Comprehensive Patient Care
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Comprehensive Patient Care focuses on the holistic management of patients by integrating physical, psychological, social, and environmental factors into clinical decision-making and care delivery. The course examines principles of patient-centered care, interdisciplinary collaboration, effective communication, and culturally sensitive practice. Students will engage with concepts such as preventive care, chronic disease management, acute interventions, and rehabilitation while learning to develop tailored care plans. Emphasis is placed on ethical decision-making, patient advocacy, and evidence-based practice to optimize outcomes across diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Surgical Nursing Clinical Management for Positive Outcomes Single Volume 8th Edition
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82 Chapters
1873 Verified Questions
1873 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Health Promotion and Disease Prevention
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is presenting information at a community forum related to pneumonia. The nurse informs the audience that people who should receive the pneumococcal vaccine include those who (select all that apply).
A) are over age 65 and had a vaccination more than 5 years ago.
B) are under age 65 and are alcoholics.
C) are under age 65 with chronic illnesses.
D) are over age 65 and have never had pneumococcal pneumonia before.
E) are over the age of 65.
Answer: A, B, C, D
Q2) The nurse can "empower" a client in adjusting to the changes associated with the chronic effects of non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus by
A) explaining that concerns about vision changes are premature at this point.
B) explaining the pathophysiology of the disease.
C) informing the client about the different types of insulin.
D) teaching the client how to minimize complications.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Health Assessment
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14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Palpation
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer: D
Q2) A client had surgery yesterday and is complaining of pain. The best action by the nurse is to
A) ask the patient which pain medication she/he took last.
B) do a complete assessment of the pain.
C) prepare to administer the ordered pain medication.
D) record the client's complaints thoroughly and get the pain medication.
Answer: B
Q3) To assess precipitating factors, the nurse interviewer would ask
A) "Do you remember the first time you had this problem?"
B) "How many times has the problem been related to activity?"
C) "What measures relieve this problem for you?"
D) "What were you doing when you first noticed the problem?"
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Critical Thinking
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8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse who is alert to changes, confident, open-minded, proactive, and questioning is displaying which characteristics?
A) Alfaro's Attitudes and Characteristics of a Critical Thinker
B) Benner's Five Levels of Competency in Nurses
C) Hawk's Model of Critical Thinking in Registered Nurses
D) Universal Intellectual Standards
Answer: A
Q2) A nurse is working in the intensive care unit. When assessing the clients, the nurse notes one of them, who was scheduled to transfer to a step-down unit as soon as a bed becomes available, has a respiratory rate change from 18 to 20 breaths/min and an oxygen saturation (O<sub>2</sub> sat) of 92%, when earlier it was 93%. The client denies complaints. The nurse calls the physician and requests a chest x-ray and arterial blood gases (ABGs). This nurse is working at which Benner Level of Competency in Nurses?
A) Advanced beginner
B) Competent
C) Expert
D) Proficient
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse reminds a client that the Dietary Supplement and Health Act of 1994 prevented manufacturers of dietary supplements from
A) making specific therapeutic claims for the product on their labels.
B) manufacturing products that are not tested or proven.
C) offering products for sale except through pharmacies.
D) publishing outrageous claims for the product on promotional materials.
Q2) A nurse understands that many conventional drugs are derived from plants, such as
A) meperidine (Demerol).
B) penicillin.
C) quinine.
D) steroids.
Q3) The nurse cautions that, when consumed in large quantities, antioxidants can become pro-oxidants, which
A) absorb large quantities of free radicals.
B) can produce free radicals.
C) create a free radical "shield."
D) enhance the immune system.
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6
Chapter 5: Ambulatory Health Care
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The facility that could best represent an ambulatory care center is a A) home health care agency.
B) hospital with less than 50 beds.
C) rehabilitation center.
D) student health center.
Q2) The purpose of the mutual recognition model (MRM), implemented through an interstate contract, is to
A) ensure an increasing supply of nurses entering the work force.
B) monitor the number of nurses working in more than one field of specialty.
C) provide educational incentives for nurses to continue working full-time.
D) reduce barriers to interstate nursing practice.
Q3) The nurse contacts a client by follow-up telephone call after the client's visit to an ambulatory care center. The client who would benefit most from this intervention
A) has undergone cast removal.
B) has undergone same-day surgery.
C) is having blood pressure monitored.
D) is having blood sugar monitored.
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Chapter 6: Acute Health Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) A registered nurse (RN) is considering delegating some tasks to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which of the following things should the nurse consider when making this decision? (Select all that apply.)
A) Does the task have exact, unchanging directions?
B) Does the UAP want to do the task?
C) Is an RN or other licensed personnel required to do this task?
D) Is the UAP competent to perform this task?
E) Is there a licensed provider, such as an RN, available to supervise?
Q2) A registered nurse (RN) seeking work in a voluntary health agency would choose a A) church-affiliated hospital.
B) proprietary hospital.
C) state university hospital.
D) veterans administration (VA) hospital.
Q3) While administering an antibiotic to a client with an infection, the nurse explains the importance of completing the full course of antibiotic therapy. This is an example of A) formal education.
B) giving advice.
C) informal education.
