Computer Security
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Computer Security is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the fundamental principles and practices of protecting computer systems and information from unauthorized access, attacks, and damage. The course covers key topics such as cryptography, network security, malware detection, authentication mechanisms, access control, security policies, and risk assessment. Through a combination of theoretical knowledge and practical exercises, students learn to analyze security threats, implement security measures, and evaluate system vulnerabilities. The course also addresses ethical considerations and current trends in cybersecurity, preparing students to understand and tackle real-world security challenges in modern computing environments.
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Computer Security Principles and Practice 3rd Edition by William Stallings
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Computer Systems Overview
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Q1) The _________ prevents or inhibits the normal use or management of communications facilities.
A)passive attack
B)denial of service
C)traffic encryption
D)masquerade
Answer: B
Q2) A(n)_________ is an attempt to learn or make use of information from the system that does not affect system resources.
A)passive attack
B)outside attack
C)inside attack
D)active attack
Answer: A
Q3) A loss of _________ is the disruption of access to or use of information or an information system.
Answer: availability
Q4) A(n)_________ is any means taken to deal with a security attack.
Answer: countermeasure
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Chapter 2: Cryptographic Tools
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Q1) The two criteria used to validate that a sequence of numbers is random are independence and _________ .
Answer: uniform distribution
Q2) The strength of a hash function against brute-force attacks depends solely on the length of the hash code produced by the algorithm.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A __________ is to try every possible key on a piece of ciphertext until an intelligible translation into plaintext is obtained.
A)mode of operation
B)hash function
C)cryptanalysis
D)brute-force attack
Answer: D
Q4) The simplest approach to multiple block encryption is known as __________ mode,in which plaintext is handled b bits at a time and each block of plaintext is encrypted using the same key.
Answer: electronic codebook (ECB)
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Chapter 3: User Authentication
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Q1) Voice pattern,handwriting characteristics,and typing rhythm are examples of __________ biometrics.
Answer: dynamic
Q2) An institution that issues debit cards to cardholders and is responsible for the cardholder's account and authorizing transactions is the _________.
A)cardholder
B)issuer
C)auditor
D)processor
Answer: B
Q3) __________,in the context of passwords,refers to an adversary's attempt to learn the password by observing the user,finding a written copy of the password,or some similar attack that involves the physical proximity of user and adversary.
Answer: Eavesdropping
Q4) A __________ authentication system attempts to authenticate an individual based on his or her unique physical characteristics.
Answer: biometric
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Chapter 4: Access Control
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Q1) The __________ user ID is exempt from the usual file access control constraints and has system wide access.
Q2) Basic access control systems typically define three classes of subject: owner,__________ and world.
Q3) The authentication function determines who is trusted for a given purpose.
A)True
B)False
Q4) __________ controls access based on comparing security labels with security clearances.
A)MAC
B)DAC
C)RBAC
D)MBAC
Q5) __________ access control controls access based on the roles that users have within the system and on rules stating what accesses are allowed to users in given roles.
Q6) The three types of attributes in the ABAC model are subject attributes,object attributes,and _________ attributes.
Q7) In digital identity systems,a __________ functions as a certification program.
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Chapter 5: Database and Cloud Security
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Q1) __________ is an organization that receives the encrypted data from a data owner and makes them available for distribution to clients.
A)User
B)Client
C)Data owner
D)Server
Q2) The __________ cloud infrastructure is a composition of two or more clouds that remain unique entities but are bound together by standardized or proprietary technology that enables data and application portability.
A)hybrid
B)community
C)private
D)public
Q3) A query language provides a uniform interface to the database.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A __________ cloud infrastructure is made available to the general public or a large industry group and is owned by an organization selling cloud services.
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Chapter 6: Malicious Software
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Q1) Every bot has a distinct IP address.
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________ is the first function in the propagation phase for a network worm.
