CompTIA A+ Certification Preparation Test
Preparation
Course Introduction
CompTIA A+ Certification Preparation is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the foundational knowledge and practical skills required to succeed in the CompTIA A+ certification exams. The course covers essential topics such as computer hardware components, operating systems, networking fundamentals, security practices, mobile devices, and troubleshooting techniques. Through a blend of theoretical instruction and hands-on lab exercises, students learn how to install, configure, and maintain PCs, laptops, and mobile devices, as well as resolve common technical issues. This course is ideal for individuals seeking entry-level positions in IT support, help desk, and technical support roles, or those aiming to validate their knowledge with an industry-recognized certification.
Recommended Textbook
Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Guide to Managing and Troubleshooting PCs 5th Edition by Mike Meyers
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Chapter 1: The Path of the PC Tech
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Sample Questions
Q1) Several certifications cover computer literacy or _______________ literacy, the phrase that means "what every person needs to know about computers to survive in the 21st century."
Answer: digital
Q2) What is the name of the pre-CompTIA A+ certification?
A)CompTIA Network Security+
B)CompTIA IC³ certification
C)CompTIA Certified Network Associate (CCNA)
D)CompTIA IT Fundamentals
Answer: D
Q3) Why is it advantageous to pass the A+ Certification exams?
Answer: If you successfully pass these exams, the organization that administers them grants you certification.You receive some piece of paper or pin or membership card that you can show to potential clients or employers.This certification gives those potential clients or employers a level of confidence that you can do what you say you can do.Without this certification, either you will not find suitable work in that profession or no one will trust you to do the work.
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Chapter 2: Operational Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) You should respect other people's property and follow the _______________, also known as the Golden Rule.
Answer: Ethic of Reciprocity
Q2) At what stage of the troubleshooting theory process should backups be performed?
Answer: Backups should be performed during the identification stage of the troubleshooting theory process, before making any changes.
Q3) Which phrase best describes the process of asking questions once a person has described a situation?
A)Respectful communication
B)Sensitivity awareness
C)Eliciting answers
D)Showing versatility
Answer: C
Q4) When building out a computer space and cutting drywall, wear a(n) _______________ for breathing protection.
Answer: air filter mask
Q5) Most companies require a signed _______________ to perform work.
Answer: Authorization of Work
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Chapter 3: The Visible Computer
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Q1) Describe the code names and default name used for the Windows 8 interface.
Answer: The Windows 8 interface, code-named Metro UI, works great for touch-enabled devices.Microsoft dropped the "Metro UI" moniker just before releasing Windows 8 due to legal concerns, replacing it with "Modern UI." Many techs and IT industry pros continue to refer to the unique Windows 8/8.1 tiled interface as "Metro." The default Windows 8 interface is called the Start screen.
Q2) Briefly describe the output stage of the computer process.
Answer: Once the computer has processed your request, it shows you the result by changing what you see on the display or playing a sound through the speakers.This is output.
Q3) The many different distributions of Linux offer a variety of user interfaces, called _______________, but they offer similar functions to those in Windows or Mac OS X. Answer: desktop environments (DEs)
Q4) Describe how to navigate to the Unity System Settings.
Answer: To access System Settings, click on the gear icon on the far right of the menu bar and select System Settings.
Q5) The default Windows 8 interface is called the _______________. Answer: Start screen
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Chapter 4: Microprocessors
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Q1) What is a parallel execution?
Q2) All modern CPUs run at some multiple of the _______________ speed.
Q3) What are the four stages of the pipelining process?
A)Fetch, Decode, Execute, and Write
B)Read, Write, Fetch, and Execute
C)Read, Write, Encode, and Decode
D)Fetch, Decode, Encode, and Write
Q4) With _______________, each individual pipeline of the Pentium 4 runs multiple threads at a time.
Q5) SRAM used to preload as many instructions as possible and keep copies of already run instructions and data in case the CPU needs to work on them again is called a(n)
Q6) What makes parallel execution possible?