D) setting an example.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Critical Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse admitting clients to the critical care unit understands that priority clients for this area are those who need
A) a cleaner environment to prevent nosocomial infections.
B) continuous physiologic monitoring.
C) frequent vital sign checks.
D) private rooms conducive to rest and sleep.
Q2) A nurse who is acting in a manner that respects and supports the client's and family's basic rights, values, and beliefs is functioning in which professional role?
A) Advocate
B) Caregiver
C) Critical thinker
D) Manager
Q3) A nurse working in the critical care unit would assess the client's complexity by asking questions related to
A) ability of the client and family to make sound decisions.
B) effect of family, stress, and environmental factors on the client.
C) interplay of multiple medical problems on the current condition.
D) the client's ability to use compensatory coping mechanisms.
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9
Chapter 8: Home Health Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The domain of the Omaha System that the nurse would reference in making her assessment relative to caretaking/parenting is
A) Environment.
B) Health-Related Behaviors.
C) Physiological.
D) Psychosocial.
Q2) The home health nurse uses the Omaha System for planning care and is able to evaluate the client's health status with the portion of that tool known as
A) Assessment and Analysis.
B) Intervention Scheme.
C) Problem Classification.
D) Problem Rating Scale.
Q3) Consumer need and demand for home health care have increased dramatically in recent years because of (Select all that apply)
A) the advent of Medicare reimbursement for home care.
B) the closing of acute care hospital beds.
C) escalating health care costs.
D) increased consumer demand.
E) lack of services available in the hospital.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Long-Term Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Hill-Burton Hospital Survey and Construction Act of 1946 provided building funds and resulted in nursing homes that
A) allowed for flexible visiting hours.
B) resembled hospitals.
C) were located only in rural settings.
D) were to have at least 100 beds.
Q2) The form of residential long-term care facility that offers the most personal freedom, as well as provision of meals, medication supervision, and personal care assistance, is A) adult day care center.
B) assisted living center.
C) nursing home.
D) transitional care setting.
Q3) Transfer from a long-term care facility is being considered for a combative resident.OBRA Resident Rights that impact this decision include
A) a legitimate and documented reason for the transfer.
B) addressing the problem behavior in the care plan.
C) the family preventing the discharge through litigation.
D) the resident has the right to delay the transfer for 20 days.
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11
Chapter 10: Rehabilitation
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Sample Questions
Q1) To set the stage for a successful rehabilitation experience, the rehabilitation nurse helps the client and the family conceptualize their definition of
A) activity participation.
B) independence.
C) quality of life.
D) wellness.
Q2) The rehabilitation nurse explains that the transdisciplinary approach to rehabilitation provides the client with
A) more efficient service at a greatly reduced cost.
B) reduced number of personnel with whom to interact.
C) reduced time spent on therapeutic modalities.
D) shortened stay in the rehabilitation unit.
Q3) A rehabilitation nurse scores the client at "1" in a functional area on the FIM. This means the client has
A) full independence in that area.
B) independence in that area with use of an assistive device.
C) partial dependence in need of significant assistance.
D) total dependence.
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12
Chapter 11: Clients with Fluid Imbalances
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with hyponatremia is on a fluid restriction diet and complains of extreme dry mouth. Interventions the nurse can include in the plan of care include (Select all that apply)
A) encouraging the client to take warm, not cold, fluids.
B) giving the client ice chips instead of water.
C) increasing the frequency of oral care.
D) instructing the client to hold ice chips in the mouth.
E) using a commercial mouthwash every 2 hours.
Q2) The nurse makes the evaluation that the intake of one of the adult clients in her care is adequate when she measures the total daily intake as
A) 750 ml.
B) 900 ml.
C) 1000 ml.
D) 2000 ml.
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13
Chapter 12: Clients with Electrolyte Imbalances
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse notes that a client has a "stat" order for sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). The nurse quickly checks serum laboratory results, anticipating A) hyperkalemia.
B) hyperphosphatemia.
C) hypokalemia.
D) hypophosphatemia.
Q2) A client is being discharged from the hospital and will be taking oral potassium chloride. The nurse should teach the client to take this medication
A) at bedtime.
B) between meals.
C) on an empty stomach.
D) with a glass of juice.
Q3) For a client in renal failure with an abnormally elevated serum potassium level, the priority assessment by the nurse would be the client's
A) electrocardiogram (ECG) strips.
B) level of consciousness.
C) serial BUN and creatinine levels.
D) urine output.
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14
Chapter 13: Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a client who experienced cardiopulmonary arrest and has a mixed respiratory/metabolic acidosis explains to a concerned family member that the mechanical ventilator can eliminate
A) carbonic acid.
B) lactic acid.
C) phosphoric acid.
D) sulfuric acid.
Q2) The nurse is caring for an 80-year-old client admitted to the hospital with pneumonia and who is becoming progressively more confused. Her vital signs are as follows: T, 101° F; P, 112 beats/min; R, 28 breaths/min; BP, 100/70 mm Hg. ABG results are pH 7.50, PaCO<sub>2</sub> 25 mm Hg, and bicarbonate level 18 mEq/L. The nurse interprets these findings to indicate
A) metabolic acidosis secondary to fever.
B) metabolic alkalosis secondary to bicarbonate excess.
