Computer Networks Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Computer Networks is a foundational course that explores the principles, architectures, protocols, and technologies enabling communication between computers and other digital devices. Students learn about layered network models, including the OSI and TCP/IP stacks, data transmission methods, network topologies, switching and routing, network security, and wireless networks. The course also examines real-world applications such as the Internet, network services, and emerging trends. Through hands-on exercises and simulations, students gain practical experience in configuring, managing, and troubleshooting networked systems, preparing them for further study or careers in information technology and communications.
Recommended Textbook
Network+ Guide to Networks 8th Edition Jill West
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) What Application layer protocol can be used to monitor and gather information about network traffic and can alert network administrators about adverse conditions that need attention?
A) HTTP
B) POP3
C) SNMP
D) SMTP
Answer: C
Q2) In the TCP/IP model, what layer is considered so simple that it is ignored entirely?
A) Application
B) Network
C) Physical
D) Data Link
Answer: C
Q3) What are the differences between the POP3 and IMAP4 protocols?
Answer: Using the POP3 (Post Office Protocol, version 3), email is downloaded to the client computer. When using IMAP4 however, the client application manages the email while it's stored on the server.
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Chapter 2: Network Infrastructure and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of designing, implementing, and maintaining an entire network is called the system life cycle.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) In considering a telecommunications service provider's network, what is the demarc, and where is it located?
Answer: In general, the device that marks where a telecommunications service provider's network ends and the organization's network begins is the demarc, or demarcation point. For example, an ISP (Internet service provider) might be responsible for fiber-optic cabling to your building to connect to your LAN. The device where the WAN ends and the LAN begins is the demarc. The service provider is responsible for its network beyond the demarc, and, in most cases, the organization is responsible for devices and services on the campus side of the demarc.
Q3) A 66 block is more suitable for data connections than the older 110 block.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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4
Chapter 3: Addressing on Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) A Windows computer on your network is having issues resolving queries for a specific domain, but not other domains. Other computers on the same network resolve the name just fine. What command can you issue that might fix the problem?
A) ipconfig /renew
B) ipconfig /release
C) ipconfig /flushdns
D) ipconfig /refresh
Answer: C
Q2) What is the difference between unicast, multicast, and anycast addresses?
Answer: A unicast address specifies a single node on a network. This differs from a multicast address, which is delivered to all nodes in a targeted, multicast group. An anycast address can identify multiple destinations, with packets delivered to the closest destination. For example, a DNS name server might send a DNS request to a group of DNS servers that have all been assigned the same anycast address. A router handling the request examines routes to all the DNS servers in the group and routes the request to the closest server.
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Chapter 4: Network Protocols and Routing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the different categories of routers, and how do they compare?
Q2) ARP tables might contain two different types of entries. What are they, and how are they created?
Q3) The cost of upgrading infrastructure has been a major factor in the slow adoption of IPv6.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What field in an IPv4 packet informs routers the level of precedence they should apply when processing an incoming packet?
A) Differentiated Services (DiffServ)
B) Internet header length (IHL)
C) Time to Live (TTL)
D) Padding
Q5) Which statement does NOT accurately describe characteristics of the OSPF protocol?
A) OSPF maintains a database of other routers' links.
B) OSPF has no hop limits on a transmission path.
C) OSPF provides low network overhead.
D) OSPF requires very little CPU or memory resources.
Q6) What is MAC address spoofing?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Network Cabling
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Q1) The ST and SC fiber connectors are the most commonly found connectors due to their smaller sizes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Broadband cable Internet service and cable TV are most commonly delivered over long distances via what type of cable?
A) RG-59
B) RG-6
C) RG-20
D) LRG-50
Q3) RG-59 is more expensive than RG-6, but has better resistance to attenuation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the industry standard angle for an Angle Polished Connector (APC)?
A) 8 degrees
B) 12 degrees
C) 14 degrees
D) 16 degrees
Q5) Describe the two different shapes and polishes currently used on SMF ferrules to reduce back reflection.
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Chapter 6: Wireless Networking
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Q1) What type of device can be used to assess the quality of a wireless signal?
A) Wi-Fi analyzer
B) spectrum analyzer
C) channel scanner
D) frequency hopper
Q2) When using RFID, what is an ARPT (Active Reader Passive Tag)?
A) It is a battery-powered tag actively transmits its credentials at regular time intervals, which can be read remotely.
B) It is a tag that requires an active reader, but still contains a battery in the tag.
C) It is a tag that is activated by an active reader, and uses power from the reader's radio to power its transmission.
D) It is a tag that can be read remotely up to a distance of 50 m, but requires a powerful active reader.
