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Computer Networks covers the fundamental concepts, architectures, protocols, and technologies that enable data communication between computers and devices. The course explores the layered structure of network models such as the OSI and TCP/IP, delves into packet switching, routing, addressing, and flow control, and examines the physical and data link layers as well as the application, transport, and network layers. Students will study crucial topics like Ethernet, Wi-Fi, IP addressing, TCP/UDP protocols, network security, network management, and modern trends like wireless and mobile networks. Through theoretical exploration and practical activities, learners gain a thorough understanding of how information is transmitted, shared, and secured across local, metropolitan, and wide area networks.
Recommended Textbook
Network+ Guide to Networks 5th Edition by Tamara Dean
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Q1) To prepare to enter the networking field,a student should master a number of general networking technologies.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Security auditing is handled by ____.
A) management services
B) communication services
C) access services
D) Internet services
Answer: A
Q3) Define a network operating system (NOS)and describe the tasks it performs.
Answer: An NOS is a special type of software designed to do the following:
·Manage data and other resources for a number of clients.
·Ensure that only authorized users access the network.
·Control which type of files a user can open and read.
·Restrict when and from where users can access the network.
·Dictate which rules computers will use to communicate.
·Supply applications to clients.
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Q1) Describe how error checking is handled in the Data Link layer. Answer: Error checking is accomplished by a 4-byte FCS (frame check sequence)field,whose purpose is to ensure that the data at the destination exactly matches the data issued from the source.When the source node transmits the data,it performs an algorithm (or mathematical routine)called a CRC (cyclic redundancy check).CRC takes the values of all of the preceding fields in the frame and generates a unique 4-byte number,the FCS.When the destination node receives the frame,its Data Link layer services unscramble the FCS via the same CRC algorithm and ensure that the frame's fields match their original form.If this comparison fails,the receiving node assumes that the frame has been damaged in transit and requests that the source node retransmit the data.
Q2) ____ oversees the IAB (Internet Architecture Board).
A) EIA
B) ISOC
C) ICANN
D) ISO
Answer: B
Q3) Generates signals as changes in voltage at the NIC.
Answer: I
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Q1) Describe what FDM (frequency division multiplexing)is and how it works.
Answer: FDM (frequency division multiplexing)is a type of multiplexing that assigns a unique frequency band to each communications subchannel.Signals are modulated with different carrier frequencies,then multiplexed to simultaneously travel over a single channel.The first use of FDM was in the early 20th century when telephone companies discovered they could send multiple voice signals over a single cable.That meant that rather than stringing separate lines for each residence (and adding to the urban tangle of wires),they could send as many as 24 multiplexed signals over a single neighborhood line.Each signal was then demultiplexed before being brought into the home.
Q2) The data transmission characteristic most frequently discussed and analyzed by networking professionals is ____.
A) noise
B) scalability
C) throughput
D) cost
Answer: C
Q3) ____________________ are the pieces of hardware that connect the wire to the network device.
Answer: Connectors
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Q1) Describe how ARP improves efficiency of MAC-to-IP address mappings.
Q2) Ports ranging from 49152 through 65535; open for use without restriction.
Q3) TCP is a(n)____ subprotocol.
A) open-ended
B) indiscriminating
C) connection-oriented
D) connectionless
Q4) The ASCII text file called HOSTS.TXT that associates host names with IP addresses.
Q5) Whether connecting to the Internet or to another computer within a LAN,every node on a network must have a unique ____________________.
Q6) The default subnet mask for a Class B network is ____.
A) 255.0.0.0
B) 255.255.0.0
C) 255.255.255.0
D) 255.255.255.255
Q7) The most common way of expressing IP addresses.
Q8) All protocols are routable.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) IEEE standard for fiber-optic Ethernet networks transmitting data at 10 Gbps.
Q2) The 10-gigabit fiber optic standard with the shortest segment length is ____.
A) 10GBase-T
B) 10GBase-SR
C) 10GBase-LR
D) 10GBase-ER
Q3) Explain how the distributed backbone is connected.Include a description of its benefits.
Q4) The most common logical topologies are ____ and ring.
A) bus
B) star
C) wired
D) hybrid
Q5) Briefly describe the Ethernet SNAP frame type.Include an explanation of the drawback that keeps it from being implemented on networks instead of Ethernet _II frames.
Q6) The smallest LANs do not have a backbone.
A)True
B)False
Q7) IEEE standard for fiber-optic Ethernet networks transmitting data at 100 Mbps.
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Q1) A ____ is a multiport connectivity device that directs data between nodes on a network.
A) switch
B) bridge
C) router
D) gateway
Q2) ____ is a type of microchip that requires very little energy to operate.
A) ROM
B) RAM
C) CMOS
D) EEPROM
Q3) A switch running in this mode reads the entire data frame into its memory and checks it for accuracy before transmitting the information.
Q4) Describe how a bridge translates between two segment types.
Q5) External peripheral device specifying 32-bit interface running at 33 MHz.
Q6) Uses the IEEE 1394 standard.
Q7) The ____________________ indicates,in hexadecimal notation,the area of memory that the NIC and CPU use for exchanging,or buffering,data.
Q8) Supports up to 16 lanes.
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Q1) What sets ATM apart from Ethernet is its ____ size.
A) channel
B) frame
C) variable packet
D) fixed packet
Q2) Refers to the T-carrier's Physical layer electrical signaling characteristics as defined by ANSI standards in the early 1980s.
Q3) Define a fractional T1 and explain why an organization might implement it.
Q4) Define the term xDSL and name the better known DSL varieties.
Q5) Describe two important considerations when designing a VPN.
Q6) Describe an important difference between frame relay and X.25.
Q7) Occurs when each site is directly connected to no more than two other sites in a serial fashion.
Q8) Dial-up ISDN does not convert a computer's digital signals to analog before transmitting them over the PSTN.
A)True
B)False
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Q9) ____________________ is the remote virtual computing software that comes with Windows client and server operating systems.

