Computer Security
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Computer Security is a comprehensive course that explores the principles, technologies, and practices used to protect computer systems, networks, and data from unauthorized access and cyberattacks. Topics covered include security policies, cryptography, authentication methods, network security, malware, risk management, and ethical and legal issues. Students will learn how to identify vulnerabilities, implement protection mechanisms, analyze potential threats, and respond to incidents, gaining both theoretical knowledge and practical skills essential for maintaining secure computing environments.
Recommended Textbook
Computer Security Principles and Practice 3rd Edition by William Stallings
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Chapter 1: Computer Systems Overview
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Sample Questions
Q1) Computer security is protection of the integrity,availability,and confidentiality of information system resources.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A(n)__________ is an action,device,procedure,or technique that reduces a threat,a vulnerability,or an attack by eliminating or preventing it,by minimizing the harm it can cause,or by discovering and reporting it so that correct action can be taken.
A)attack
B)adversary
C)countermeasure
D)protocol
Answer: C
Q3) Threats are attacks carried out.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) A(n)_________ is any means taken to deal with a security attack. Answer: countermeasure
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Chapter 2: Cryptographic Tools
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Sample Questions
Q1) A message authentication code is a small block of data generated by a secret key and appended to a message.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Some form of protocol is needed for public-key distribution.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A __________ processes the input elements continuously,producing output one element at a time.
Answer: stream cipher
Q4) T F 4.The secret key is input to the encryption algorithm.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) The two criteria used to validate that a sequence of numbers is random are independence and _________ .
Answer: uniform distribution
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Chapter 3: User Authentication
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Q1) User authentication is a procedure that allows communicating parties to verify that the contents of a received message have not been altered and that the source is authentic.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The __________ strategy is when users are told the importance of using hard to guess passwords and provided with guidelines for selecting strong passwords.
A)reactive password checking
B)computer-generated password
C)proactive password checking
D)user education
Answer: D
Q3) With the __________ policy a user is allowed to select their own password,but the system checks to see if the password is allowable.
Answer: complex password
Q4) An authentication process consists of the _________ step and the verification step.
Answer: identification
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Chapter 4: Access Control
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Q1) A __________ dictates that a user can only be assigned to a particular role if it is already assigned to some other specified role and can be used to structure the implementation of the least privilege concept.
Q2) X.800 defines __________ as the prevention of unauthorized use of a resource, including the prevention of use of a resource in an unauthorized manner.
Q3) A(n)__________ is a resource to which access is controlled.
A)object
B)owner
C)world
D)subject
Q4) An ABAC model can define authorizations that express conditions on properties of both the resource and the subject.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A __________ access control scheme is one in which an entity may be granted access rights that permit the entity,by its own volition,to enable another entity to access some resource.
Q6) __________ access control controls access based on the roles that users have within the system and on rules stating what accesses are allowed to users in given roles.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Database and Cloud Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) A single countermeasure is sufficient for SQLi attacks.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a discretionary access control environment database users are classified into three broad categories: administrator,end user other than application owner,and
Q3) Business continuity consists of security services that allocate access, distribute,monitor,and protect the underlying resource services.
.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A _________ is defined to be a portion of a row used to uniquely identify a row in a table.
A)foreign key
B)query
C)primary key
D)data perturbation
Q5) A __________ cloud infrastructure is made available to the general public or a large industry group and is owned by an organization selling cloud services.
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Chapter 6: Malicious Software
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Q1) A bot propagates itself and activates itself,whereas a worm is initially controlled from some central facility.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A _________ is a set of programs installed on a system to maintain covert access to that system with administrator (root)privileges while hiding evidence of its presence.
Q3) Keyware captures keystrokes on a compromised system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Unsolicited bulk e-mail is referred to as __________.
A)spam
B)propagating
C)phishing
D)crimeware
Q5) During the __________ the virus is idle.
