CompTIA A+ Certification Preparation
Test Questions
Course Introduction
This course is designed to prepare students for the CompTIA A+ certification, a leading credential for entry-level IT professionals. It covers foundational IT concepts including hardware, software, troubleshooting, networking, security, and mobile devices. Through hands-on labs and practice exams, students will gain practical skills in tasks such as assembling computers, installing operating systems, configuring devices, and diagnosing common issues. The course emphasizes real-world scenarios to help learners develop the problem-solving abilities required to succeed in a technical support role and achieve certification success.
Recommended Textbook
Mike Meyers CompTIA A+ Guide to Managing and Troubleshooting PCs 4th Edition by Michael Meyers
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2
Chapter 1: The Path of the PC Tech
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Q1) Which one of the following does not accurately describe a tested domain for the CompTIA A+ 220-802 exam?
A) Mobile Devices
B) Software
C) Operating Systems
D) Troubleshooting
E) Security
Answer: B
Q2) If you passed the A+,Network+,or Security+ exams before the January 1,2011,deadline,what must you do to recertify?
Answer: Nothing.Individuals who passed the exams and earned the certifications before the deadline are still considered "certified for life."
Q3) _________ is not covered on the A+ exams.
Answer: Windows 8
Q4) What two exams must you pass to become CompTIA A+ certified?
Answer: To become A+ certified,you must pass both the Hardware and Operating Systems exams.
Q5) The Operating Systems domain is a part of the __________ exam.
Answer: 220-802 or Operating Systems
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Chapter 2: Operational Procedures
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Q1) Speaking clearly and eliciting answers in a non-judgmental and non-accusatory manner are examples of _______________.
Answer: assertive communication
Q2) What are the keys to effective relationships when dealing with customers?
Answer: Being on time,avoiding accusatory questions,demonstrating integrity,treating others with respect,and using other assertive communications are guidelines you should always follow to deal with customers effectively.
Q3) What do anti-static mats and wrist straps use to prevent anti-static charges from racing through devices?
A) Extractors
B) Resistors
C) Potential depressors
D) Multimeters
Answer: B
Q4) __________ bags help prevent ESD while parts are stored.
Answer: Anti-static
Q5) __________ and __________ can both cause safety issues if not properly attended to while working on equipment.
Answer: Loose hair;jewelry
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Chapter 3: The Visible PC
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Q1) Which of the following connector types is most commonly used in the back of a PC?
A) BNC
B) Centronics
C) DB
D) RJ
Answer: C
Q2) What devices provide sound output?
Answer: Speakers
Q3) What does SCSI stand for?
Answer: small computer system interface
Q4) ____________________ commands tell the computer what to do to get work done.
Answer: Programming
Q5) Special ____________________ drives can read,write,delete,and rewrite data to special discs.
Answer: optical drives
Q6) The ____________________ performs all the calculations that take place inside the PC.
Answer: microprocessor
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Visible Windows
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which file system is the most secure?
A) Windows Vista Enterprise
B) FAT32
C) NTFS
D) FAT
Q2) What does Windows Vista replace My Network Places with?
Q3) How much RAM can a 32-bit CPU use?
Q4) Which version of Windows 7 adds support for joining domains?
A) Windows 7 Professional
B) Windows 7 Home Premium
C) Windows 7 Starter
D) Windows 7 Home Basic
Q5) The ____________________ tool enables you to tell what has happened on a PC in the last week or more.
Q6) Home Starter is not a valid edition of __________.
Q7) What provides a one-page aggregation of event messages,warnings,and maintenance messages in Windows 7?
Q8) Which Windows XP edition includes the Media Center and PVR programs that enable you to watch and record television and organize your media?
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Chapter 5: Visible Networks
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Q1) Describe CAT levels.
Q2) Who established CAT levels?
Q3) Who receives a broadcast sent to the MAC address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF?
A) The router
B) Every computer on the segment
C) The sending computer
D) A specified destination computer
Q4) __________ are the most basic and simplistic of the three network organizations.
Q5) How are broadcast domains separated?
Q6) During the 1980s,IBM developed the __________,the default protocol for early versions of Windows.
Q7) Describe the color-coding scheme in UTP cabling.
Q8) __________ contain the MAC address of the network card to which the data is being sent.
Q9) __________ protocol handled naming conventions,while __________ chopped up data for delivery via frames.
Q10) How does a star-bus topology help a network stay functioning?
Q11) How does DNS work?