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Q1) A directional antenna issues wireless signals along a(n)____ direction.
A) open
B) narrow
C) wide
D) single
Q2) Transmission from a satellite transponder to an earth-based dish-shaped antenna.
Q3) The average geographic range for an 802.11a antenna is ____ meters.
A) 20
B) 100
C) 330
D) 600
Q4) LEO satellites orbit the Earth with an altitude as low as ____ miles.
A) 100
B) 1240
C) 6,000
D) 22,300
Q5) Define and explain the MIMO innovation in the 802.11n standard.Include a description of the advantages it provides.
Q6) Define reassociation and provide two examples explaining when it occurs.
Q7) The receiver can be located anywhere within the transmitter's range.
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Q1) A GUID (globally unique identifier)is a 128-bit number that ensures that no two objects have ____ names.
A) similar
B) duplicate
C) opposing
D) non-standard
Q2) In LDAP-compatible directories,a(n)____________________ is the set of definitions of the kinds of objects and object-related information that the directory can contain.
Q3) Every UNIX and Linux system contains full documentation of UNIX commands in the ____ pages.
A) doc
B) library
C) man
D) command
Q4) A benefit to using an NTFS partition is that it can be read by older operating systems,such as Windows 95,Windows 2000 Professional,and early versions of UNIX.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) POP3's design makes it best suited to users who retrieve their mail from the same workstation all the time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Allows an administrator to query a DNS database and find the host name associated with a specific IP address or vice versa.
Q3) The ____ utility allows you to view a host's routing table.
A) nbstat
B) pathping
C) dig
D) route
Q4) ____________________ separates a network into multiple logically defined segments,or subnets.
Q5) An example of a popular mail server is ____.
A) Eudora
B) Microsoft Outlook
C) AOL mail
D) Microsoft Exchange Server
Q6) Explain why SNAT is considered static and describe why it useful.
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Q1) A computer that provides support for multiple H.323 terminals and manages communication between them.
Q2) The popular Internet telephony software,Skype,is a type of ____.
A) IP telephone
B) softphone
C) teleapplication
D) compu-phone
Q3) Many VoIP vendors prefer ____________________ over H.323.
Q4) Explain why UDP is preferred over TCP for real-time applications such as telephone conversations and videoconferences.
Q5) ____ describes the use of any network to carry voice signals using the TCP/IP protocol.
A) Telephony
B) Internet telephony
C) IP telephony
D) Voice telephony
Q6) Any node that provides audio,visual,or data information to another node.
Q7) All VoIP calls are carried over the Internet.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Describe the SCP (Secure CoPy)utility.
Q2) Define SSH (secure shell)and explain threats it guards against.Include an explanation of the encryption algorithms that may be used with it.
Q3) Define and describe PAP.
Q4) A firewall that can view a data stream.
Q5) By default,the 802.11 standard offers substantial security.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A ____ attack occurs when an Internet chat user sends commands to a victim's machine that cause the screen to fill with garbage characters and requires the victim to terminate their chat sessions.
A) flashing
B) denial-of-service
C) war driving
D) phishing
Q7) A(n)____________________ is a thorough examination of each aspect of the network to determine how it might be compromised.
Q8) Describe the two phases IPSec use to accomplish authentication.
Q9) Software that can only detect and log suspicious activity.
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Q1) List eight questions to ask to help identify network problem symptoms that are not immediately obvious.
Q2) Describe how a network administrator should react upon discovering that a network change has generated a problem.
Q3) A ____ usually results from a bad NIC.
A) jabber
B) ghost
C) giant
D) runt
Q4) In a ____ cable,the transmit and receive wire pairs in one of the connectors are reversed.
A) switched
B) probe
C) twisted pair
D) crossover
Q5) The device used to measure resistance.
Q6) List five questions that may help a network professional determine whether a problem's symptoms are truly reproducible and,if so,to what extent.
Q7) Collects data about power quality.

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Q1) Mesh topologies and ____ topologies are good choices for highly available enterprise networks.
A) star
B) SONET rings
C) bus
D) ring
Q2) ____ is a specialized storage device or group of storage devices that provides centralized fault-tolerant data storage for a network.
A) NAS
B) RAID
C) SANs
D) Optical media
Q3) ____ are distinct networks of storage devices that communicate directly with each other and with other networks.
A) NAS
B) RAID
C) SANs
D) Optical media
Q4) A momentary decrease in voltage.
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Q1) Describe the purpose of baseline measurements.
Q2) Describes a flaw in a software application that causes some part of the application to malfunction.
Q3) Describe how to perform a patch installation.
Q4) A key component in managing networks is identifying and tracking its hardware and software through ____ management.
A) performance
B) change
C) configuration
D) asset
Q5) A patch is a replacement for an entire software package.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ____ management refers to monitoring how well links and devices are keeping up with the demands placed on them.
A) Performance
B) Fault
C) Network
D) Configuration

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