Q3) An 802.11 data frame contains four address fields, in contrast to the two address fields in 802.3 Ethernet.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the hidden node problem, and how can it be mitigated?
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Virtualization and Cloud Computing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What statement regarding the SSH (Secure Shell) collection of protocols is accurate?
A) SSH provides a graphical view of the remote computer.
B) SSH does not protect against DNS spoofing.
C) SSH does not protect against IP spoofing.
D) SSH supports port forwarding.
Q2) How does public key encryption work?
Q3) What security encryption protocol requires regular re-establishment of a connection and can be used with any type of TCP/IP transmission?
A) L2TP
B) TLS
C) IPsec
D) SSL
Q4) After L2TP establishing a VPN tunnel, GRE is used to transmit L2TP data frames through the tunnel.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol), and how does it work?
Q6) What two different types of encryption can be utilized with IPsec?
Q7) What is the difference between a virtual firewall and a software firewall?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Subnets and VLANs
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Q1) On a Cisco switch, what would the security association identifier be for VLAN 13?
A) 1013
B) 5013
C) 100013
D) 1000130
Q2) All that is needed to provide communication between two VLANs is a DHCP relay agent.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the difference between a default VLAN and a native VLAN?
Q4) In order to identify the transmissions that belong to each VLAN, a switch will add a tag to Ethernet frames that identifies the port through which they arrive at the switch.
A)True
B)False
Q5) By default, the native VLAN is the same as the default VLAN. A)True
B)False
Q6) What are some common configuration errors that can occur when configuring VLANs?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Network Risk Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which command can be used on a Windows system to create a hash of a file?
A) md5
B) shasum
C) Get-FileHash
D) Compute-FileHash
Q2) The concept of giving employees and contractors only enough access and privileges to do their jobs is known by what term?
A) least-risk privilege profile
B) principle of least privilege
C) minimal access/minimal exposure
D) limited liability access
Q3) If multiple honeypots are connected to form a larger network, what term is used to describe the network?
A) combolure
B) lurenet
C) honeycomb
D) honeynet
Q4) What is hashing, and how does it differ from encryption?
Q5) Why might an organization be required to undergo a security audit?
Q6) How is an acceptable use policy typically used?
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Chapter 10: Security in Network Design
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Q1) What scenario might be ideal for the use of root guard in configuring a switch?
A) You wish to block BPDUs on an access port serving network hosts.
B) You wish to disable STP on a port connected to a partnered company's switch.
C) You wish to prevent switches beyond a certain port from becoming the root bridge, but still wish to use STP.
D) You wish to prevent a rogue switch or computer from hijacking the network's STP paths.
Q2) You have been tasked with the configuration of a Juniper switch, and have been told to restrict the number of MAC addresses allowed in the MAC address table. What command should you use?
A) set max-mac
B) set total-macs
C) mac-address limit
D) mac-limit
Q3) What is NOT a variable that an network access control list can filter traffic with?
A) The Network layer protocol used for the packet.
B) The Transport layer protocol used for the packet.
C) The source or destination TCP/UDP port number in the packet.
D) The operating system used by the source or destination device.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Network Performance and Recovery
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Q1) Most UNIX and Linux desktop operating systems provide a GUI application for easily viewing and filtering the information in system logs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In preparing and planning for disaster recovery, what is the difference between an incident and a disaster?
Q3) What statement regarding the use of a network attached storage device is accurate?
A) A NAS does not contain its own file system, rather it relies on the host file system provided by individual clients.
B) A NAS reads and writes from its disks significantly slower than other types of servers.
C) A NAS can be easily expanded without interrupting service.
D) A NAS can typically only support RAID-0 configurations.
Q4) A RAID 5 configuration requires a minimum of two hard disks to operate.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The creation of a response team should include what team roles?
Q6) What are the different types of power flaws that can cause damage?
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Chapter 12: Wide Area Networks
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Q1) In metro settings, end-to-end, carrier-grade Ethernet networks can be established via what protocol?
A) Metro Carrier Transport
B) Carrier Ethernet Transport
C) Intra-city Ethernet
D) Ethernet SONET
Q2) In a frame relay WAN, the ISP typically has the data circuit terminating equipment (DCE).
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the difference between a DTE and a DCE?
Q4) How is ATM able to guarantee a specific QoS for certain types of transmissions?
Q5) When using satellite services for your WAN connection, what statement is accurate?
A) Satellite downlink rates range from 50 to 100 Mbps.
B) Satellite services suffer more latency and jitter issues.
C) Satellite services are only available for fixed location clients.
D) Satellite uplink rates range from 5 to 10 Mbps.
Q6) The NIU (network interface unit) or NID (network interface device) at the ISP's demarc serves what purpose?
Page 14
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