Course Introduction
Computer Security
Test Questions
Computer Security is an essential course that covers the principles, practices, and technologies used to protect computer systems and data from threats and vulnerabilities. The course introduces students to core topics including cryptography, authentication mechanisms, access control models, network security protocols, and the identification and mitigation of common security risks such as viruses, malware, and cyber-attacks. Students will explore concepts such as secure software development, incident response, legal and ethical issues, and emerging trends in cybersecurity. Through theoretical study and practical exercises, the course aims to equip students with the knowledge and skills necessary to design, implement, and manage secure computing environments.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Information Security 6th Edition by Michael E. Whitman
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Information Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ security addresses the issues necessary to protect the tangible items, objects, or areas of an organization from unauthorized access and misuse.
A) Physical
B) Personal
C) Object
D) Standard
Answer: A
Q2) The protection of tangible items, objects, or areas from unauthorized access and misuse is known as ___________.
A) communications security
B) network security
C) physical security
D) information security
Answer: C
Q3) ____________________ enables authorized users-people or computer systems-to access information without interference or obstruction and to receive it in the required format.
Answer: Availability
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Chapter 2: The Need for Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) A number of technical mechanisms-digital watermarks and embedded code, copyright codes, and even the intentional placement of bad sectors on software media-have been used to deter or prevent the theft of software intellectual property.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) ____________________ is the premeditated, politically motivated attacks against information, computer systems, computer programs, and data that result in violence against noncombatant targets by subnational groups or clandestine agents.
A) infoterrorism
B) cyberterrorism
C) hacking
D) cracking
Answer: B
Q3) DoS attacks cannot be launched against routers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Legal, Ethical, and Professional Issues in Information Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ Act of 2001 provides law enforcement agencies with broader latitude in order to combat terrorism-related activities.
Answer: U.S.A. PATRIOT
USA PATRIOT
Q2) Which of the following acts is a collection of statutes that regulate the interception of wire, electronic, and oral communications
A) Electronic Communications Privacy Act
B) Financial Services Modernization Act
C) Sarbanes-Oxley Act
D) Economic Espionage Act
Answer: A
Q3) Key studies reveal that the overriding factor in leveling the ethical perceptions within a small population is __________.
Answer: education
Q4) The __________ Act of 1986 is a collection of statutes that regulates the interception of wire, electronic, and oral communications.
Answer: Electronic Communications Privacy
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Chapter 4: Planning for Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stated purpose of ISO/IEC 27002 is to offer guidelines and voluntary directions for information security <u>management</u>. _________________________
A)True
B)False
Q2) What three purposes does the ISSP serve
Q3) Summarize the strategies that can be chosen by an organization when planning for business continuity.
Q4) A(n) <u>differential</u> backup only archives the files that have been modified that day, and thus requires less space and time than a full backup.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A(n) ____________________ plan ensures that critical business functions continue if a catastrophic incident or disaster occurs.
Q6) Managerial controls set the direction and scope of the security process and provide detailed instructions for its conduct.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Risk Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) One advantage to benchmarking is that best practices change very little over time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The first phase of risk management is _________.
A) risk identification
B) design
C) risk control
D) risk evaluation
Q3) <u>Process</u>-based measures are comparisons based on observed numerical data, such as numbers of successful attacks. _________________________
A)True
B)False
Q4) ____________________ is the process of comparing other organizations' activities against the practices used in one's own organization to produce results it would like to duplicate.
Q5) A(n) ____________________ policy requires that employees secure all information in appropriate storage containers at the end of each day.
Q6) What is a cost-benefit analysis (CBA) and how can it be calculated
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Chapter 6: Security Technology: Access Controls, Firewalls, and VPNS
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Sample Questions
Q1) In <u>static </u>filtering, configuration rules must be manually created, sequenced, and modified within the firewall. _________________________
A)True
B)False
Q2) A content filter, also known as a reverse firewall, is a network device that allows administrators to restrict access to external content from within a network.