C) respiratory acidosis secondary to anxiety.
D) respiratory alkalosis secondary to hypoxemia.
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Chapter 14: Clients Having Surgery
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Preoperative assessment data that should be reported to the surgeon include A) complaining of mild anxiety.
B) having a sore throat.
C) potassium level within normal range.
D) using acetaminophen for headaches.
Q2) During preoperative teaching, the nurse advises the client who smokes on an important health promotion measure to take before elective surgery, which is to A) ask the physician for nicotine patches.
B) cut down by half the amount smoked per day.
C) increase fluid intake to reduce risk of thrombosis.
D) stop smoking at once.
Q3) The client who has received odansetron (Zofran) asks, "What will the drug do?" The nurse should base a reply on the knowledge that odansetron
A) controls intraoperative secretions.
B) produces an antiemetic effect.
C) promotes rapid sedation.
D) relieves postoperative pain.
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Chapter 15: Perspectives in Genetics
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12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse providing genetic counseling explains that when one parent has an autosomal dominant gene for an inherited disease, the chances of the child being affected are
A) 10%.
B) 25%.
C) 50%.
D) 100%.
Q2) The nurse working on a general medical-surgical unit in the hospital cares for clients with a variety of diseases that have a genetic component, including (Select all that apply)
A) Alzheimer's disease.
B) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
C) diabetes.
D) heart disease.
E) sickle cell anemia.
Q3) The Human Genome Project (HGP) was begun in 1990 to
A) alter the course of inherited disorders.
B) clone an animal, then a human.
C) determine the location of genes on chromosomes.
D) replicate the structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
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Chapter 16: Perspectives in Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has a benign tumor that has originated in adipose tissue. The nurse explains that this type of tumor is classified as a A) fibroma.
B) lipoma.
C) leiomyoma.
D) carcinoma.
Q2) A client is considering having genetic testing for cancer that "runs in the family." Vital information for the nurse to include in the teaching plan before the client has the testing includes telling the client that
A) Genetic testing is simple and inexpensive and the client does not need to seek out a specialist to interpret the results.
B) If a genetic test comes back positive for a gene related to cancer, the client will develop the cancer.
C) There are so many genetically-based cancers that even genetic testing cannot possibly cover them all.
D) There are specific state and federal laws to protect people who undergo genetic testing from insurance and job discrimination.
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18
Chapter 17: Clients with Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with prostate cancer calls the clinic to ask for a physical therapy (PT) consult because his back has been hurting. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Advise the client to try a heating pad for 3 days before initiating a PT consult.
B) Call in a prescription for nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications.
C) Collaborate with the physician to arrange the physical therapy consult.
D) Instruct the client to come in for a back x-ray immediately.
Q2) The recommendation the nurse should share with a 22-year-old sexually active client who is seeking information on the prevention of cervical cancer is that a Pap smear
A) is needed annually by all women over age 18.
B) should be done annually until two tests are negative, then once every 2-3 years, in women over 30.
C) should be done biannually for clients who have been sexually active for 3 years but not later than age 21.
D) should be performed twice a year for all sexually active women over age 18.
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Chapter 18: Clients with Wounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) On a client's admission to the hospital, the nurse notes that the client has a yellow sacral decubitus ulcer. The nurse anticipates that the most appropriate wound treatment would be
A) applying antibiotic ointment.
B) surgical removal of eschar.
C) using wet-to-dry dressings.
D) vigorous cleansing with a Water Pik.
Q2) A client with an open wound develops a temperature of 99.8° F. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to
A) administer an antipyretic.
B) continue to monitor the client's temperature.
C) cool the client's environment.
D) keep the client warm.
Q3) The nurse who is using an enzymatic debridement ointment will
A) apply the ointment liberally over large areas.
B) keep the area moist after application.
C) medicate the client before applying ointment to viable tissue.
D) use the ointment cautiously on neoplastic ulcers.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Perspectives on Infectious Disease and Bioterrorism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses for surgical wound infection particularly closely in the client who has undergone
A) craniotomy for tumor removal.
B) hysterectomy.
C) repair of a perforated bowel.
D) tonsillectomy.
Q2) The infection control nurse in a long-term care facility (LTCF) understands that infection control procedures have to be adopted for use in the LTCF because A) elderly clients are much less likely to acquire an infectious disease in a LTCF.
B) residents are usually not allowed to enter LTCFs with infectious diseases.
C) they must balance the need for infection control and socialization in the LTCF.
D) with fewer staff, it is difficult for a staff member to transmit an infectious disease.
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21
Chapter 20: Clients with Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is in the hospital with an exacerbation of a chronic pain condition. Orders are for prn morphine IV push. When the primary nurse left for the weekend, the client's pain was under control. When the nurse returns to work, the client is reporting wild swings in pain control, being oversedated at some times and having extreme pain at other times. Which action by the primary nurse would best get this client's pain under control?
A) Ask the physician to order the pain medication on a round-the-clock schedule.
B) Observe the client for behaviors that might indicate possible addiction.
C) Plan to administer the maximum amount of pain medication the next time it is due.
D) Question the client about the pain to determine if he/she is exaggerating.
Q2) An elderly client has mild dementia and the nurse feels the client may be in pain. The best way for the nurse to assess this client for pain is by
A) asking direct questions about pain.
