
Q3) A protein's function is dependent on its ______.
A) pH
B) shape
C) size
D) weight
Answer: B
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Q1) Some ribosomes are suspended in the cytosol of a cell,whereas other ribosomes
A) make proteins inside the nucleus
B) are found on the plasma membrane
C) are attached to the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D) are attached to the outside of the nucleus
Q2) Where does protein synthesis take place?
A) in the nucleolus
B) on smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C) on ribosomes
D) in the nucleus
Q3) What structures move proteins from the ER to the Golgi apparatus?
A) transport proteins
B) central vacuole
C) transport vesicles
D) nucleolus
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Q1) The sum total of all the chemical reactions that occur in organisms is called ______.
A) summation
B) cellular synthesis
C) replication
D) metabolism
Q2) Which of the following is most like a signal transduction pathway in a cell?
A) a person answering the door to their home after someone rings the doorbell
B) a person parking a car in a parking space
C) catching fish using a fishing pole
D) a physician removing a thorn from a person's foot
Q3) Anything that prevents ATP formation will most likely ______.
A) result in cell death
B) force the cell to rely on lipids for energy
C) force the cell to rely on ADP for energy
D) have no effect on the cell
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Q1) The waste products of cellular respiration include ______.
A) water only
B) carbon dioxide only
C) water and carbon dioxide
D) water and glucose
Q2) The first electron acceptor of cellular respiration is ______.
A) CO<sub>2</sub>
B) O<sub>2</sub>
C) NAD<sup>+</sup>
D) H<sub>2</sub>O
Q3) Human muscle cells use lactic acid fermentation to
A) produce more ATP than is possible through aerobic respiration.
B) produce ATP using the electron transport chain.
C) regenerate NADH.
D) produce ATP without O<sub>2.</sub>
Q4) Where in the cell does glycolysis occur?
A) cytoplasm
B) ER
C) within the fluid just inside the inner mitochondrial membrane
D) between the inner and outer mitochondrial membrane
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Q1) The first step of the Calvin cycle is the incorporation of ______ into ______.
A) O<sub>2</sub>... G3P
B) RuBP... O<sub>2</sub>
C) CO<sub>2</sub>... RuBP
D) G3P... RuBP
Q2) In photosynthesis,redox reactions ultimately transfer electrons from ______ to ______.
A) O<sub>2</sub>... CO<sub>2</sub>
B) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>... O<sub>2</sub>
C) H<sub>2</sub>O... C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>
D) H<sub>2</sub>O... CO<sub>2</sub>
Q3) In photosynthesis,an H<sup>+</sup> ion gradient forms across the ______.
A) thylakoid membrane
B) outer chloroplast membrane
C) endomembrane
D) inner chloroplast membrane
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Q1) During metaphase I,______.
A) crossing over occurs
B) homologous chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell
C) the nuclear envelope breaks up
D) sister chromatids separate and migrate to opposite poles
Q2) The cell cycle results in the production of ______.
A) four cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information
B) two cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information
C) two cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information
D) four cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information
Q3) The correct sequence of stages of mitosis is ______.
A) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
B) telophase, prophase, interphase, anaphase, metaphase
C) anaphase, interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
D) interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
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Q1) The best definition of a purebred plant is one that ______.
A) cannot be cross-fertilized
B) self-fertilizes to produce offspring identical to the parent
C) produces sterile offspring when cross-fertilized
D) self-fertilizes to produce hybrid offspring
Q2) Linked genes are usually
A) found on the X chromosome.
B) found on the Y chromosome.
C) codominant.
D) located close together on a chromosome.
Q3) In humans,the inheritance of ______ is best explained as being polygenic.
A) cystic fibrosis
B) height
C) blood type
D) sickle-cell disease
Q4) An individual who is homozygous ______.
A) expresses the dominant trait
B) carries two different alleles for a gene
C) carries two copies of the same allele for a gene
D) expresses the recessive trait
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Q1) Which of the following enzymes is responsible for RNA synthesis?
A) RNase
B) RNA helicase
C) RNA ligase
D) RNA polymerase
Q2) Thymine and cytosine differ from adenine and guanine in that
A) thymine and cytosine are single-ring structures, whereas adenine and guanine are double-ring structures.
B) thymine and cytosine are only found in DNA, whereas adenine and guanine are found in both DNA and RNA.
C) thymine and cytosine are only found in DNA, whereas adenine and guanine are only found in RNA.
D) thymine and cytosine are larger nitrogenous bases.
Q3) The shared genetic code of all life on Earth is evidence that ______.
A) the genetic code arose relatively late in the history of life on Earth
B) DNA replication is error-free
C) all life shares a common ancestry
D) bacterial cells arose earlier than eukaryotic cells
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Q1) Data suggest that the normal version of BRCA1 functions as a(n)______.
A) oncogene
B) tumor-suppressor gene
C) proto-oncogene
D) silencer
Q2) More people die of ______ cancer than of any other cancer.
A) lung
B) skin
C) pancreatic
D) breast
Q3) How can a single RNA transcript be translated into different polypeptides?
A) There is more than one way to splice an RNA transcript.