Q12) Routers are devices that have at least two __________. Page 7
Q13) The octet numbers range from 0 to 255-this is called ____________.
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Page 8
Chapter 6: Microprocessors
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Q1) The CPUs of __________ must consume as little electricity as possible,to conserve battery life and limit heat.
Q2) Almost all current CPUs have A(n)__________,moved from the motherboard chip into the CPU to optimize the flow of information into and out of the CPU.
Q3) The ____________________ numbering system is used to describe the state of a wire at any given moment.
Q4) Which technology allows a computer to run more than one operating system at a time?
A) Multiplying
B) Pipelining
C) Virtualization
D) Caching
Q5) When installing a CPU,you should place the ____________________ where the heat sink meets the CPU.
Q6) __________ processors are intended for higher-end servers.
Q7) How many pins does an AMD Socket 940 have?
Q8) What do 64-bit CPUs do for backwards compatibility?
Q9) The temporary storage areas of a CPU are called ____________________.
Q10) What is a clock?
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Chapter 7: RAM
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Q1) How is DDR RAM faster than regular SDRAM?
Q2) Access speed of RDRAM is measured in _______________.
Q3) Modern CPUs since the Pentium have a data bus that is ____ bits wide.
A) 40
B) 56
C) 55
D) 64
Q4) RAM slots are organized electronically into _______________.
Q5) Windows uses a portion of the hard drive as an extension of system RAM,called a
Q6) What is a reasonable minimum RAM requirement for Windows XP and Vista?
Q7) What are RAM sticks?
Q8) GDDR3 is a type of memory used solely in _______________ cards.
Q9) _______________ RAM is tied to the system clock.
Q10) What does system lockup and page fault indicate?
Q11) How will a user verify added RAM in a PC?
Q12) The PC needs to automatically detect any DIMM you have installed.It does this through the use of a unique chip called _______________ installed on every DIMM stick. Page 10
Q13) What form of error checking was used by early RAM technologies?
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Chapter 8: Bios
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Q1) Define POST cards.
Q2) What are some drawbacks to traditional BIOS?
Q3) What are the functions of the system ROM?
Q4) How many MB of programs do system ROM chips store?
A) 1.44
B) 2
C) 4
D) 65,536
Q5) Where would you enable or disable Wakeup settings in the CMOS Setup Utility?
Q6) The ____________________ acts as a secure cryptoprocessor that can usually be turned on or off or else enabled or disabled in the CMOS setup program.
Q7) Every time a key is pressed on the keyboard,the ____________________ chip in the keyboard notices which key has been pressed.
Q8) How can you easily clear the CMOS,including clearing the password?
A) Unplug the PC.
B) Unplug the PC and short the CMOS jumper.
C) Issue a Clear CMOS command from the command line.
D) This can't be done.
Q9) What should be done to resolve a CMOS configuration mismatch error?
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Chapter 9: Motherboards
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Q1) The main problem with form factors such as LPX and NLX was their ____.
A) big size
B) incompatibility
C) inflexibility
D) low speed
Q2) The ____________________ chip helps the CPU to work with the RAM.
Q3) Why do ATX motherboards offer better performance as compared to AT motherboards?
Q4) ____ are the lights that have positive and negative sides.
A) Power buttons
B) Reset buttons
C) LEDs
D) Chips
Q5) Describe the three varieties of ATX,in terms of size.
Q6) A (n)____ symptom is the most difficult symptom to diagnose.
A) RAM
B) catastrophic
C) ethereal
D) component
Q8) Why are the chips in a chipset located centrally on modern motherboards? Page 13
Q7) Old-style motherboards followed a form factor called ___________________.
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Page 14
Chapter 10: Power Supplies
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Q1) Describe a multimeter.
Q2) The ____________________ test by a multimeter checks whether electrons can flow from one end of the wire to the other.
Q3) The power supply connects to the power cord via a standard ____________________ connector.
Q4) What unit is used to measure voltage?
A) Ampere
B) Volt
C) Watt
D) Ohm
Q5) How do today's power supplies handle increased loads from higher-end equipment?
Q6) To handle differing voltages in multiple countries,most power supplies are
Q7) Where is the real on/off switch located on a PC?
Q8) ____________________ current allows electrons to flow in one direction around continuous circuits.
Q9) What is current?