A)dormant phase
B)propagation phase
C)triggering phase
D)execution phase
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Chapter 7: Denial-Of-Service Attacks
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Q1) Using forged source addresses is known as _________.
A)source address spoofing
B)a three-way address
C)random dropping
D)directed broadcast
Q2) In reflection attacks,the ______ address directs all the packets at the desired target and any responses to the intermediary.
Q3) The standard protocol used for call setup in VoIP is the ________ Protocol.
Q4) A _______ flood refers to an attack that bombards Web servers with HTTP requests.
Q5) During a ______ attack,the attacker sends packets to a known service on the intermediary with a spoofed source address of the actual target system and when the intermediary responds,the response is sent to the target.
Q6) To respond successfully to a DoS attack a good ______ plan is needed that includes details of how to contact technical personal for your ISP(s).
Q7) Slowloris is a form of ICMP flooding.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Intrusion Detection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of the ________ module is to collect data on security related events on the host and transmit these to the central manager.
A)central manager agent
B)LAN monitor agent
C)host agent
D)architecture agent
Q2) The rule _______ tells Snort what to do when it finds a packet that matches the rule criteria.
A)protocol
B)direction
C)action
D)destination port
Q3) __________ involves an attempt to define a set of rules or attack patterns that can be used to decide if a given behavior is that of an intruder.
A)Profile based detection
B)Signature detection
C)Threshold detection
D)Anomaly detection
Q4) An IDS comprises three logical components: analyzers,user interface and _____.
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Chapter 9: Firewalls and Intrusion Prevention Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The firewall may be a single computer system or a set of two or more systems that cooperate to perform the firewall function.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Distributed firewalls protect against internal attacks and provide protection tailored to specific machines and applications.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Snort Inline adds three new rule types: drop,reject,and _________.
Q4) A _________ firewall applies a set of rules to each incoming and outgoing IP packet and then forwards or discards the packet.
Q5) A traditional packet filter makes filtering decisions on an individual packet basis and does not take into consideration any higher layer context. A)True
B)False
Q6) One disadvantage of a packet filtering firewall is its simplicity. A)True B)False
Q7) The ________ IP address is the IP address of the system that originated the IP packet.
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Chapter 10: Buffer Overflow
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Sample Questions
Q1) _________ is a tool used to automatically identify potentially vulnerable programs.
A)Slamming
B)Sledding
C)Fuzzing
D)All of the above
Q2) In the classic __________ overflow,the attacker overwrites a buffer located in the local variable area of a stack frame and then overwrites the saved frame pointer and return address.
Q3) An attacker can generally determine in advance exactly where the targeted buffer will be located in the stack frame of the function in which it is defined.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A ___________ overflow occurs when the targeted buffer is located on the stack,usually as a local variable in a function's stack frame.
Q5) _________ attacks can occur in a binary buffer copy when the programmer has included code to check the number of bytes being transferred,but due to a coding error,allows just one more byte to be copied than there is space available.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Software Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) Programmers often make assumptions about the type of inputs a program will receive.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Incorrect handling of program _______ is one of the most common failings in software security.
A)lines
B)input
C)output
D)disciplines
Q3) If privileges are greater than those already available to the attacker the result is a
Q4) "Incorrect Calculation of Buffer Size" is in the __________ software error category.
A)Porous Defenses
B)Allocation of Resources
C)Risky Resource Management
D)Insecure Interaction Between Components
Q5) Two key areas of concern for any input are the _______ of the input and the meaning and interpretation of the input.
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Chapter 12: Operating System Security
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Q1) ______ is the process of retaining copies of data over extended periods of time,being months or years,in order to meet legal and operational requirements to access past data.
Q2) ________ refers to a technology that provides an abstraction of the computing resources that run in a simulated environment.
Q3) The ______ process retains copies of data over extended periods of time in order to meet legal and operational requirements.
A)archive
B)virtualization
C)patching
D)backup
Q4) Security concerns that result from the use of virtualized systems include ______.