B) There is more than one way to modify the coded polypeptide.
C) The length of its tail can vary.
D) Two different genes can produce the same RNA transcript, which will then be translated differently.
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Q1) Ethical dilemmas raised by DNA technology and knowledge of the human genome include ______.
A) the potential for interfering in evolution
B) the safety of GM foods
C) the potential discrimination against people predisposed to certain diseases
D) all of the above
Q2) Restriction enzymes are obtained from ______.
A) archaea
B) eukaryotes
C) viruses
D) bacteria
Q3) Which of the following best defines the term transgenic organism?
A) an organism that is the first of its kind to bear a particular allele
B) an organism in which a genetic defect has been corrected using recombinant DNA therapy
C) an organism containing a gene from another species
D) an organism containing genes from three or more species
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Q1) The original source of genetic variation that serves as the raw material for natural selection is ______.
A) mutation
B) gene flow
C) sexual recombination
D) random fertilization
Q2) Which of the following is most likely to decrease genetic variation?
A) directional selection
B) mutation
C) stabilizing selection
D) diversifying selection
Q3) Which of the following is a population?
A) the termites infesting your house along with the microorganisms living in their guts
B) all of the termites that have ever lived
C) all organisms living in your house
D) the termites infesting your house
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Q1) Applying the biological species concept,the production of ligers reveals that ______.
A) a new species called ligers is forming
B) tigers and lions are actually the same species
C) tigers and lions are separate species
D) lions are probably a subspecies of tigers
Q2) Uranium-235,with a half-life of 713,000,000 years,decays to lead-207.If a rock sample is determined to have one-quarter of the uranium-235 content it had when it formed,the age of the rock sample can be estimated to be approximately ______ years old.
A) 178 million
B) 713 million
C) 28.5 billion
D) 1.4 billion
Q3) Which one of the following is the only domain that contains eukaryotes?
A) Animalia
B) Plantae
C) Archaea
D) Eukarya
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Q1) Animal life underwent its greatest diversification during the ______,which began about ______ million years ago.
A) Permian... 290
B) Cambrian... 540
C) Carboniferous... 363
D) Mesozoic... 245
Q2) Why do so many children in developing countries die of malaria?
A) The costs of treatment and prevention are too high.
B) They are more susceptible to the disease.
C) There is no cure for malaria.
D) Malaria is only found in developing countries today.
Q3) ______ is an example of bioremediation.
A) Cyanobacteria converting atmospheric nitrogen to a form that plants can use
B) The use of an autoclave to kill endospores
C) The use of prokaryotes to treat sewage
D) A dinoflagellate bloom causing massive fish kills
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Q1) In angiosperms,the ______ is a nutrient-storing tissue that nourishes a developing embryo.
A) fruit
B) seed
C) carpels
D) endosperm
Q2) From the point of view of an angiosperm,what is the function of fruit?
A) It is where the male gametophyte develops.
B) It is a mechanism for the dispersal of seeds.
C) It provides nutrients to germinating seeds.
D) It attracts pollinators.
Q3) In angiosperms,the male gametophyte develops within ______.
A) male cones
B) filaments
C) anthers
D) archegonia
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Q1) Features unique to mammals include ______.
A) the presence of hair
B) extended parental care of the young
C) being endotherms
D) having no egg-laying members
Q2) ______ are characterized by stinging cells used for defense and for capturing prey.
A) Annelids
B) Sponges
C) Cnidarians
D) Roundworms
Q3) What is a feature of birds that makes them valuable as biological indicators?
A) Many migrate long distances.
B) Many are brightly colored.
C) There are over 10,000 different species of birds.
D) Birdwatching is a popular hobby.
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Q1) Which nutrients often limit the distribution and abundance of photosynthetic organisms?
A) water and oxygen
B) nitrogen and phosphorus
C) carbon dioxide and nitrogen
D) water and carbon dioxide
Q2) ______ are the dominant herbivores of savanna ecosystems.
A) Antelopes
B) Zebras
C) Buffalo
D) Insects
Q3) What name is given to the region where sea meets land?
A) pelagic realm
B) intertidal zone
C) benthic realm
D) aphotic zone
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Q1) Non-native species can have important effects on biological communities by ______.
A) preying upon native species
B) competing with native species for resources
C) reducing biodiversity
D) doing all of the above
Q2) Which population is growing at the fastest rate?
A) Population A
B) Population B
C) Population C
Q3) According to the logistic growth model,what happens to a population when the size of the population reaches carrying capacity?
A) The growth rate remains unchanged.
B) The population begins to decrease in size.
C) The population crashes.
D) The growth rate is zero.
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Q1) The present rate of species loss ______.
A) suggests that about 25% of all plant and animal species may be extinct by the end of the century
B) is about the same as it has been during the last 100,000 years
C) is as much as 100 times higher than at any time in the last 100,000 years
D) is slower than in recent years because of conservation efforts
Q2) Humans,mosquitoes,and Plasmodium together would be considered a(n)______.
A) population
B) community
C) ecosystem
D) population and community
Q3) Organisms that consume producers are ______.