B) changing the way the nurse phrases the questions.
C) having the client rate pain with a 1-10 scale.
D) using the FACES pain scale.
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Chapter 21: Perspectives in Palliative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client on the hospice service is experiencing nausea and vomiting as the result of pain management using opioids. The nurse should attempt to minimize this adverse effect by using the
A) intramuscular route.
B) intravenous route.
C) oral route.
D) subcutaneous route.
Q2) In a bedtime routine for a palliative care client who is having difficulty falling asleep, the least helpful intervention to incorporate would be
A) black tea with sugar.
B) massage.
C) progressive muscle relaxation.
D) warm milk.
Q3) The hospice nurse requests the drug temazepam (Restoril) for a client who has difficulty in
A) falling asleep.
B) falling asleep and staying asleep.
C) sleeping without nightmares.
D) staying asleep.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Clients with Sleep and Rest Disorders and Fatigue
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Sample Questions
Q1) During assessment of a client who complains of frequent sleep starts, the nurse should question the client regarding A) alcohol intake.
B) caffeine intake.
C) food intake before bedtime.
D) medication intake.
Q2) During rapid eye movement (REM) sleep, there is an increase in the neurotransmitter A) acetylcholine.
B) dopamine.
C) norepinephrine.
D) serotonin.
Q3) When a client tells the nurse that she has been experiencing early-morning awakening, the nurse should assess the client for manifestations of A) depression.
B) psychophysiologic insomnia.
C) respiratory problems.
D) sleep deprivation.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Clients with Psychosocial and Mental Health
Concerns
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mental health nurse assessing a client with schizophrenia finds that the client exhibits positive manifestations of the disorder after noting
A) avoidance of social contact.
B) blunted affect.
C) delusions.
D) lack of attention to hygiene.
Q2) The client repeatedly asks the nurse about the medical protocol for his pancreatitis. Because of the focus on this one concern, the nurse assesses
A) mild anxiety.
B) moderate anxiety.
C) no anxiety at all.
D) severe anxiety.
Q3) The client begins to cry as she speaks of her several miscarriages during the last 2 years. The nurse assesses the crying as a(n)
A) emotion-focused coping mechanism.
B) inappropriate coping mechanism.
C) lack of coping mechanism.
D) problem-focused coping mechanism.
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Chapter 24: Clients with Substance Abuse Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse works with another nurse who has been coming to work with red eyes and flushed face and is increasingly irritable. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Ask another co-worker what he/she thinks about the situation.
B) Document questionable incidents and relay them to the manager.
C) Leave the co-worker alone as it is obvious he/she has personal problems.
D) Work alongside the colleague so there are no mistakes.
Q2) Primary prevention activities a nurse can perform related to substance abuse include (Select all that apply)
A) education to prevent substance abuse.
B) focusing on relapse prevention.
C) identification of risk factors for abuse.
D) medical detoxification.
E) referral to support and self-help groups.
Q3) The nurse reminds the client that in the United States, the most widely used psychoactive substance is
A) alcohol.
B) amphetamines.
C) caffeine.
D) marijuana.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Assessment of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assisting with an arthrocentesis provides which intervention after the procedure is over? The nurse
A) applies a compression dressing.
B) gives the client a tetanus shot.
C) teaches the client crutch-walking.
D) wraps a heating pad around the knee.
Q2) The nurse is performing a musculoskeletal assessment on a client who is right-hand dominant. The variation in muscle mass the nurse expects to find is A) atrophy.
B) fasciculations.
C) hypertrophy.
D) tremors.
Q3) A client describes ripping sounds in his knee during a fall while skiing. The nurse explains to the client that the diagnostic test that will provide the best data is a(n) A) arthrogram.
B) bone scan.
C) myelogram.
D) x-ray film.
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Chapter 26: Management of Clients with Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with osteoporosis complains that avoiding coffee will be very difficult. To offset coffee consumption, the nurse might suggest that for every cup of coffee consumed, the client should
A) add 1 serving of leafy green vegetables.
B) combine 20 minutes of exercise to the daily program.
C) drink 1 glass of orange juice or grapefruit juice.
D) take 40 mg of over-the-counter calcium.
Q2) A client is being managed for prevention of gout and the nurse is reviewing the client's medication list and teaching about the medications. The nurse evaluates that the client understands the medication when the client says
A) "Allopurinol blocks production of uric acid."
B) "Colchicine can be used with probenecid."
C) "Long-term steroids are needed to prevent attacks."
D) "NSAIDs are not effective against the pain of gout."
Q3) The nurse assesses that the individual most susceptible to osteoporosis is the A) muscular 50-year-old man with diabetes.
B) obese 50-year-old woman who is allergic to milk.
C) thin 70-year-old man with gout.
D) very slender 75-year-old woman.
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Chapter 27: Management of Clients with Musculoskeletal
Trauma or Overuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Important self-care measures the nurse should teach to the client who is expected to be immobile in a wheelchair for a lengthy period of time include A) learning how to inspect all skin surfaces for friction or pressure.
B) massaging bony prominences four times a day.
C) sitting upright in a chair or wheelchair on the sacrum.
D) using a gel wheelchair cushion to prevent pressure ulcers.