Q10) A (n)____________________ is inserted between the power supply and the outlet to protect the system from power surges. Page 15
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Page 16
Chapter 11: Hard Drive Technologies
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Q1) Combining different types of RAID into a single array (such as RAID0+1)is known as ____________________ solutions.
Q2) Each platter requires ____ heads.
A) two
B) three
C) five
D) eight
Q3) Describe the spindle or rotational speed of a hard drive.
Q4) Fluxes are grouped in runs using a data encoding system known as ____________________.
Q5) The ATA-2 standard defined a way to get past the 504-MB limit with ___________________.
Q6) Laptops,memory cards,USB thumb drives,and hand-held devices often use ____ technology.
A) DNAD
B) ST-506
C) solid-state
D) ATAPI-2
Q7) Software RAID means the ____________________ is in charge of all the RAID functions.
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Chapter 12: Implementing Hard Drives
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Q1) You should ____________________ your hard drive if it gets a lot of "Trying to recover lost allocation unit" errors.
Q2) If using primary partitions,how many drive letters is a disk limited to?
A) 4
B) 1
C) 26
D) 5
Q3) The ____ stores the location of the operating system boot files.
A) boot sector
B) MBR
C) partition table
D) partition boot sector
Q4) Dynamic disks are divided into ____________________ instead of partitions.
Q5) List any two advantages of NTFS over other file systems.
Q6) Disk Management will show a System disk as ____________________ if it is healthy and communicating properly with the computer.
Q7) What box would you check to make a file unreadable?
Q8) The ____________________ file system provides encryption of files.
Page 18
Q9) A storage type unique to Windows 2000/XP/Vista is known as
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Page 19
Chapter 13: Removable Media
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Q1) What is the storage capacity of a DVD-18 DVD-ROM?
A) 4.37 GB
B) 7.95 GB
C) 8.74 GB
D) 15.90 GB
Q2) Standard floppy disks are ____________________ inches in size.
Q3) The "RW" in CD-RW stands for ____________________.
Q4) Windows __________ has the built-in ability to burn ISOs without the need for third-party tools.
A) 7
B) Vista
C) XP Home
D) XP Professional
Q5) All modern CD-R drives allow you to burn additional data onto a CD-R disc until the disc is full.What are these drives called?
A) Multi-CD-Rs
B) Multiburner drives
C) Multisession drives
D) Single-session drives
Q6) What is the difference between floppy drives and floppy disks?
Page 20
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Chapter 14: Installing and Upgrading Windows
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Q1) What are the two methods of activating Windows XP?
Q2) The boot order of the computer is controlled through a(n)____________________-based setup program.
Q3) What online tool can be used to check your hardware and software and report compatibility issues for an upgrade to Windows XP?
A) HCL
B) Windows catalog
C) Windows Update
D) Upgrade Advisor
Q4) Which setting enables you to adjust settings for the display of date,time,math separators,and currency symbols?
A) administrative tools
B) hardware
C) locale
D) network connections
Q5) A free utility,usually called _________,can be run on a system to see if the hardware and software will work with a newer version of Windows.
Q6) Current operating systems are available in __-bit and __-bit versions.
Q7) What is a service pack?
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Chapter 31: The Right PC for You
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Q1) What is a performance object?
Q2) __________ in Windows Vista adds an excellent Resource Overview,a Reliability Monitor tool,and a much more flexible way to use counters with Data Collector Sets and Reports.
Q3) The __________ runs on a scale from 1.0 to 7.9 and gives you a pretty good gauge of the relative strengths and weaknesses of a system.
Q4) To identify a process,you use the __________,not the process name.
Q5) Which are the Windows XP boot files?
Q6) All of the following are ways to start Task Manager EXCEPT:
A) Press CTRL-ALT-DELETE and select Task Manager
B) Go to Start | Run or Start | Search,type taskmgr,and press ENTER
C) Press CTRL-SHIFT-ESC
D) Press CTRL-SHIFT-F1
Q7) What are the five root keys of the Registry?
Q8) How does a performance counter work?
Q9) Microsoft's tool to configure ODBC is called the __________.
Q10) What are Windows XP's system files?
Q11) Which snap-in enables Windows to create a written record of just about anything that happens on your system? Page 22
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Page 23
Chapter 16: NTFS, Users, and Groups
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Q1) How do groups help administrators manage users and permissions?
Q2) The only true way to protect your data from access by any other user is called?
A) Regular backups
B) Authorization
C) Encryption
D) Authentication
Q3) What are the two key data-related protection processes called?