Q7) In some instances, you can create a system that has no fan for the CPU with what is called fanless or _______________ cooling.
Q8) What is the purpose of CPU code names?
Q9) In PCs, _______________ transfers and stores data to and from the CPU in byte-sized chunks.
6
Q10) What is one big advantage of OEM CPU coolers?
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Chapter 5: Ram
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Q1) DDR SDRAM for laptops comes in _______________.
A)168-pin DIMMs
B)172-pin micro-DIMMs
C)172-pin micro-CRIMMs
D)184-pin CRIMMs
Q2) A(n) _______________ is an error that can cause an application to crash.
Q3) What do system lockups and page faults indicate in Windows?
Q4) The default and recommended page-file size in Windows is 1.5 times the amount of installed _______________ on your computer.
Q5) The ultra-low-voltage version of DDR3, _______________, runs at a miserly 1.25 V.
Q6) Latency numbers reflect how many ticks of the _______________ occur before the RAM responds.
Q7) What keystroke combination would you use to access the System Control Panel applet?
Q8) How was the 400-MHz frontside bus speed achieved?
Q9) In reference to RAM sticks, CAS stands for _______________.
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Q10) When a Mac OS X system receives a non-maskable interrupt, Mac OS X will display a spinning rainbow wheel called the _______________.
Chapter 6: Bios
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Q1) Define POST cards.
Q2) What happens when a POST error occurs before a video is available?
A)The computer will automatically shut down.
B)POST will attempt to correct the error.
C)POST will alert the user with beeps.
D)The error is displayed as text after video is available.
Q3) What should be done to resolve a CMOS configuration mismatch error?
Q4) Which chip stores information that describes specific device parameters?
A)BIOS
B)CMOS
C)ROM
D)System BIOS
Q5) The _______________ includes the Northbridge and Southbridge chips on a motherboard.
Q6) A(n) _______________ password specified in BIOS security settings locks or unlocks the computer booting to an operating system.
Q7) Many motherboards support the _______________ feature provided by the computer case, or chassis.
Q8) The POST cards snap into the _______________ slots in a system.
Q9) The keyboard controller stores the scan code in its own _______________ Page 8
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Chapter 7: Motherboards
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Q1) Some of the features in proprietary systems are _______________-part of a motherboard that is separate from the main one but connected by a cable of some sort-and unique power connections.
Q2) What are the benefits of ITX small form factor (SFF) motherboards?
Q3) How many PCB layers are on a motherboard?
Q4) The last of the 32-bit versions of Windows had support for _______________ drivers, which were essentially drivers that had not gone through the Windows Certification Program (as it was called then) such that their software did not get a digital signature from Microsoft.
Q5) The _______________ form factor is distinct from AT in the lack of an AT keyboard port, replaced with a rear panel that has all necessary ports built in.
Q6) What should you do to fix a catastrophic failure?
Q7) What is the importance of the motherboard book?
Q8) What hardware options do different chipsets support?
Q9) For almost all expansion cards, their BIOS comes in the form of _______________-software support programs-loaded from an optical disc provided by the card manufacturer.
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Q10) What factors led to Intel's invention of the Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) port?
Chapter 8: Power Supplies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which unit is used to measure voltage?
A)Ampere
B)Volt
C)Watt
D)Ohm
Q2) _______________ assist in maintaining proper airflow and keeping the dust and smoke out of the case.
Q3) Higher-end PCIe cards have a dedicated _______________-pin or _______________-pin PCIe power connector.
Q4) What is the correlation between volts, amperes, and wattage?
Q5) How do fuses provide basic protection from overflow of electricity?
Q6) What symbols do multimeters use to indicate DC and AC settings?
Q7) Briefly describe the two types of current in terms of electron flow?
Q8) The power supply connects to the power cord via a standard _______________ connector.
Q9) What UL rating is preferred for a surge suppressor?
