CompTIA Security+ Certification Preparation Test
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Course Introduction
This course provides comprehensive preparation for the CompTIA Security+ certification, focusing on foundational principles of network security and risk management. Students will gain essential knowledge in areas such as threat detection, cryptography, secure network design, identity and access management, and compliance. Through practical labs, scenario-based exercises, and in-depth discussions, participants will learn to assess security posture, implement appropriate security solutions, and troubleshoot security incidents. This course is ideal for individuals seeking to validate their skills in cybersecurity and pursue entry-level security roles or advance within the IT security domain.
Recommended Textbook
CompTIA Security+ Guide to Network Security Fundamentals 5th Edition by Mark Ciampa
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15 Chapters
750 Verified Questions
750 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3831 Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Security
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ___________________ reports directly to the chief information officer (CIO), and is responsible for assessing, managing, and implementing security.
Answer: Chief information security officer (CISO)
Q2) Select below the information protection item that ensures that information is correct and that no unauthorized person or malicious software has altered that data.
A)Availability
B)Confidentiality
C)Integrity
D)Identity
Answer: C
Q3) Why are there delays in updating products such as anti-virus to resist attacks?
Answer: At the current rate of submissions of potential malware on a daily basis, updates for anti-virus software would need to be released every few seconds.
Q4) A security administrator has both technical knowledge and managerial skills.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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3
Chapter 2: Malware and Social Engineering Attacks
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe a macro virus.
Answer: A macro virus is written in a script known as a macro. A macro is a series of commands and instructions that can be grouped together as a single command. Macros often are used to automate a complex set of tasks or a repeated series of tasks. Macros can be written by using a macro language, such as Visual Basic for Applications (VBA), and are stored within the user document (such as in an Excel .XLSX worksheet). A macro virus takes advantage of the "trust" relationship between the application (Excel) and the operating system (Microsoft Windows). Once the user document is opened, the macro virus instructions execute and infect the computer.
Q2) What is malware?
Answer: Malware is software that enters a computer system without the user's knowledge or consent and then performs an unwanted-and usually harmful-action. Malware is a general term that refers to a wide variety of damaging or annoying software programs. One way to classify malware is by its primary objective. Some malware has the primary goal of rapidly spreading its infection, while other malware has the goal of concealing its purpose. Another category of malware has the goal of making a profit for its creators.
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Chapter 3: Application and Networking-Based Attacks
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An attack in which the attacker attempts to impersonate the user by using his or her session token is known as:
A)Session replay
B)Session spoofing
C)Session hijacking
D)Session blocking
Answer: C
Q2) ARP poisoning is successful because there are few authentication procedures to verify ARP requests and replies.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) A web browser makes a request for a web page using the ________________. Answer: Hypertext Transport Protocol (HTTP)
Q4) How does a cross-site scripting (XSS) attack work?
Answer: A cross site scripting attack injects scripts into a web application server to direct attacks at unsuspecting clients.
Q5) The predecessor to today's Internet was a network known as
Answer: ARPAnet
5
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Chapter 4: Host, Application, and Data Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most portable devices, and some computer monitors, have a special steel bracket security slot built into the case, which can be used in conjunction with a:
A)U-lock
B)safe lock
C)shield lock
D)cable lock
Q2) Anti-virus products typically utilize what type of virus scanning analysis?
A)Static analysis
B)Wildcard scanning analysis
C)Heuristic detection analysis
D)String scanning analysis
Q3) What type of device, sometimes called a packet filter, is designed to prevent malicious network packets from entering or leaving computers or networks?
A)IPS
B)scanner
C)firewall
D)honeypot
Q4) How does DLP index matching work?
Q5) Explain how tailgate sensors work.
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Chapter 5: Basic Cryptography
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A symmetric block cipher that uses a 56-bit key and encrypts data in 64-bit blocks
A)Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
B)Block cipher
C)Ciphertext
D)Data Encryption Standard (DES)
E)Diffie-Hellman (DH)
F)Elliptic curve cryptography (ECC)
G)Ephemeral key
H)Private key
I)Public key
J)Stream cipher
Q2) What cryptographic method, first proposed in the mid-1980s, makes use of sloping curves instead of large prime numbers?
A)FCC
B)RSA
C)ECC
D)IKE
Q3) The Data Encryption Standard is a(n) ______________ cipher.
Q4) Describe the RIPEMD hash.
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Chapter 6: Advanced Cryptography
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Sample Questions
Q1) A trust model in which two individuals trust each other because each individually trusts a third party.
A)Bridge trust model
B)Certificate Authority (CA)
C)Certificate Repository
D)Digital certificate
E)Distributed trust model
F)key escrow
G)Public key Infrastructure (PKI)
H)Session keys
I)Third-party trust
J)Trust model
Q2) What cryptographic transport algorithm is considered to be significantly more secure than SSL?
A)AES
B)HTTPS
C)ESSL
D)TLS
Q3) List the four stages of a certificate life cycle.
Q4) List and describe the entities for which IPsec is transparent.
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Chapter 7: Network Security
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a component of an IP packet that a firewall rule can use for filtering purposes?
A)Source address
B)Destination port
C)Direction
D)Intent
Q2) List and describe three features of Internet content filters.
Q3) Defense in depth, or layered security, involves the use of multiple types of network hardware within a network.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the two advantages that NAT provides.
Q5) Workgroup switches must work faster than core switches.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe how NAC works.