A) detritivores
B) decomposers
C) primary consumers
D) producers
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Q1) Which type of tissue forms a communication and coordination system within the body?
A) nervous
B) blood
C) connective
D) muscle
Q2) A diuretic is a substance that ______.
A) promotes sweating
B) regulates the contraction of cardiac muscle
C) inhibits urinary water loss
D) promotes urinary water loss
Q3) Most homeostatic mechanisms depend on ______.
A) positive and negative feedback
B) negative feedback
C) predictable environmental conditions
D) predictable internal conditions
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Q1) How does Helicobacter pylori cause gastric ulcers in humans?
A) It neutralizes the acids of the stomach.
B) It causes the production of excess acid in the stomach.
C) It damages the stomach's mucus coat.
D) It causes the stomach to produce stronger acids.
Q2) The stomach's gastric glands secrete ______.
A) digestive enzymes only
B) hydrochloric acid only
C) digestive enzymes and hydrochloric acid
D) mucus, digestive enzymes, and hydrochloric acid
Q3) The tongue does all of the following except ______.
A) taste food
B) shape food into a ball
C) secrete saliva
D) push food into the pharynx
Q4) Digestion begins in the ______.
A) oral cavity
B) esophagus
C) pharynx
D) stomach
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Q1) Insects breathe using ______.
A) lungs
B) tracheae
C) their entire outer skin
D) book lungs
Q2) In humans,oxygen is delivered to the cells of the body by ______.
A) a closed circulatory system
B) an open circulatory system
C) diffusion
D) diffusion and facilitated diffusion
Q3) Blood pressure is lowest in ______.
A) veins
B) capillaries
C) arterioles
D) venules
Q4) Together,inhalation and exhalation are referred to as ______.
A) diffusion
B) breathing
C) active transport
D) negative pressure
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Q1) A substance that can elicit an immune response from a lymphocyte is called a(n)______.
A) interferon
B) pathogen
C) antibody
D) antigen
Q2) The primary immune response ______.
A) results in the production of short-lived effector cells via clonal selection
B) results in the production of short-lived memory cells via clonal selection
C) peaks about two days after first exposure
D) triggers the secondary immune response
Q3) Histamine ______.
A) causes local blood vessels to constrict
B) attracts natural killer cells
C) stimulates the release of complement proteins
D) attracts phagocytic cells
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Q1) Which gland requires the element iodine to produce its hormones?
A) thyroid
B) pineal
C) anterior pituitary
D) ovary
Q2) Soon after eating a calcium-rich breakfast of yogurt and fortified cereal,your blood levels of calcium increase,stimulating the release of ______.
A) insulin
B) parathyroid hormone
C) glucocorticoids
D) calcitonin
Q3) Which of the following glands is located nearest the kidneys?
A) ovaries
B) pineal gland
C) parathyroid glands
D) adrenal glands
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Q1) What moves the human egg through the oviduct?
A) the beating of the egg's cilia
B) rhythmic contractions of the oviduct
C) rhythmic contractions of the uterus
D) the beating of cilia in the oviduct
Q2) Which of the following results from cleavage?
A) formation of the nervous system
B) formation of the notochord
C) more cells
D) segmentation
Q3) In a human female reproductive system,the ______.
A) hymen partly covers the cervical opening
B) vagina secretes hormones that help maintain the uterine lining
C) labia minora are a pair of thick, fatty ridges that protect the entire genital region
D) outer features are collectively called the vulva
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Q1) Functionally,what is the muscle fiber's fundamental unit of contraction?
A) thick filament
B) thin filament
C) myofibril
D) sarcomere
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Heroin binds to endorphin receptors.
B) Caffeine promotes the inhibitory neurotransmitters.
C) Alcohol is a stimulant.
D) Valium blocks the receptors for inhibitory neurotransmitters.
Q3) You start to trip,but you keep your balance and don't fall.Which of the following brain regions is responsible for the rapid coordination of muscle activity that kept you from falling?
A) cerebral cortex
B) thalamus
C) cerebellum
D) cerebrum
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Q1) Which of the following form tubes and are alive when mature?
A) parenchyma cells
B) collenchyma cells
C) water-conducting cells
D) food-conducting cells
Q2) The main parts of a flower are modified versions of which of the following?
A) stems
B) rhizomes
C) internodes
D) leaves
Q3) Which of the following is the waxy coating secreted on leaves and most stems?
A) cuticle
B) lignin
C) endodermis
D) epidermis
Q4) Which of the following do guard cells act to regulate?
A) stomata
B) cuticle
C) epidermis
D) root hairs
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Q1) Which one of the following is a plant micronutrient?
A) iron
B) oxygen
C) sulfur
D) phosphorus
Q2) Which of the following best describes the opening and closing of the stomata in most plants?
A) They are open during the day and closed at night.
B) They are open at night and closed during the day.
C) They are open almost all of the time.
D) They are closed except for brief periods of time during the day.
Q3) Which of the following best describes the condition of a twig if the auxin produced by its apical meristem is conveyed equally down all sides?
A) It will elongate.
B) It will branch near its tip.
C) It will produce a flower.
D) It will bend to one side.
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