A)UL497A
B)UL1497A
C)UL1449
D)1750 joules Page 11
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Chapter 9: Hard Drive Technologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which SATA variety runs at 6 GBPS?
A)SATA 2.0
B)SATA 1.0
C)SATA 3.0
D)SATA 6.0
Q2) The maximum SATA-device cable length is _______________ inches.
Q3) The _______________ on SATA controller and power cables makes it impossible to install either incorrectly.
Q4) Hard drives run at a set _______________, with the spinning platters measured in revolutions per minute (RPM).
Q5) What is the minimum number of drives needed to implement RAID 6?
A)Two
B)Three
C)Four
D)Five
Q6) What is the best friend a tech has when it comes to troubleshooting hard drive?installation?
Q7) Why is it easier to install a SATA drive instead of a PATA device?
Q9) What is disk mirroring? Page 13
Q8) What is meant by just a bunch of disks (or drives), or JBOD?
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Chapter 10: Implementing Hard Drives
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Q1) The encryption capability in NTFS is called _______________.
Q2) The _______________ file system provides encryption of files.
Q3) What is the Ultimate Boot CD (UBCD)?
Q4) A(n) _______________ volume spreads out blocks of each file across multiple disks.
Q5) What are two things possible with a dynamic disk that cannot be done with a regular partition?
Q6) Which file system enables a user to adjust the cluster size?
A)FAT8
B)FAT16
C)FAT32
D)NTFS
Q7) The _______________ tool can be run to clear up space on the hard drive occupied by temporary Internet files.
Q8) Windows can create partitions using the _______________ disk.
A)basic
B)extended
C)volume
D)system
Q9) What is FDISK?
Page 15
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Chapter 11: Essential Peripherals
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Q1) Explain how to check the USB power usage in Windows.
Q2) In addition to drivers, provide examples of specific software most digitizers require to use their advanced functions.
Q3) The amount of information that a particular camera or camcorder model can capture is expressed in terms of _______________ in the digital world.
A)radiants
B)pixels
C)megapixels
D)gigapixels
Q4) Describe the two physical sizes of DVDs and explain where you will most often find them.
Q5) Most root hubs provide _______________ per port.
A)250 mA
B)300 mA
C)400 mA
D)500 mA
Q6) What are the functions of the three multiplier values in the CD-RW drive specs?
Q7) Briefly define the term sampling.
Q8) How much data can the lowest capacity DVDs of today hold?
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Chapter 12: Building a PC
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Q1) Which type of PC is more likely to require a very high-end sound interface?
A)Graphics workstation
B)Virtualization workstation
C)Audio editing workstation
D)Thin client
Q2) Distinguish between a patch and a service pack.
Q3) The installation error message "RAID Array Not Detected" could indicate _______________.
A)that the RAID array needs configuring
B)that the drives are not properly formatted
C)the lack of the proper driver for the hard drive
D)the lack of support for RAID by the operating system
Q4) NetBoot is a tool that allows one to _______________.
A)boot any computer over a network
B)boot a Mac OS X machine remotely.
C)dual-boot Windows and Mac OS X
D)disable network access during booting
Q5) What are the types of signal HDMI carries?
Q6) What is NetBoot, and how is it useful?
Q7) What should be the motherboard considerations for a thick client?
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Chapter 13: Windows Under the Hood
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Q1) A counter tracks specific information about a(n) ________________.
A)Object
B)Task
C)Tool
D)User
Q2) What should you always do before making manual changes in the Registry?
Q3) _______________ in Reliability and Performance Monitor (Windows Vista) and Performance Monitor (Windows 7 and on) group counters that you can use to make reports.
Q4) What is the function of HKEY_USERS?
Q5) The _______________ is a huge database that stores everything about your PC.
Q6) Where is the Registry stored?
Q7) By default, the Task Manager shows only processes associated with the _______________.
Q8) What does the "Users" tab in Task Manager allow you to do?