Q7) How does a Unified Threat Management (UTM) security product help reduce administrative overhead?
Q9) Describe how VLAN communication takes place. Page 9
Q8) Describe the difference between subnetting and VLANs.
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Page 10
Chapter 8: Administering a Secure Network
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Sample Questions
Q1) An instance of a particular state of a virtual machine that can be saved for later use.
A)Audit log
B)Event log
C)File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
D)Flood guard
E)FTP Secure (FTPS)
F)Host elasticity
G)Loop protection
H)Snapshot
I)Telnet
J)Virtualization
Q2) Which of the following is not a benefit that can be provided by using IP telephony?
A)Simplified management
B)Decreased network utilization
C)Reduced infrastructure requirements
D)Increased user productivity
Q3) The ____________________ Layer is omitted in the TCP/IP model.
Q4) List and describe three benefits offered by IP telephony.
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11
Chapter 9: Wireless Network Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) List and describe the major parts of an access point.
Q2) The second generation of WPA security from the Wi-Fi Alliance that addresses authentication and encryption on WLANs and is currently the most secure model for Wi-Fi security.
A)Bluejacking
B)Bluesnarfing
C)Initialization vector (IV)
D)Near field communication (NFC)
E)Preshared key (PSK)
F)RF Jamming
G)War driving
H)Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS)
I)Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA 2)
J)Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
Q3) Explain why it is important to be able to control the power level at which the WLAN transmits.
Q4) Because of the weaknesses of WEP, it is possible for an attacker to identify two packets derived from the same IV.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 10: Mobile Device Security
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select below the option that is not one of the SD format card families:
A)Standard capacity (SDSC)
B)High capacity (SDHC)
C)Extreme Capacity (SDXC)
D)Secure Digital Input Output (SDIO)
Q2) What mobile operating system below requires all applications to be reviewed and approved before they can be made available on the public store front?
A)Android
B)Blackberry OS
C)iOS
D)Symbian
Q3) What term below describes a hand-held mobile device that was intended to replace paper systems, and typically included an appointment calendar, an address book, a "to-do" list, a calculator, and the ability to record limited notes?
A)Notebook
B)Netbook
C)Web-based
D)Personal digital assistant (PDA)
Q4) What is the difference between a feature phone and a smartphone?
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Chapter 11: Access Control Fundamentals
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Sample Questions
Q1) List the steps for RADIUS authentication with a wireless device in an IEEE 802.1x network.
Q2) A RADIUS ____________________ is a computer that forwards RADIUS messages among RADIUS clients and RADIUS servers.
Q3) In a UAC prompt, what color is used to indicate the lowest level of risk?
A)red
B)gray
C)yellow
D)green
Q4) The action that is taken by a subject over an object is called a(n):
A)authorization
B)access
C)control
D)operation
Q5) Group policy is a Unix feature that allows for the centralized management and configuration of computers and remote users using Unix Active Directory.
A)True
B)False
Q6) List two major access control models.
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Chapter 12: Authentication and Account Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) What can be used to increase the strength of hashed passwords?
A)Salt
B)Key stretching
C)Double hashing
D)Crypting
Q2) What technology allows users to share resources stored on one site with a second site without forwarding their authentication credentials to the other site?
A)OpenAuth
B)OAuth
C)SAML
D)Kerberos
Q3) What federated identity management (FIM) relies on token credentials?
A)OAuth
B)OpenID
C)Windows Live
D)OpenPass
Q4) A(n) ____________________ attack begins with the attacker creating encrypted versions of common dictionary words, and then comparing them against those in a stolen password file.
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Chapter 13: Business Continuity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify two scenarios that could be used in a BIA.
Q2) What RAID type below utilizes parity data across all drives instead of using a separate drive to hold parity error checking information?
A)RAID 0
B)RAID 1
C)RAID 2
D)RAID 5
Q3) ____________________ is data about data.
Q4) Generally, ____________________ focuses on restoring computing and technology resources to their former state.
Q5) A metallic enclosure that prevents the entry or escape of an electromagnetic field is known as a:
A)bollard
B)mantrap
C)Faraday cage
D)Newton cage
Q6) Windows stores files on a hard drive in 512-byte blocks called
Q7) RAID 0 technology is based on ____________________.
Page 16
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Chapter 14: Risk Mitigation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contrast the difference between a pedagogical approach versus an andragogical approach to subject matter.
Q2) What concept below is at the very heart of information security?
A)threat
B)mitigation
C)risk
D)management
Q3) Websites that group individuals and organizations into clusters or groups based on some sort of affiliation are considered to be what type of websites?
A)social networking
B)social engineering
C)social management
D)social control
Q4) What type of learner learns best through hands-on approaches?
A)Visual
B)Auditory
C)Kinesthetic
D)Spatial
Q5) What are the typical classification designations of government documents?
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Chapter 15: Vulnerability Assessment and Third Party Integration
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Sample Questions
Q1) List two types of hardening techniques.
Q2) An agreement through which parties in a relationship can reach an understanding of their relationships and responsibilities.
A)asset
B)cyberterrorism
C)hactivist
D)exploit kit
E)computer spy
F)risk
G)threat
H)threat agent
I)vulnerability
J)threat vector
Q3) What is the name for the code that can be executed by unauthorized users within a software product?
A)vulnerability surface
B)risk profile
C)input surface
D)attack surface
Q4) Describe a penetration testing report.
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