Q4) What three things all work together to enable you to share a Windows PC securely with multiple user accounts?
Q5) What did Microsoft do to make User Account Control (UAC)less bothersome to users in Windows 7?
Q6) What do you use in order to create a new user account in Windows XP?
Q7) In Windows Vista,once you have selected a specific user to share a folder or file with,which permissions can you assign?
A) Private or Public folder
B) Reader,Contributor,or Co-owner
C) Writer,Reader,or Contributor
D) NTFS,FAT32,or FAT
Q8) Describe the Power Users group in Windows XP.
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Chapter 17: Maintaining and Optimizing Windows
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Q1) What is the default Driver Signing setting?
A) Block
B) Cancel
C) Ignore
D) Warn
Q2) The best tool to use when optimizing device drivers is _______________.
A) Task Manger
B) Device Manager
C) Performance Console
D) System Configuration tool
Q3) With the __________ button,Windows Update will grab any high-priority updates-these are security patches-and install them on your computer.
Q4) Which backup media is slowest and stores data in a sequential order?
A) CD
B) Tape
C) DVD
D) USB Thumb Drive
Q5) The newer versions of __________ also include an option to compress old files.
Q6) Which Windows Update setting is advised for most users?
25
Q7) How has the Add or Remove Programs applet been changed in Windows Vista and 7?
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Chapter 18: Working With the Command-Line Interface
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Q1) A file cannot be modified or deleted if the ____________________ attribute is set.
Q2) A command switch is expressed by using which character?
A) -
B) :
C) \
D) /
Q3) Which key in the command-line interface brings back the previous command,one letter at a time?
A) F1
B) F3
C) F10
D) F12
Q4) The command-line interface tells a user it's ready to receive commands by displaying a specific set of characters called a(n)____.
A) command
B) key
C) prompt
D) signal
Q5) How does Windows organize the contents in drives?
Page 26
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Chapter 19: Troubleshooting Windows
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Q1) What are the risks of the typical recovery options?
Q2) What error common on older systems occurs when a program tries writing to a protected area of memory?
Q3) A user has reconfigured the refresh rate on his monitor such that it no longer displays.To be able to access the settings,you would select ____________________ from the Advanced Startup Options menu.
Q4) The ____________________ Recovery Console command displays the contents of a text file.
Q5) What would cause the computer to automatically boot into Safe mode?
Q6) The Ntbtlog.txt file is saved in the ____________________ folder.
Q7) Which of the following settings in Windows 7's Compatibility tab disables all display features such as Aero?
A) Disable advanced features
B) Disable display scaling on high DPI settings
C) Disable desktop composition
D) Disable Aero desktop
Q8) Windows supports the ____________________ feature,which looks for a file called autorun.inf when removable media are inserted into a computer.
Q9) Describe an ASR recovery.
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Chapter 20: Input Devices
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Q1) What type of pen or hand device reads UPC code and connects to either a PS/2 or USB port?
A) KVM
B) Bar code reader
C) Fingerprint scanner
D) UPS reader
Q2) How fast does a Low-Speed USB device run?
A) 1.5 Mbps
B) 12 Mbps
C) 400 Mbps
D) 480 Mbps
Q3) What type of biometric device is commonly used with USB thumb drives,keyboards,and laptops?
A) Retina scanner
B) Touch screen analyzer
C) Fingerprint scanner
D) KVM scanner
Q4) What is a touch screen?
Q5) Webcams measure their resolution in __________,just like digital cameras.
Q6) What are the different speeds of USB?
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Chapter 21: Video
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Q1) In the PC gaming world,a true 3-D object is composed of a group of points called
Q2) A modern ____________________ projector shines light through an LCD panel.
Q3) What are the best connections for outputting to television?
A) MIDI
B) DVI to VGA adapter
C) HDMI
D) DVI-TV
Q4) What is the VRR?
Q5) What is the the time it takes for sub-pixels to go from pure black to pure white and back again?
Q6) What can cause HD playback issues?
Q7) Why are there three electron guns in a CRT monitor?
Q8) What is a CRT monitor?
Q9) Where is the video image stored in a video card?
Q10) Using DPMS,a typical CRT monitor's power consumption will be reduced to approximately ________ watts and a LCD monitor will be reduced to about ________ watts.
Q11) In a (n)____________________ matrix LCD display,the screen is refreshed two lines at a time. Page 29
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Page 30
Chapter 22: Local Area Networking
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Q1) Which system is basically a headless system (no monitor,no keyboard,and no mouse)that you plug into a network and is used to share its hard drives?