Q9) What are the four most common types of key values?
Q10) What does the DWORD value store?
19
Q11) What is the function of the ODBC Data Source Administrator?
Q12) You can kill a process using the _______________ command, using either the
name or the PID.
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Chapter 14: Users, Groups, and Permissions
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Q1) Which NTFS permission allows an account to seize control of a file or folder owned by another account?
A)File permissions
B)Take Ownership permission
C)Folder permissions
D)Change permission
Q2) List four common actions that require administrator privileges.
Q3) Why are blank passwords or passwords that are easily visible on a sticky note an issue?
Q4) A password _______________ policy forces users to select a new password periodically.
A)permissions
B)disabling
C)expiration
D)anti-hack
Q5) How can NTFS inheritance for a specific folder or file be turned off in the rare situations in which this is desired?
Q6) List the standard NTFS permissions for a folder.
Q7) In a Windows system, members of the Users group are called _______________ users.
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Chapter 15: Maintaining and Optimizing Operating Systems
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Q1) The Back-up-files option in Windows Vista enables you to back up
A)only personal information for all users
B)only installed applications
C)personal user information and installed information
D)Windows itself
Q2) What are the drive requirements for the Time Machine in Mac OS X?
Q3) In backing up files, what are the differences between the Back-up-files option in Windows Vista and the Let-Windows-choose option in Windows 7?
Q4) The most common method for installing software in Mac OS X involves the Mac _______________.
Q5) What is the backup utility called in Windows 7?
Q6) If an uninstall program is not available for an application, how can the Program and Features applet be used to remove the software?
Q7) What function does the Disk Cleanup utility perform?
Q8) The _______________ Control Panel applet in Windows 8 enables aggressive backup of personal files and folders.
Q9) The main tool to use when optimizing device drivers is _______________.
Q10) What is the System Configuration utility used for?
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Chapter 16: Working With the Command-Line Interface
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Q1) What Linux command displays the current working directory?
A)pwd
B)workdir
C)dir
D)ls
Q2) What Windows command displays or alters the compression of files on NTFS partitions?
A)compact
B)cipher
C)doskey
D)xpntfs
Q3) The Windows _______________ command shows only filenames and arranges them in five columns across the screen.
Q4) The file's ____ indicates what type of program uses the data by looking at the
A)partition; extension
B)extension; location
C)privileges; association
D)association; extension
Q5) Why should the command del *.* be used very carefully?
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Chapter 17: Troubleshooting Operating Systems
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Q1) The ______________ Recovery Console command clears the screen.
Q2) What is the function of the expand command in the Recovery Console?
Q3) Which tool enables you to see all applications or programs currently running or to close an application that has stopped working?
A)System Monitor
B)Event Viewer
C)System Configuration
D)Task Manager
Q4) The Windows installation media is called a Live DVD because ______________ loads directly from disc into memory and doesn't access or modify the hard drive.
Q5) What are two critical files required to boot modern Windows?
Q6) What is the function of the systemroot command in the Recovery Console?
Q7) How do you access the Windows Recovery Environment in Windows 7?
Q8) The ______________ Recovery Console command creates and deletes partitions.
Q9) The old Windows Experience Index was based on what five settings?
Q10) Windows looks for a file called ______________ when removable media are inserted into a computer.
Q11) What Windows 7 tool repairs the master boot record, boot sector, or BCD store? Page 24
Q12) What is the best way to restore a good Registry copy?
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Chapter 18: Virtualization
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Q1) Cloud providers often charge their customers based on various types of usage rather than with a fixed fee.This practice is known as ________________.
Q2) One very popular hypervisor is _______________ VM VirtualBox.
Q3) Full virtualization requires an extra layer of sophisticated programming called a(n) _______________ to manage vastly more complex interactions.
Q4) _______________ virtualization involves running a virtual machine on your local system regardless of whether the virtual machine file is stored locally or on a central server.