A)Propagating
B)Fingerprinting
C)Keylogging
D)Spear phishing
Q3) A Trojan horse is an apparently useful program containing hidden code that, when invoked,performs some harmful function.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Packet sniffers are mostly used to retrieve sensitive information like usernames and passwords.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A logic bomb is the event or condition that determines when the payload is activated or delivered.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Denial-Of-Service Attacks
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Q1) A _______ flood refers to an attack that bombards Web servers with HTTP requests.
Q2) The ______ attacks the ability of a network server to respond to TCP connection requests by overflowing the tables used to manage such connections.
A)DNS amplification attack
B)SYN spoofing attack
C)basic flooding attack
D)poison packet attack
Q3) The best defense against broadcast amplification attacks is to block the use of _______ broadcasts.
Q4) The attacker needs access to a high-volume network connection for a SYN spoof attack.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When a DoS attack is detected,the first step is to _______.
A)identify the attack
B)analyze the response
C)design blocking filters
D)shut down the network
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Chapter 8: Intrusion Detection
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Q1) A common location for a NIDS sensor is just inside the external firewall.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _________ involves the collection of data relating to the behavior of legitimate users over a period of time.
A)Profile based detection
B)Signature detection
C)Threshold detection
D)Anomaly detection
Q3) The functional components of an _________ are: data source,sensor,analyzer,administration,manager,and operator.
Q4) ________ are decoy systems that are designed to lure a potential attacker away from critical systems.
Q5) The _________ to an IDS enables a user to view output from the system or control the behavior of the system.
Q6) The IDS component responsible for collecting data is the user interface.
A)True
B)False
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Firewalls and Intrusion Prevention Systems
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Q1) An intruder transmitting packets from the outside with a source IP address field containing an address of an internal host is known as IP address _________.
Q2) _________ control controls how particular services are used.
A)Service
B)Behavior
C)User
D)Direction
Q3) An important aspect of a distributed firewall configuration is security monitoring.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A DMZ is one of the internal firewalls protecting the bulk of the enterprise network.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The countermeasure to tiny fragment attacks is to discard packets with an inside source address if the packet arrives on an external interface.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Snort Inline adds three new rule types: drop,reject,and _________.
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Chapter 10: Buffer Overflow
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Q1) Shellcode has to be __________,which means it cannot contain any absolute address referring to itself.
Q2) The function of ________ was to transfer control to a user command-line interpreter,which gave access to any program available on the system with the privileges of the attacked program.
A)shellcode
B)stacking
C)no-execute
D)memory management
Q3) In the classic __________ overflow,the attacker overwrites a buffer located in the local variable area of a stack frame and then overwrites the saved frame pointer and return address.
Q4) The buffer is located __________ .
A)in the heap
B)on the stack
C)in the data section of the process
D)all of the above
Q5) Stack buffer overflow attacks were first seen in the Aleph One Worm.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Software Security
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Q1) There is a problem anticipating and testing for all potential types of non-standard inputs that might be exploited by an attacker to subvert a program.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The intent of ________ is to determine whether the program or function correctly handles all abnormal inputs or whether it crashes or otherwise fails to respond appropriately.
A)shell scripting
B)fuzzing
C)canonicalization
D)deadlocking
Q3) Without suitable synchronization of accesses it is possible that values may be corrupted,or changes lost,due to over-lapping access,use,and replacement of shared values.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A ________ occurs when multiple processes and threads compete to gain uncontrolled access to some resource.
Q5) Program input data may be broadly classified as textual or ______.
Q6) _________ attacks are most commonly seen in scripted Web applications.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Operating System Security
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Q1) ______ virtualization systems are more common in clients,where they run along side other applications on the host OS,and are used to support applications for alternate operating system versions or types.
Q2) ______ is a reactive control that can only inform you about bad things that have already happened.
Q3) The purpose of the system does not need to be taken into consideration during the system security planning process.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most large software systems do not have security weaknesses.