A) Router
B) Server
C) NAS
D) Domain Controller
Q2) Describe a NAS.
Q3) A cable with a center cable surrounded by insulation,which in turn is covered with a shield of braided cable,is a (n)____________________ cable.
Q4) The IP address 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334 is an example of a(n)____________________ address.
Q5) What is the standard connector used for UTP Ethernet installations?
A) BNC
B) RJ-11
C) RJ-45
D) LC
Q6) What type of connectors does coax use?
Q7) What are the major differences in fiber standards?
Q8) What is the downside to using hubs?
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Chapter 23: Wireless Networking
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Q1) To protect wireless systems,SSID ____________________ is turned off.
Q2) What is the maximum distance of a Class 3 Bluetooth device?
A) 100 meters
B) 10 meters
C) 1 meter
D) 5 meters
Q3) Two or more wireless nodes communicating in ad hoc mode form what's called a(n)____________________.
Q4) When using an omni-directional antenna,where is the best place to keep it in your home or office?
A) On the roof
B) Near the outside wall
C) In the center
D) In a basement
Q5) You can easily add wireless Ethernet and Bluetooth capabilities using ___________________ adapters.
Q6) With ____________________ 802.11n WAPs,you can choose which band to put 802.11n traffic on,either 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz.
Q7) Describe WPA's use of TKIP.
32
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Chapter 24: The Internet
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Q1) What command can you use to show all the connections between your computer and any other computer?
Q2) Both DSL and cable modem Internet connections can be used by two or more computers if they are part of a (n)____________________.
Q3) Internet backbones span the major cities of the Earth and interconnect at special locations called ____________________.
Q4) POP3 is an abbreviation for ____________________.
Q5) ____________________ enables you to give anyone control of your desktop.
Q6) What tool enables multiple computers to use the Internet connection provided by one computer on the network?
A) Internet Connection Firewall (ICF)
B) Internet Connection Sharing (ICS)
C) Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
D) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)
Q7) The default gateway is a (n)____________________ that is connected to at the ISP.
Q8) How is data received via satellite connections?
Page 33
Q9) What is the bandwidth of channels in an ISDN service?
Q10) How is using a SOHO router an alternative to ICS?
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Chapter 25: Multimedia
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Q1) What device is used between you and the microphone to minimize certain noises?
A) Capture card
B) Pop filter
C) S/PDIF connector
D) Condenser microphone
Q2) The number of jacks required by a typical stereo or 2.1 speaker system is ______.
Q3) What kind of connectors are standard for TV tuner cards?
Q4) In Windows XP,settings for sound playback,sound recording,and MIDI music playback can be configured on the ____________________ tab of the Sounds and Audio Device Properties dialog box.
Q5) DirectX version 3 introduced ____________________,which offered a range of commands to place a sound anywhere in 3-D space.
Q6) How do Environmental Audio Extensions (EAX)help developers?
Q7) For the best recording,what would you want?
A) High noise-to-noise ratio
B) High noise-to-signal ratio
C) High signal-to-noise ratio
D) High signal-to-signal ratio
Q8) Describe a condenser microphone.
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Chapter 26: Portable Computing
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Q1) One technology used in PC LCD displays is also used in portable LCD displays-the __________ panels,which provide for the greater viewing angle and better color quality.
Q2) How should nickel-cadmium batteries be disposed of?
Q3) An Energy Star peripheral device must have the ability to ____________________ down without actually turning off.
Q4) How would you replace RAM in a portable PC?
Q5) Which port can support the keyboard and mouse in portable devices?
A) PS/2
B) RS-232
C) IEEE 1284
D) FireWire
Q6) Which is the successor to APM and specifies global and sleeping power states?
A) ACPI
B) SMM
C) Energy Star
D) Li-Ion
Q7) What common PC ports are provided by port replicators?
Q9) What kind of RAM will you typically find in newer laptops? Page 35
Q8) What are the four steps to disassembling a portable PC?
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Chapter 27: Mobile Devices
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Q1) What type of touchscreens uses the electrical current in your body to determine the movement of your fingers across the screen?
A) Capacitive
B) Reactive
C) Resistive
D) LCD
Q2) The __________ of the screen rotates along with the display,so by default,up is always up.
Q3) Tapping an icon will usually __________ a program or app.