Q2) In the application of a plaster cast, the most appropriate nursing intervention is to A) allow excess casting material to dry on the skin before removal.
B) carefully cut the stockinette to the exact length of the cast.
C) gently support the extremity from underneath.
D) flush plaster-laden water down the toilet rather than the sink.
Q3) The nurse in the emergency department caring for a client with an anterior dislocation of the knee should have as a priority the assessment of A) capillary refill of the toes.
B) degree of misalignment in the limb.
C) degree of pain in the joint.
D) mobility in the affected limb.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Assessment of Nutrition and the Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse measures waist-to-hip ratio and calculates the midarm muscle circumference (MAMC), the nurse is assessing
A) overall muscle strength and density compared to fat stores.
B) proportion and distribution of muscle mass and body fat.
C) reserves of protein and calories stores in the muscle.
D) the size of the body frame related to body weight.
Q2) The nurse administers an anticholinergic drug to a client scheduled for an endoscopy in order to provide
A) decreased secretions.
B) increased peristalsis.
C) muscle relaxation.
D) sedation.
Q3) In collecting a 24-hour urine specimen to determine nitrogen balance for a client, the nurse would
A) conduct the urine collection before a 24-hour food record.
B) correct the results by multiplying by 0.13 for clients with renal disease.
C) instruct the client on foods to eat containing specified amounts of protein.
D) start the urine collection at the same time a 24-hour food record starts.
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Chapter 29: Management of Clients with Malnutrition
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4027
Sample Questions
Q1) At 8 AM a nurse hangs a bag containing enteral nutrition formula for a client. The nurse will return at
A) 9 AM to change the tubing and bag and add new formula.
B) 10 AM to discard remaining formula and replace it with new.
C) 12 noon to replace formula after rinsing the bag and tubing.
D) 1 PM to flush the bag and tubing and add formula.
Q2) The nurse's action that will best prevent clogging of a gastric feeding tube is to A) adhere to the tube flushing protocol.
B) apply intermittent suction.
C) check tube placement every 4 hours.
D) periodically reposition the tube.
Q3) In feeding a client with a cognitive impairment, the least helpful nursing action is to A) create a quiet, unhurried environment.
B) distract the client with conversation.
C) orient the client to the feeding equipment.
D) provide several small meals.
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Chapter 30: Management of Clients with Ingestive Disorders
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4028
Sample Questions
Q1) For a client with diverticula of the esophagus, the nurse would tell the client to avoid
A) deep-breathing exercises after meals.
B) ingestion of carbonated drinks.
C) sleeping with the head of the bed elevated.
D) vigorous exercise after eating.
Q2) A client with a rolling hiatal hernia complains of a feeling of fullness after eating and difficulty breathing. When the client says, "I think I should lie down for awhile," the nurse should remind the client
A) that arching the back while lying down will reduce the discomfort.
B) that lying down may increase the distress.
C) to drink milk or eat a small snack before lying down.
D) to lie on the left side for at least 15 minutes.
Q3) The nursing instruction that would be included in a client's teaching plan to prevent or delay the development of hiatal hernia is
A) avoid drinking carbonated beverages rapidly.
B) avoid heavy lifting and stooping.
C) consume a high-carbohydrate, low-fat diet.
D) sit in an upright position in a straight-backed chair.
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Chapter 31: Management of Clients with Digestive Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4029
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who had surgery and will be receiving chemotherapy and radiation treatment for stage III gastric cancer. The client is planning several extensive trips after the chemotherapy and radiation are finished. Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate at this time?
A) "Before you leave, be sure your will and other advance directives are up to date."
B) "What does your family think of your travel plans?"
C) "What has the physician told you about your disease and treatment?"
D) "Your trip sounds wonderful! Tell me more about it."
Q2) A nurse is teaching health promotion measures to a support group for clients who are at high risk for gastric cancer. Important health promotion measures to advise the clients include (select all that apply)
A) avoiding alcohol.
B) eating a diet high in nitrites.
C) limiting salted fish and pickled foods.
D) quitting smoking.
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Chapter 32: Assessment of Elimination
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4030
Sample Questions
Q1) A client was released from the hospital following a lengthy course of IV antibiotics. The home health care nurse assesses that the client has been having new-onset diarrhea. What would the nurse suspect to be the cause of this problem?
A) C. difficile infection
B) Contaminated water supply
C) Noncompliance with ordered diet
D) Not spacing medications properly
Q2) In the post-procedural nursing care of a client who has undergone a cystourethroscopy, the nurse would include
A) ambulating the client 8 hours after the procedure.
B) maintaining a pressure dressing at the puncture site for 8 hours.
C) monitoring the client for manifestations of urinary tract infection.
D) obtaining a 24-hour urine specimen.
Q3) A nurse is assessing a client with right upper quadrant pain. The nurse asks questions directly related to the health of the client's
A) appendix.
B) kidneys.
C) liver.
D) spleen.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Management of Clients with Intestinal Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4031
Sample Questions
Q1) In counseling a client with ulcerative colitis for 25 years about health maintenance plans, the nurse would include the advice that the client should
A) avoid red meat.
B) obtain genetic counseling.
C) reduce physical exercise.