Q5) Name the three "layers" of the "Software Layer-Cake" from bottom to top.
Q6) A virtualized machine can be seen as a complete system consisting of the physical machine (hardware), a hypervisor, and one or more virtual machines, each with its own set of virtual hardware, a supervisor (operating system) and ________________.
Q7) Define virtualization.
Q8) Virtual environments are stored as _______________.
A)a set of links
B)processes in RAM
C)a set of files
D)snapshots
Page 26
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Chapter 19: Display Technologies
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Q1) The display adapter, or _______________, handles the video chores within computing devices, processing information from the CPU and sending it to the display.
Q2) Describe the disadvantages of passive display technology.
Q3) What subset of DirectX supports direct access to the hardware for joysticks and other game controllers?
A)DirectCPU
B)DirectInput
C)DirectX
D)DirectY
Q4) Which term describes the difference between the darkest and lightest spots that the monitor can display?
A)Brightness formation
B)Contrast ratio
C)Depth perception
D)Pixilation
Q5) How would you use an analog VGA monitor with a DVI-I connector?
Q6) What is the single most important feature that separates DRAM from video RAM?
Q7) A color LCD screen is composed of a large number of tiny liquid crystal molecules called _______________.
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Chapter 20: Essentials of Networking
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Q1) Which connector is typically used in Ethernet?
A)RJ-45
B)RJ-11
C)RG-58
D)AWG 22-26
Q2) List the three essential ingredients required for successful implementation of a basic structured cabling network.
Q3) Once you have installed the patch panel, you need to connect the ports to the switch through _______________ cables.
Q4) How do you represent the hexadecimal value A in binary?
A)1110
B)1011
C)1100
D)1010
Q5) Which organization established the UTP cable categories?
A)CompTIA
B)Microsoft
C)TIA/EIA
D)Cisco
Q6) What is shielded twisted pair (STP) and where is it found?
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Chapter 21: Local Area Networking
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Q1) _______________ permission only apply to network sharing, whereas _______________ permissions affect both network and local access to shared resources.
Q2) A(n) _______________ sends data out of the NIC and checks to see if it comes back.
Q3) What is required to use a domain on a network of Windows computers?
A)A computer running a version of Windows Server
B)At least two routers
C)A password management system
D)A domain name server
Q4) What is the Linux/Mac OS equivalent of ipconfig?
A)ipconfig
B)ifconfig
C)netconfig
D)config
Q5) What is the difference between full-duplex and half-duplex NICs?
Q6) The ipconfig command shows an IP address of 169.254.0.27.This is indicative of the failure of what network element or service?
Q7) The _______________ Center in Windows 7 and later can be used to establish network connectivity.
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Chapter 22: Wireless Networking
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Q1) Which wireless networking standard supports data throughput of up to 11 Mbps?
A)802.11a
B)802.11b
C)802.11c
D)802.11g
Q2) What enables you to connect to the Internet through a network-aware smartphone, tablet, or other mobile device?
A)802.11b
B)802.11n
C)MAC filtering
D)Cellular wireless network
Q3) At what frequency range do the 802.11b- and 802.11g-based wireless technologies operate?
A)2.4 GHz
B)3.4 GHz
C)4.4 GHz
D)5.4 GHz
Q4) Linux, Mac OS X, and Windows fully supports the IEEE ______________ standard, more commonly known as Wi-Fi ______________ Access 2, to lock down wireless networks.
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Chapter 23: The Internet
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Q1) The oldest family of chat programs is based on the ______________ protocol.
Q2) POP3 is an abbreviation for ______________.
Q3) What is the bandwidth of channels in an ISDN service?
Q4) The router to which you connect at the ISP is often referred to as the ______________.
Q5) ______________ enables you to give anyone control of your desktop or take control of anyone else's desktop.
Q6) The server that handles outgoing e-mail is called the ______________ server.