A)True
B)False
Q3) It is important that e-mail traffic reach your e-mail server and only your e-mail server.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Using an application firewall means the associated Web server must be exposed to a higher level of risk by placing it in the DMZ.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The architecture of a(n) ____________________ firewall provides a DMZ.
Page 8
Q6) SESAME uses ____________________ key encryption to distribute secret keys.
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Chapter 7: Security Technology: Intrusion
Detection and Prevention Systems, and Other Security Tools
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following ports is commonly used for the HTTP protocol
A) 20
B) 25
C) 53
D) 80
Q2) A(n) __________ port, also known as a monitoring port, is a specially configured connection on a network device that is capable of viewing all of the traffic that moves through the entire device.
A) NIDPS
B) SPAN
C) DPS
D) IDSE
Q3) <u>Fingerprinting</u> is the organized research of the Internet addresses owned or controlled by a target organization. _________________________
A)True
B)False
Q4) IDPSs can help the organization protect its assets when its networks and systems are exposed to ____________________ vulnerabilities or are unable to respond to a rapidly changing threat environment.
9
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Chapter 8: Cryptography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ____________________ operation is a function of Boolean algebra in which two bits are compared, and if the two bits are identical, the result is a binary 0.
Q2) To <u>encipher</u> means to decrypt, decode, or convert ciphertext into the equivalent plaintext. _________________________
A)True
B)False
Q3) Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is an open-source protocol framework for security development within the TCP/IP family of protocols.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ciphertext or a <u>cryptogram</u> is an encoded message, or a message that has been successfully encrypted. _________________________
A)True
B)False
Q5) Adopted by NIST in 1976 as a federal standard, DES uses a 64-bit block size and key.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Physical Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vibration sensors fall into the motion sensor category.
A)True
B)False
Q2) For laptops, there are theft alarms made up of a PC card or other device that contains a motion detector.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The online UPS can deliver a constant, smooth, conditioned power stream to computing systems.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n) _________________________ is typically carried concealed.
Q5) The U.S. government has developed a program named _________________________ to reduce the risk of EMR monitoring.
Q6) Static electricity is not noticeable to humans until levels approach 150 volts.
A)True
B)False
Q7) _________________________ detect movement within a confined space and are either active or passive.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Implementing Information Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the task is to write firewall specifications for the preparation of a(n) __________, the planner would note that the deliverable is a specification document suitable for distribution to vendors.
A) WBS
B) CBA
C) SDLC
D) RFP
Q2) In project planning, the tasks or action steps that come before the specific task at hand are commonly referred to as <u>prerequisites</u>.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The <u>RFP</u> determines the impact that a specific technology or approach can have on the organization's information assets and what it may cost.
A)True B)False
Q4) One of the oldest models of change is the Lewin change model, which consists of three stages: unfreezing, ____________________, and refreezing.
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Chapter 11: Security and Personnel
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Sample Questions
Q1) The information security function can be placed within the __________.
A) insurance and risk management function
B) administrative services function
C) legal department
D) All of the above
Q2) The former System Administration, Networking, and Security Organization is now better known as __________.
A) SANO
B) SAN
C) SANS
D) SANSO
Q3) "Builders" in the field of information security provide day-to-day systems monitoring and use to support an organization's goals and objectives.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Job ____________________ can greatly increase the chance that an employee's misuse of the system or abuse of information will be detected by another employee.
Q5) Describe the concept of separation of duties.
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Chapter 12: Information Security Maintenance
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Sample Questions
Q1) To evaluate the performance of a security system, administrators must establish system performance __________.
A) baselines
B) profiles
C) maxima
D) means
Q2) Digital forensics involves chemical and microscopic analysis of evidence using computerized laboratory instruments.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The target selection step of Internet vulnerability assessment involves using the external monitoring intelligence to configure a test engine (such as Nessus) for the tests to be performed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ____________________ interconnections are the network devices, communications channels, and applications that may not be owned by the organization but are essential to the organization's cooperation with another company.
Q5) Why should agencies monitor the status of their programs
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