D) schedule regular proctoscopic examinations.
Q2) To help a client with a new ostomy integrate its appearance into the client's body image, the home health nurse would
A) discourage the client's negative remarks about the stoma.
B) discuss clothing options that will hide the appliance.
C) limit family interaction in the client's stomal care.
D) use humor and jokes regarding the ostomy.
Q3) A client with ulcerative colitis has severe diarrhea. Further assessments by the nurse are aimed at early recognition of A) dehydration.
B) hemorrhoids.
C) metabolic alkalosis.
D) nephrolithiasis.
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Chapter 34: Management of Clients with Urinary Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4032
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains to a client who is receiving oxybutynin (Ditropan) for control of urinary incontinence that the drug's effect is
A) decreasing bladder contractility.
B) increasing serotonin in the CNS, leading to bladder wall relaxation.
C) promoting relaxation of the bladder outlet.
D) reducing intra-abdominal pressure.
Q2) For a client experiencing urinary retention with overflow, the factor in the client's history that would prompt the nurse to question an order for a cholinergic medication is A) bladder outlet obstruction.
B) diabetes mellitus.
C) frequent UTIs.
D) multiple pregnancies.
Q3) A nurse is caring for a client with an indwelling Foley catheter. Which intervention takes highest priority?
A) Administer antispasmotics for bladder spasms.
B) Provide meticulous perineal care.
C) Provide privacy when assessing the catheter's patency.
D) Record accurate I&O.
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Chapter 35: Management of Clients with Renal Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4033
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a client admitted for massive blood loss from ruptured esophageal varices would assess closely for
A) albuminuria related to renal hypertension.
B) decreasing urine output related to hypovolemia.
C) hematuria related to glomerular damage.
D) urine changes related to rhabdomyolysis.
Q2) A nurse assessing a client with a renal abscess would expect to find A) bacteria in the urine.
B) high fever.
C) hypertension.
D) oliguria.
Q3) As part of the care plan for a client with pyelonephritis, the nurse should A) assess for manifestations of fluid overload.
B) encourage increased activity.
C) increase fluid intake to 3 to 4 L/day.
D) watch for early manifestations of anaphylaxis.
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Chapter 36: Management of Clients with Renal Failure
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4034
Sample Questions
Q1) A client with oliguric ARF would exhibit
A) a BUN/creatinine ratio of 30:1.
B) hematuria.
C) proteinuria.
D) a urine specific gravity of 1.001.
Q2) A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following interventions would help the client meet a priority outcome?
A) Delegate monitoring vital signs during dialysis to the nurses' aide.
B) Instruct the client not to get out of bed without assistance.
C) Place a sign on the door outlining the fluid allotment for each shift.
D) Plan to weigh the client each morning on the same scale.
Q3) The nurse is conducting peritoneal dialysis for a client with renal failure and finds the drainage tubing has no outflow. The priority action that the nurse would take is to
A) apply a 5-pound sandbag to the abdomen.
B) check the tubing for kinks or obstruction.
C) notify the physician about the problem.
D) try a more concentrated dialysate solution.
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Assessment of the Reproductive System
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4035
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse obtaining a health history from a male client with a history of hypertension should ask the client about
A) renal functioning.
B) sexual functioning.
C) testicular problems.
D) voiding problems.
Q2) The nurse observes a red glow during transillumination of a client's scrotum. The nurse would interpret this finding as
A) a hematoma.
B) a scrotal mass.
C) normal findings.
D) serous fluid.
Q3) The nurse teaches a client scheduled for semen examination that in order to provide an adequate sample, the client should
A) abstain from ejaculating 2 to 5 days before the test.
B) drink plenty of liquids for 24 hours before the test.
C) get plenty of sleep the night before the test.
D) increase intake of red meat 3 days before the test.
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Chapter 38: Management of Men with Reproductive Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4036
Sample Questions
Q1) The statement by the client scheduled for TURP that would indicate the need for further preoperative teaching is
A) "I will have a catheter after surgery."
B) "I will need to drink a lot after surgery."
C) "My incision will probably be painful."
D) "My urine will be red after surgery."
Q2) A young man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of scrotal swelling and acute pain. The nurse would plan care suspecting treatment for this client will consist of
A) admission and IV antibiotics.
B) emergency surgery.
C) ice, analgesics, and scrotal support.
D) NSAIDs and local heat.
Q3) A nurse counsels a client who smokes cigarettes and uses alcohol daily that he should be aware that these substances have been known to cause
A) decreased erectile ability.
B) decreased sperm count.
C) gynecomastia.
D) increased ejaculatory ability.
Page 40
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Chapter 39: Management of Women with Reproductive Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4037
Sample Questions
Q1) To help a client diagnosed with endometrial cancer effectively deal with this disease, the nurse would base supportive interventions on the fact that endometrial cancer
A) has a 90% cure rate.
B) is difficult to treat.
C) metastasizes quickly.
D) spreads slowly.
Q2) The client tells the nurse that she is experiencing pain on her left side during the entire time of menstrual flow. The nurses assesses the possibility of A) endometriosis.
B) pelvic inflammatory disease.
C) uterine myoma.
D) uterine prolapse.
Q3) The assessment that would alert the nurse to vulvar carcinoma is A) lichen sclerosa.
