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This course is designed to prepare students for the CompTIA Security+ certification exam, covering the essential principles of network security and risk management. Students will learn about various security concepts, including threats and vulnerabilities, cryptography, identity and access management, and the implementation of secure networks and systems. Through lectures, hands-on labs, and practice exams, students will develop practical skills in securing network devices, responding to incidents, and ensuring compliance with security policies. The course is ideal for individuals aiming to pursue a career in cybersecurity or to validate their foundational security skills for professional advancement.
Recommended Textbook
CompTIA Security+ Guide to Network Security Fundamentals 5th Edition by Mark Ciampa
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15 Chapters
750 Verified Questions
750 Flashcards
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50 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76425
Sample Questions
Q1) Script kiddies acquire which item below from other attackers to easily craft an attack:
A)Exploit kit
B)Botnet
C)Zero day
D)Backdoor
Answer: A
Q2) List and describe three of the characteristics of information that must be protected by information security?
Answer: Three of the characteristics of information that must be protected by information security are:1. Confidentiality-Confidentiality ensures that only authorized parties can view the information.
"2. Integrity-Integrity ensures that the information is correct and no unauthorized person or malicious software has altered that data."
3. Availability-Availability ensures that data is accessible to authorized users.
Q3) ____________________ provides tracking of events.
Answer: Accounting
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are some of the functions performed by viruses?
Answer: Viruses have performed the following functions:
Caused a computer to crash repeatedly
Erased files from a hard drive
Made multiple copies of itself and consumed all of the free space in a hard drive
Turned off the computer's security settings
Reformatted the hard disk drive
Q2) Describe adware.
Answer: 42. Adware delivers advertising content in a manner that is unexpected and unwanted by the user. Once it becomes installed, it typically displays advertising banners, popup ads, or opens new web browser windows at random intervals.
Q3) What is a worm?
Answer: A worm is a malicious program that uses a computer network to replicate, and is designed to enter a computer through the network then take advantage of vulnerability in an application or an operating system on the host computer.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What portion of the HTTP packet consists of fields that contain information about the characteristics of the data being transmitted?
A)HTTP header
B)HTML header
C)XML header
D)SSL header
Answer: A
Q2) A form of verification used when accessing a secure web application
A)Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
B)ARP Poisoning
C)Buffer overflow attack
D)Command injection
E)Cross-site scripting (XSS)
F)DNS poisoning
G)Flash cookie
H)Ping flood
I) Session token
J) Smurf attack
Answer: I
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of video surveillance is typically used by banks, casinos, airports, and military installations, and commonly employs guards who actively monitor the surveillance?
A)CCTV
B)ICTV
C)IPTV
D)ITV
Q2) Anti-virus products typically utilize what type of virus scanning analysis?
A)Static analysis
B)Wildcard scanning analysis
C)Heuristic detection analysis
D)String scanning analysis
Q3) Proximity readers utilize a special type of tag that can be affixed to the inside of an ID badge. What is the name for this type of tag?
A)Remote Read Tag (RRT)
B)Radio Frequency Identification tag (RFID)
C)Barcode tag (BT)
D)Magnetic tag (MT)
Q4) ____________________ locks keep a record of when the door was opened and by which code.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A symmetric block cipher that uses a 56-bit key and encrypts data in 64-bit blocks
A)Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
B)Block cipher
C)Ciphertext
D)Data Encryption Standard (DES)
E)Diffie-Hellman (DH)
F)Elliptic curve cryptography (ECC)
G)Ephemeral key
H)Private key
I)Public key
J)Stream cipher
Q2) Explain hashing.
Q3) Describe how a block cipher works.
Q4) Which of the following is not one of the functions of a digital signature?
A)Verification of the sender
B)Prevention of the sender from disowning the message
C)Prove the integrity of the message
D)Protect the public key
Q5) Discuss how cryptography can help ensure the availability of the data.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select below the term that is used to describe a trusted third-party agency that is responsible for issuing digital certificates:
A)Registration Authority
B)Delegation Authority
C)Certification Authority
D)Participation Authority
Q2) A process in which keys are managed by a third party, such as a trusted CA
A)Bridge trust model
B)Certificate Authority (CA)
C)Certificate Repository
D)Digital certificate
E)Distributed trust model
F)key escrow
G)Public key Infrastructure (PKI)
H)Session keys
I)Third-party trust
J)Trust model
Q3) List the four stages of a certificate life cycle.
Q4) Identify the general duties of an RA.
Q5) Explain how digital certificates are managed.
Page 8
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ______________ is a worker who work occasionally or regularly from a home office.
Q2) How does a Unified Threat Management (UTM) security product help reduce administrative overhead?
Q3) A device that can forward packets across computer networks
A)Application-aware firewall
B)Application-aware IPS
C)Content inspection
D)Heuristic monitoring
E)Malware inspection
F)Network address translation (NAT)
G)Router
H)Switch
I)Virtual LAN (VLAN)
J)VPN Concentrator
Q4) List and describe three advantages to subnetting.