A)guest OS isolation
B)guest OS monitoring by the hypervisor
C)virtualized environment security
D)all of the above
Q5) The aim of the specific system installation planning process is to maximize _______ while minimizing costs.
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Chapter 13: Trusted Computing and Multilevel Security
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Q1) The _________ model is intended to deal with the case in which there is data that must be visible to users at multiple or all security levels but should only be modified in controlled ways by authorized agents.
Q2) Security classes are referred to as __________.
A)security clearances
B)security classifications
C)security levels
D)security properties
Q3) _________ rules are security policy restrictions on the behavior of IVPs and TPs.
Q4) Problems with providing strong computer security involve only the design phase.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The BLP model includes a set of rules based on abstract operations that change the state of the system.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A subject is said to have a security _________ of a given level.
Q7) An object is said to have a security ________ of a given level.
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Chapter 14: It Security Management and Risk Assessment
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Q1) IT security management has evolved considerably over the last few decades due to the rise in risks to networked systems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Once the IT management process is in place and working the process never needs to be repeated.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Organizational security policies identify what needs to be done.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The results of the risk analysis should be documented in a _________.
A)journal
B)consequence
C)risk register
D)none of the above
Q5) Detecting and reacting to incidents is not a function of IT security management.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: It Security Controls,plans,and Procedures
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Q1) Physical access or environmental controls are only relevant to areas housing the relevant equipment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Controls may vary in size and complexity in relation to the organization employing them.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Appropriate security awareness training for all personnel in an organization,along with specific training relating to particular systems and controls,is an essential component in implementing controls.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The three steps for IT security management controls and implementation are: prioritize risks,respond to risks,and __________ .
Q5) The IT security management process ends with the implementation of controls and the training of personnel.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Physical and Infrastructure Security
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Q1) Low-intensity devices such as cellular telephones do not interfere with electronic equipment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An _______ condition occurs when the IS equipment receives less voltage than is required for normal operation.
Q3) Human-caused threats can be grouped into the following categories: unauthorized physical access,theft,_________ and misuse.
Q4) An area of a facility that has no security interest is classified as _________.
A)unrestricted
B)controlled
C)limited
D)exclusion
Q5) A restricted area within close proximity of a security interest has a classification of ______.
A)exclusion
B)controlled
C)limited
D)unrestricted
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Chapter 17: Human Resources Security
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Q1) The principal problems associated with employee behavior are errors and omissions,_______,and actions by disgruntled employees.
Q2) ________ can include computer viruses,Trojan horse programs,worms,exploit scripts,and toolkits.
A)Artifacts
B)Vulnerabilities
C)CSIRT
D)Constituencies
Q3) In large and medium-sized organizations,a(n)_________ is responsible for rapidly detecting incidents,minimizing loss and destruction,mitigating the weaknesses that were exploited,and restoring computing services.
Q4) ___________ scan critical system files,directories,and services to ensure they have not been changed without proper authorization.
A)Intrusion prevention systems
B)System integrity verification tools
C)Log analysis tools
D)Network and host intrusion detection systems
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Chapter 18: Security Auditing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Data representing behavior that does not trigger an alarm cannot serve as input to intrusion detection analysis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) With _________ the linking to shared library routines is deferred until load time so that if changes are made any program that references the library is unaffected.
A)statically linked shared libraries
B)dynamically linked shared libraries
C)system linked shared libraries
D)all of the above
Q3) The basic audit objective is to establish accountability for system entities that initiate or participate in security-relevant events and actions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The audit analyzer prepares human-readable security reports.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ______ is the process of defining normal versus unusual events and patterns.
Q6) SIEM software has two general configuration approaches: agentless and ______.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Legal and Ethical Aspects
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Q1) _____ can be copyrighted.
A)Dramatic works
B)Architectural works
C)Software-related works
D)All of the above
Q2) _____ strengthens the protection of copyrighted materials in digital format.