B) reduced libido.
C) vaginal atrophy.
D) white, frothy vaginal discharge.
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Management of Clients with Breast Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4038
Sample Questions
Q1) For a client receiving cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) as part of chemotherapy for her breast cancer, the nurse would include the instruction to
A) drink eight glasses of water daily.
B) eat iron-rich foods.
C) practice good skin care.
D) take high-fiber laxatives.
Q2) After a modified radical mastectomy, the action by the client that would indicate to the nurse that the client is developing a positive body image is A) asking about a prosthesis.
B) looking at the incision.
C) talking about her feelings.
D) wearing make-up and her own nightgown.
Q3) The nurse explains to a client following mastectomy with lymph node dissection that care of the operative arm should include A) avoiding heavy lifting and trauma to the arm.
B) having blood pressure taken on the operative arm.
C) limiting all movement until the incision is healed.
D) wearing an Ace bandage wrap for 2 years.
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Chapter 41: Management of Clients with Sexually
Transmitted Infections
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4039
Sample Questions
Q1) As part of health teaching for a female client with genital warts, the nurse would explain that
A) condom use is recommended.
B) genital warts are cured after medication therapy.
C) testing for warts eliminates the need for Pap smears.
D) this disorder is unrelated to development of genital cancers.
Q2) When teaching clients strategies for primary prevention of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), the nurse should
A) encourage compliance with medical treatment.
B) encourage early treatment of infected individuals.
C) provide risk reduction counseling.
D) treat all the client's sexual partners.
Q3) In teaching a client receiving doxycycline for the treatment of chlamydial infection, the nurse should include
A) avoidance of alcoholic beverages while taking doxycycline.
B) increasing fluid intake while taking doxycycline.
C) protecting the medication from sunlight.
D) using a condom as a birth control method.
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Chapter 42: Assessment of the Endocrine and Metabolic Systems
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4040
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is performing a physical examination on an elderly client. The nurse notes the abdomen is rounded and sagging. The most appropriate action by the nurse would be to
A) ask the client about exercise routines.
B) discuss the client's bowel habits.
C) inquire about any abdominal pain.
D) record this as a normal finding.
Q2) Important aspects of the social history the nurse should include when examining a client are (Select all that apply)
A) alcohol intake.
B) food preferences.
C) sexual activities.
D) use of items contaminated with body fluids.
E) use of recreational drugs.
Q3) Explaining a paracentesis to an anxious client, the nurse states that the purpose is to
A) collect fluid accumulations from the pleura.
B) evaluate secretions of the gallbladder.
C) extract fluid sequestered in the pancreas.
D) remove excess fluid from the peritoneum.
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Chapter 43: Management of Clients with Thyroid and Parathyroid Disorders
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4041
Sample Questions
Q1) Self-care measures the nurse should teach a client with hypoparathyroidism include eating a
A) high-calcium, low-phosphorus diet.
B) high-phosphorus, high-calcium diet.
C) low-calcium, low-protein diet.
D) low-protein, high-calorie diet.
Q2) To aid in immobilizing the head of a client after thyroidectomy, the nurse would obtain
A) a headboard.
B) hand towels.
C) Kerlix rolls.
D) sandbags.
Q3) The nurse caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism should assign priority to A) averting infection.
B) coughing hourly.
C) encouraging exercise.
D) preventing falls.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Management of Clients with Adrenal and Pituitary Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4042
Sample Questions
Q1) In a client with addisonian crisis, assessment would indicate that the drug Kayexalate is not effective when the nurses assesses the clinical manifestation of A) decreasing blood pressure.
B) low back pain.
C) pedal edema.
D) rapid or erratic pulse.
Q2) The nurse recognizes that the manifestations of Addison's disease are primarily related to the pathophysiology of A) adrenal insufficiency.
B) increased intracranial pressure.
C) renal disease.
D) thyroid hyperfunction.
Q3) Twelve hours after surgery for pheochromocytoma, the nurse should assess a postoperative client for manifestations of abdominal hematoma, including A) absent bowel sounds.
B) blurred vision.
C) elevated blood pressure.
D) increased urine output.
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Chapter 45: Management of Clients with Diabetes Mellitus
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4043
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse evaluating the laboratory studies of a 46-year-old client would recognize that the laboratory report most suggestive of the presence of diabetes mellitus is
A) a glucose tolerance test that takes 2 hours to return to normal.
B) fasting blood glucose level of 151 mg/dl.
C) high urine ketone levels with +2 glycosuria.
D) random ("casual") blood glucose level of 80 mg.
Q2) The ED nurse who is giving insulin by continuous IV infusion to a client with DKA would plan to monitor the client's blood glucose level every
A) 10 minutes.
B) 30 minutes.
C) 1 hour.
D) 2 hours.
Q3) The nurse teaching a diabetic client who has just started insulin therapy would include the instruction to
A) draw up short-acting insulin before longer-acting insulin.
B) inject at a 30-degree angle.
C) routinely aspirate before injecting.
D) shake short-acting insulin vigorously to mix it.