Q7) ______________ is a terminal emulation program for TCP/IP networks that uses port 23 and enables you to connect to a server or fancy router and run commands on that machine as if you were sitting in front of it.
Q8) What port number is used for sending e-mail? A)23
Q9) Contemporary external modems connect to the computer through an available ______________ port.
Page 31
Q10) What was the key reason for interweaving the backbones of the Internet servers?
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Chapter 24: Portable Computing
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Q1) When you don't need access to a number of ports at once, you can often find a(n) _______________ for whatever you need to connect, such as an optical drive.
Q2) What are Energy Star devices?
Q3) What are auto-switching power supplies?
Q4) What type of battery will often go unnoticed and the symptoms it creates may be hard to identify?
A)Swollen
B)Hot
C)Dead
D)Cool
Q5) Portable PCs have a standard _______________-mm audio out port.
Q6) Most current laptops use what kind of DDR4 SO-DIMMs?
A)200-pin
B)204-pin
C)144-pin
D)160-pin
Q7) A(n) _______________ laptop/tablet is most often a device with a tablet form factor that is designed to integrate with a detachable keyboard.
Q8) What is System Management Mode?
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Chapter 25: Understanding Mobile Devices
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Q1) IMAP4 uses TCP port _______________.
A)25
B)55
C)110
D)143
Q2) What is a mobile hotspot?
Q3) Explain how to configure a portable hotspot.
Q4) Which standard is used to configure digital signature settings for e-mail and contacts from the corporate address book, depending on how the corporate e-mail server is set up?
A)SMTP
B)S/MIME
C)Exchange
D)DNS
Q5) Apple's closed-source mobile operating system, _______________, runs on the iPhone, iPad, and iPod Touch.
Q6) Describe the stores where Android apps are available for purchase and download.
Q7) _______________ straddle the line between tablets and smartphones, providing all the features of a smartphone with the expansive vistas of a huge screen.
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Chapter 26: Care and Feeding of Mobile Devices
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Q1) Because mobile device hardware typically cannot be repaired or replaced by a user or field tech, mobile device troubleshooting focuses on what type of issues?
A)Hardware
B)Software
C)Memory
D)Battery
Q2) Most mobile devices have a few _______________ stickers that change color when exposed to water.
A)liquid contact indicator
B)water contact
C)damage
D)IMEI
Q3) Most mobile devices allow the user to set a(n) _______________ by using a password, PIN, pattern, fingerprint, and/or facial recognition to block strangers from accessing the device.
A)screen lock
B)permissions policy
C)device reset
D)data cleanup
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Page 34
Chapter 27: Printers and Multifunction Devices
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120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of a print spooler in Windows?
Q2) Assuming a printer is in good working order and online, what should you check next if nothing prints?
A)Calibration
B)Port settings
C)Printer emulation
D)Print spooler
Q3) What are the seven steps involved in printing from a laser printer?
Q4) Most laser printers have a special ______________ filter that needs to be vacuumed or replaced periodically.
Q5) What kind of printer creates an image on paper by physically striking an ink ribbon against the paper's surface?
A)Laser
B)Dot-matrix
C)Thermal
D)Impact
Q6) What is printer emulation?
Q7) A printer doesn't work after connecting it with a USB connection.What's a likely reason?
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Chapter 28: Securing Computers
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89 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a Trojan horse?
Q2) What is the difference between a man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack and session hijacking?
Q3) Following someone through the door is an example of _______________.
Q4) Which current authentication method is typically used over a LAN?
A)CHAP
B)Kerberos
C)MS-CHAP
D)PAP
Q5) What is a stealth virus?
Q6) A user has a credit card-sized card used to prove her identity with a PIN.What is this card called?
A)Authorization card
B)Biometric card
C)Smart card
D)Task card
Q7) The list of virus signatures that your antivirus program can recognize is called the
Q9) Describe a security token and an RSA token. Page 36
Q8) What can be used to set security policies for users or computers in a network?
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