A)HIPPA
B)DMCA
C)WIPO
D)DRM
Q3) A ______ handles the financial transaction for issuing the digital license to the consumer and pays royalty fees to the content provider and distribution fees to the distributor accordingly.
Q4) The copyright owner has which exclusive right(s)?
A)reproduction right
B)distribution right
C)modification right
D)all of the above
Q5) The three types of patents are: utility patents,design patents,and ________.
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Chapter 20: Symmetric Encryption and Message
Confidentiality
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Q1) If the analyst is able to get the source system to insert into the system a message chosen by the analyst,then a ________ attack is possible.
A)known-plaintext
B)chosen-plaintext
C)chosen ciphertext
D)chosen text
Q2) For symmetric encryption to work the two parties to an exchange must share the same _____,which must be protected from access by others.
Q3) A ________ cipher processes the input one block of elements at a time,producing an output block for each input block.
Q4) Cryptographic systems are generically classified by _________.
A)the type of operations used for transforming plaintext to ciphertext
B)the number of keys used
C)the way in which the plaintext is processed
D)all of the above
Q5) With ______ encryption each vulnerable communications link is equipped on both ends with an encryption device.
Page 22
Q6) _________ is the process of attempting to discover the plaintext or key.
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Chapter 21: Public-Key Cryptography and Message
Authentication
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Q1) ___________ was the first published public-key algorithm.
A)NIST
B)Diffie-Hellman
C)RC4
D)RSA
Q2) The one-way hash function is important not only in message authentication but also in digital signatures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A __________ type of attack exploits properties of the RSA algorithm.
A)timing
B)brute-force
C)chosen ciphertext
D)mathematical
Q4) The appeal of HMAC is that its designers have been able to prove an exact relationship between the strength of the embedded hash function and the strength of HMAC.
A)True
B)False
Q5) NIST has published FIPS PUB 186,which is known as the ___________.
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Chapter 22: Internet Security Protocols and Standards
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Q1) A security association is uniquely identified by three parameters: security parameter index,protocol identifier,and ________________.
Q2) The ________ function consists of encrypted content of any type and encrypted-content encryption keys for one or more recipients.
A)clear-signed data
B)signed data
C)enveloped data
D)signed and enveloped data
Q3) _______ is a list that contains the combinations of cryptographic algorithms supported by the client.
A)Compression method
B)Session ID
C)CipherSuite
D)All of the above
Q4) The default algorithms used for encrypting S/MIME messages are the triple DES and a public-key scheme known as _______.
Q5) IPsec provides two main functions: a combined authentication/encryption function called ___________ and a key exchange function.
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Chapter 23: Internet Authentication Applications
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Q1) The principal objective for developing a PKI is to enable secure, convenient,and efficient acquisition of private keys.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _______ is the process whereby a user first makes itself known to a CA prior to that CA issuing a certificate or certificates for that user.
A)Authorization
B)Registration
C)Certification
D)Initialization
Q3) ________ is a process where authentication and permission will be passed on from one system to another,usually across multiple enterprises,reducing the number of authentications needed by the user.
A)Integration
B)Registration
C)Synchronization
D)Federation
Q4) ________ allows end entities to restore their encryption/decryption key pair from an authorized key backup facility.
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Chapter 24: Wireless Network Security
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Q1) The wireless access point provides a connection to the network or service.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A __________ attack targets wireless access points that are exposed to non-filtered network traffic,such as routing protocol messages or network management messages.
Q3) The smallest building block of a wireless LAN is a ______.
A)BSS
B)ESS
C)WPA
D)CCMP
Q4) The fields preceding the MSDU field are referred to as the _________.
Q5) A ____________ attack involves persuading a user and an access point to believe that they are talking to each other when in fact the communication is going through an intermediate attacking device.
Q6) There are two types of keys: ________ used for communication between a STA and an AP and group keys used for multicast communication.
Q7) Like TKIP,CCMP provides two services: message integrity and ________.
Page 26
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