A)True
B)False
Q5) _______ systems should validate all patches on test systems before deploying them to production systems.
Q6) Configuration information in Windows systems is centralized in the _______,which forms a database of keys and values.
Q7) You should run automatic updates on change-controlled systems. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Trusted Computing and Multilevel Security
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Q1) _________ secure is a class of system that has system resources at more than one security level and that permits concurrent access by users who differ in security clearance and need-to-know,but is able to prevent each user from accessing resources for which the user lacks authorization.
Q2) The ________ is the government agency that monitors the evaluation process. A)sponsor
B)certifier
C)evaluator
D)developer
Q3) A multilevel secure system for confidentiality must enforce:
A)no read up
B)ss-property
C)no write down
D)all of the above
Q4) "No write down" is also referred to as the *-property.
A)True
B)False
Q5) "No read up" is also referred to as the _________ property.
Q6) A subject is said to have a security _________ of a given level.
Q7) An object is said to have a security ________ of a given level.
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Chapter 14: It Security Management and Risk Assessment
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Q1) _________ is a process used to achieve and maintain appropriate levels of confidentiality,integrity,availability,accountability,authenticity,and reliability.
Q2) The four approaches to identifying and mitigating risks to an organization's IT infrastructure are: baseline approach,detailed risk analysis,combined approach,and __________ approach.
Q3) A ________ is anything that might hinder or present an asset from providing appropriate levels of the key security services.
A)vulnerability
B)threat
C)risk
D)control
Q4) Organizational security objectives identify what IT security outcomes should be achieved.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Once the IT management process is in place and working the process never needs to be repeated.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: It Security Controls,plans,and Procedures
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Q1) A contingency plan for systems critical to a large organization would be _________ than that for a small business.
A)smaller,less detailed
B)larger,less detailed
C)larger,more detailed
D)smaller,more detailed
Q2) Operational controls range from simple to complex measures that work together to secure critical and sensitive data,information,and IT systems functions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Maintenance of security controls,security compliance checking,change and configuration management,and incident handling are all included in the follow-up stage of the _________ process.
A)management
B)security awareness and training
C)maintenance
D)all of the above
Q4) ______ checking is an audit process to review the organization's security processes.
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Chapter 16: Physical and Infrastructure Security
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Q1) Misuse of the physical infrastructure includes vandalism,theft of equipment,theft by copying,theft of services,and unauthorized entry.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Relative humidity should be maintained between ________ to avoid the threats from both low and high humidity.
A)20% and 80%
B)40% and 60%
C)50% and 50%
D)30% and 70%
Q3) Physical security threats are organized into three categories: environmental threats,human-caused threats,and _________ threats.
Q4) Physical access control should address not just computers and other IS equipment but also locations of wiring used to connect systems,equipment and distribution systems,telephone and communications lines,backup media,and documents.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The most essential element of recovery from physical security breaches is ____.
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Chapter 17: Human Resources Security
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Q1) Security basics and literacy is required for those employees,including contractor employees,who are involved in any way with IT systems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Many companies incorporate specific e-mail and Internet use policies into the organization's security policy document.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In general,a(n)________ program seeks to inform and focus an employee's attention on issues related to security within the organization.
Q4) Awareness is used to explain the rules of behavior for using an agency's information systems and information and establishes a level of expectation on the acceptable use of the information and information systems.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A(n)_______ is a characteristic of a piece of technology that can be exploited to perpetrate a security incident.
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Chapter 18: Security Auditing
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Q1) The ________ is a module on a centralized system that collects audit trail records from other systems and creates a combined audit trail.
A)audit dispatcher
B)audit analyzer
C)audit trail collector
D)audit provider
Q2) According to ISO 27002,the person(s)carrying out the audit should be independent of the activities audited.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Data items to capture for a security audit trail include:
A)events related to the security mechanisms on the system
B)operating system access
C)remote access
D)all of the above
Q4) The first order of business in security audit trail design is the selection of data items to capture.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The audit _______ are a permanent store of security-related events on a system.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Legal and Ethical Aspects
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Q1) The three types of patents are: utility patents,design patents,and ________.