Q4) Mobile devices have all of the following hardware characteristics in common with PCs EXCEPT:
A) FRUs
B) CPU/GPU
C) Storage
D) Motherboard
Q5) What hard drive technology is most common in mobile devices?
Q6) Describe the cable connector used to synch or back up mobile devices.
Q7) How can you prevent physical damage to your mobile device?
Q8) Describe data roaming.
Q9) Describe how mobile devices connect to 802.11 Wi-Fi networks. Page 37
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Chapter 28: Printers
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Q1) Printers that create an image on paper by physically striking a (n)____________________ against the paper's surface are known as impact printers.
Q2) What is a graphical device interface (GDI)?
Q3) The printing process ends with the ____________________ and ____________________ cleaning of the photosensitive drum.
Q4) Print speed is measured in ____________________.
Q5) Today,the typical ____________________ printer uses a standard RJ-45 Ethernet cable or wireless interface.
Q6) What printing subsystem does Windows Vista include to enhance color management and better print layout fidelity?
Q7) Describe the exposing phase of the laser printing process.
Q8) The Add Printer Wizard allows you to set up a local or ____________________ printer.
Q9) What does "draft quality" mean when referring to printers?
Q10) What are snapshot printers?
Q12) __________ starts the physical part of the printing process. Page 39
Q11) If,when printing a document on a dot-matrix printer,the characters look chopped off at the top or bottom,the ____________________ needs to be adjusted.
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Chapter 29: Securing Computers
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Q1) A user has a credit card-sized card used to prove her identity with a PIN.What is this card called?
A) Authorization card
B) Biometric card
C) Smart card
D) Task card
Q2) A program that looks useful,such as a game or a utility,but is actually maliciously doing something else to the system is known as a (n)____________________.
Q3) __________ reduce the viewing angle,making it impossible for anyone to read the screen except those directly in front of it.
Q4) Sally is a member of the Sales group and the Marketing group.The Marketing group has Full Control permission to a folder named NewProducts,and the Sales group has Read permission to the same folder.Sally's permission to the folder is
Q5) What is contained in a digital certificate?
Q6) Define social engineering.
Q7) What is a stealth virus?
Q8) What is a Trojan horse?
Q9) Define malware.
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Chapter 30: Virtualization
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Q1) List five advantages of virtualization.
Q2) __________ enables the mass deployment of numerous servers with similar baseline operating systems.
Q3) Discuss how virtualization enables system recovery.
Q4) Most virtual machine managers replace the CTRL-ALT-DELETE key sequence with:
A) CTRL-ALT-INSERT
B) CTRL-ALT-ESC
C) CTRL-ALT-FN
D) ALT-F4
Q5) An advantage of virtualization in a testing environment is the ability to perform __________ before production.
Q6) With virtualization,you can place multiple virtual servers on a single physical system,reducing __________ use.
Q7) All of the following are characteristics of Hyper-V EXCEPT:
A) Free
B) Microsoft product
C) Requires Windows Server 2008
D) Simple to use
Q8) Describe the hardware factors that affect virtualization scalability.
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Chapter 31: The Right PC for You
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Q1) What is a technology that enables you to run more than one operating system at the same time on a single computer called?
A) Multiprocessing
B) Simulation
C) Emulation
D) Virtualization
Q2) __________ is the most important hardware component in virtualization.
Q3) A single-purpose system,like a point-of-sale machine (cash registers)is an example of what type of computer:
A) Thick client
B) Thin client
C) Workstation
D) Server
Q4) What kind of sound should a home-theater PC support?
Q5) Which component of a video workstation is important due to the large size of video files?
A) Storage
B) GPU
C) RAM
D) Video card
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Chapter 32: The Complete PC Tech
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Q1) Spare RAM sticks,a video card,a NIC,and a power supply are all examples of
Q2) What are the four primary stages of the computing process?
A) Keyboard,CPU,monitor,mouse
B) Input,loading,processing,storing
C) Input,processing,storage,output
D) Processing,displaying,storing,output
Q3) When you encounter a partially functional computer,you should consider making backups.What should you include in the backup?
Q4) What is the first step of the troubleshooting theory?
A) Identify the problem.
B) Establish theory of probable cause.
C) Test the theory.
D) Verify full system functionality.
Q5) What software utilities should you include in your traveling toolkit for troubleshooting purposes?
Q6) The ____________________ is nothing more than a set of steps you use along with the computing process to diagnose and fix a computer.
Q7) Explain escalation.
Page 44
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