Q5) Describe the difference between subnetting and VLANs.
Q6) _________________ is a technique that allows a private IP addresses to be used on the Internet with a single public IP address.
Q7) List and describe three features of Internet content filters.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A TCP/IP protocol that uses Secure Sockets Layer or Transport Layer Security to encrypt commands sent over the control port (port 21) in an FTP session.
A)Audit log
B)Event log
C)File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
D)Flood guard
E)FTP Secure (FTPS)
F)Host elasticity
G)Loop protection
H)Snapshot
I)Telnet
J)Virtualization
Q2) Describe one way to use FTP on a local host computer.
Q3) Broadcast storms can be prevented by using loop prevention technology. Which item below can be used to help prevent loops?
A)Virtual trunking protocol
B)Dijkstra's algorithm
C)802.11x
D)802.1d
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Sample Questions
Q1) An IEEE 802.11 security protocol designed to ensure that only authorized parties can view transmitted wireless information, but is not considered secure due to significant vulnerabilities.
A)Bluejacking
B)Bluesnarfing
C)Initialization vector (IV)
D)Near field communication (NFC)
E)Preshared key (PSK)
F)RF Jamming
G)War driving
H)Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS)
I)Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA 2)
J)Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
Q2) Discuss the different types of interference one might encounter using wireless devices.
Q3) Which option below is responsible for the issuing of EAP request packets?
A)supplicant
B)authenticator
C)authentication server
D)proxy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select below the type of computing device that uses a limited version of the Linux operating system and uses a web browser with an integrated media player:
A)Tablet
B)Notebook
C)Netbook
D)Web-based
Q2) An ultrabook is an example of what type of a portable computer?
A)Laptop
B)Netbook
C)Subnotebook
D)Tablet
Q3) Select below the option that represents a wearable technology:
A)iPhone
B)Android
C)Google Glass
D)Google Chromebook
Q4) Describe some of the risks associated with BYOD.
Q5) _____________ are portable computing devices that are generally larger than smartphones and smaller than notebooks, and are focused on ease of use.
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Q1) Select below the access control model that uses access based on a user's job function within an organization:
A)Role Based Access Control
B)Rule Based Access Control
C)Discretionary Access Control
D)Mandatory Access Control
Q2) Select below the authentication system developed by the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) to verify the identity of network users:
A)Aurora
B)Kerberos
C)CHAP
D)TACACS
Q3) When using Role Based Access Control (RBAC), permissions are assigned to: A)Roles
B)Groups
C)Labels
D)Users
Q4) Discuss the two significant weaknesses of DAC.
Q5) Discuss the differences between DAP and LDAP.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using one authentication credential to access multiple accounts or applications.
A)Authentication factors
B)Bcrypt
C)Brute force attack
D)Dictionary attack
E)Hybrid attack
F)Key stretching
G)NTLM (New Technology LAN Manager) hash
H)Salt
I)Single sign-on
J)Token
Q2) Which type of biometrics is based on the perception, thought process, and understanding of the user?
A)Standard biometrics
B)Reactive biometrics
C)Cognitive biometrics
D)Affective biometrics
Q3) A(n) ____________________ attack begins with the attacker creating encrypted versions of common dictionary words, and then comparing them against those in a stolen password file.
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Q1) Discuss the purpose and importance of the chain of custody.
Q2) Describe what happens when the response team arrives and secures the crime scene.
Q3) Windows stores files on a hard drive in 512-byte blocks called
Q4) A subset of business continuity planning and testing is disaster recovery, also known as IT recovery planning.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When a company needs to identify mission-critical business functions and quantify the impact a loss of such functions may have on the organization in terms of its operational and financial position, what should be performed?
A)Business risk analysis
B)Business alert assessment
C)Business productivity analysis
D)Business impact analysis (BIA)
Q6) Generally, ____________________ focuses on restoring computing and technology resources to their former state.
Q7) What are the objectives of disaster exercises?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contrast the difference between a pedagogical approach versus an andragogical approach to subject matter.
Q2) Which roles should be represented on the security policy development team?
Q3) What concept below is at the very heart of information security?
A)threat
B)mitigation
C)risk
D)management
Q4) List two characteristics of a policy.
Q5) What kind of policy outlines how organizations use personal information it collects?
A)VPN
B)network
C)encryption
D)privacy
Q6) Which term below describes the art of helping an adult learn?
A)andragogical
B)pedagogical
C)deontological
D)metagogical

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Sample Questions
Q1) Vulnerability scans are usually performed from outside the security perimeter.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In software development, presenting the code to multiple reviewers in order to reach agreement about its security.
A)asset
B)cyberterrorism
C)hactivist
D)exploit kit
E)computer spy
F)risk
G)threat
H)threat agent
I)vulnerability
J)threat vector
Q3) When a security hardware device fails or a program aborts, which state should it go into?
Q4) List two types of hardening techniques.
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Q5) A(n) ____________________ box test is one in which some limited information has been provided to the tester.