Q2) A servicemark is the same as a trademark except that it identifies and distinguishes the source of a service rather than a product.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The legal and ethical aspects of computer security encompass a broad range of topics.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Computers as targets is a form of crime that involves an attack on data integrity,system integrity,data confidentiality,privacy,or availability.
A)True
B)False
Q5) _______ or cybercrime,is a term used broadly to describe criminal activity in which computers or computer networks are a tool,a target,or a place of criminal activity.
Q6) The ___________ Act places restrictions on online organizations in the collection of data from children under the age of 13.
Q7) The right to seek civil recourse against anyone infringing his or her property is granted to the ________.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Symmetric Encryption and Message
Confidentiality
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Q1) A ________ is a key used between entities for the purpose of distributing session keys.
A)permanent key
B)session key
C)distribution key
D)all of the above
Q2) The _______ module performs end-to-end encryption and obtains session keys on behalf of users.
A)PKM
B)RCM
C)SSM
D)CCM
Q3) For stream-oriented transmission over noisy channel you would typically use _______ mode.
A)ECB
B)CTR
C)OFB
D)CBC
Q4) A symmetric encryption scheme has five ingredients: plaintext,encryption algorithm,ciphertext,decryption algorithm and _________.
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Chapter 21: Public-Key Cryptography and Message
Authentication
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Q1) NIST has published FIPS PUB 186,which is known as the ___________.
Q2) SHA-3 algorithms must be designed to resist any potentially successful attack on SHA-2 functions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The evaluation criteria for the new hash function are: security,_______,and algorithm and implementation characteristics.
Q4) _________ attacks have several approaches,all equivalent in effort to factoring the product of two primes.
A)Mathematical
B)Brute-force
C)Chosen ciphertext
D)Timing
Q5) The appeal of HMAC is that its designers have been able to prove an exact relationship between the strength of the embedded hash function and the strength of HMAC.
A)True
B)False
Q6) One of the simplest hash functions is the ________ of every block.
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Chapter 22: Internet Security Protocols and Standards
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Q1) The default algorithms used for signing S/MIME messages are SHA-1 and the
Q2) Transport mode provides protection primarily for lower-layer protocols.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The recipient of a message can decrypt the signature using DSS and the sender's public DSS key.
A)True
B)False
Q4) MIME is an extension to the old RFC 822 specification of an Internet mail format.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A _________ is formed by taking the message digest of the content to be signed and then encrypting that with the private key of the signer.
Q6) A security association is uniquely identified by three parameters: security parameter index,protocol identifier,and ________________.
Q7) The _________ is used to convey SSL-related alerts to the peer entity.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Internet Authentication Applications
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Q1) _______ is an XML-based language for the exchange of security information between online business partners.
Q2) The _______ consists of two dates: the first and last on which the certificate is valid.
A)version
B)period of validity
C)extension
D)unique identifier
Q3) The ticket-granting ticket is not reusable.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The approach taken by Kerberos is using authentication software tied to a secure authentication server.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Initialization begins the process of enrolling in a PKI.
A)True
B)False
Q6) In a generic identity management architecture a ________ is an identity holder.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Wireless Network Security
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Q1) The security requirements are: confidentiality,integrity,availability,authenticity,and
Q2) The wireless environment consists of three components that provide point of attack: the wireless client,the transmission medium,and the _________.
Q3) A(n)__________ is any entity that has station functionality and provides access to the distribution system via the wireless medium for associated stations.
A)ESS
B)access point
C)distribution system
D)MPDU
Q4) WPA2 incorporates all of the features of the IEEE 802.11i WLAN security specifications.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The final form of the 802.11i standard is referred to as ________.
A)WEP
B)RSN
C)Wi-Fi
D)WPA
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