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Chapter 46: Management of Clients with Exocrine
Pancreatic and Biliary Disorders
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4044
Sample Questions
Q1) In preparing the teaching plan on dietary changes after discharge for a client with chronic pancreatitis, the nurse would know that the statement most indicative of the client's understanding of the information is
A) "I won't be eating any more French fries or drinking hard liquor."
B) "A chicken breast and a glass of white wine sound like a good dinner."
C) "I'm anxious to cooperate if it means I can get rid of this pain permanently."
D) "My diet doesn't sound too bad; lots of people have to watch what they eat."
Q2) A client who underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy asks the nurse how soon he/she can return to work. The nurse would respond that the final decision is up to the surgeon, but that clients can usually resume work after
A) 24 hours.
B) 3 to 4 days.
C) 5 to 7 days.
D) 2 weeks.
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Chapter 47: Management of Clients with Hepatic Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4045
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse asks a client with cirrhosis to write his/her name on a piece of paper each day. A student asks why the nurse does this. The best response by the nurse is that
A) "If the client can't write his/her name, it means the client is very confused."
B) "Part of the mini-mental exam and we assess this on all clients."
C) "The physician left orders for this but I don't know why we are doing it."
D) "This is an important safety assessment for the client with cirrhosis."
Q2) In caring for a client with severe hepatic abscess, the nurse would assess carefully for the common complication of A) frequent diarrhea.
B) increasing jaundice.
C) increasing pruritus.
D) pleural effusion.
Q3) The nurse would counsel a client that the portosystemic shunt will A) eliminate the danger of hepatic failure.
B) reduce ascites.
C) reduce portal hypertension only.
D) reverse effects of cirrhosis.
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Assessment of the Integumentary System
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4046
Sample Questions
Q1) A client has elevated lesions that contain serous fluid. The nurse would document these as A) nodules. B) pustules.
C) vesicles.
D) wheals.
Q2) A client is undergoing a lengthy series of treatments for a skin disorder. The best method of documenting the client's experience with the treatments is for the nurse to A) document the lesions clearly at each visit using proper terminology. B) draw the distribution and characteristics of the lesions occasionally. C) have the client record ongoing changes and include them in the record. D) photograph the lesions at each clinic visit and use them for comparison.
Q3) After tape is applied for skin patch testing, the nurse would include in the client's instructions to return to the clinic for tape removal and initial reading in A) 24 hours.
B) 48 hours.
C) 3 days.
D) 7 days.
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Chapter 49: Management of Clients with Integumentary Disorders
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4047
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is working with a client who has a disfigured face and who is undergoing a series of reconstructive operations. The nurse has formulated the diagnosis: Disturbed Body Image related to perceived disfigurement as a primary problem. The least helpful intervention by the nurse would be to A) present reality in a kind and compassionate manner.
B) refer the client to a licensed aesthetician to help with makeup.
C) say "I know how you feel" while sitting with the client.
D) tell the client s/he has to look in a mirror to get used to the facial appearance.
Q2) A nurse would instruct a client who experienced widespread first-degree sunburn to
A) apply a water-based emollient after bathing.
B) avoid the use of aspirin or ibuprofen.
C) soak in cold baths for 20 minutes at a time.
D) use over-the-counter local anesthetics.
Q3) Nursing care for a client with atopic dermatitis would focus primarily on
A) decreasing pain.
B) decreasing pruritus.
C) preventing infection.
D) promoting drying of lesions.
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Chapter 50: Management of Clients with Burn Injury
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4048
Sample Questions
Q1) The physician orders 1% silver sulfadiazine cream applied to a client's burn wound two times daily. The nurse would be aware that this medication can affect A) blood pH.
B) hemoglobin level.
C) serum electrolyte levels.
D) white blood cell count.
Q2) The nurse doing a home safety assessment would conclude that the client at highest risk for burns sustained from clothing ignition during meal preparation is A) an 18-month-old toddler.
B) a 5-year-old child.
C) a 15-year-old teenager.
D) a 75-year-old adult.
Q3) The nurse teaching a home safety course would emphasize that because of growth and development factors, toddlers are most at risk for burn injuries caused by A) cigarettes.
B) electricity.
C) flame.
D) scald.
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Chapter 51: Assessment of the Vascular System
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4049
Sample Questions
Q1) For a client admitted to the hospital with chronic venous disease, the nurse's assessment of the client's legs would most likely reveal
A) decreased pulses.
B) erythema.
C) overgrowth of hair.
D) reduced muscle mass.
Q2) A client is taking garlic and hawthorn supplements. The nurse would ask further questions to elicit information on a possible history of A) atherosclerosis.
B) hypertension.
C) smoking.
D) varicose veins.
Q3) When a female client tells the nurse, "I always get pains in my legs when walking," the nurse would question her about
A) amount of activity required to cause pain.
B) history of hypertension.
C) number of pregnancies.
D) presence of swelling.
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Chapter 52: Management of Clients with Hypertensive Disorders
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4050
Sample Questions
Q1) In advising a hypertensive client who is reluctant to give up smoking, the nurse would state that nicotine from smoking
A) causes significant, irreversible changes in blood vessels.
B) does not affect blood pressure but increases risk of cardiovascular disease.
C) increases blood pressure immediately for a short time.
D) is statistically linked to the development of hypertension.
Q2) When a client diagnosed with primary hypertension asks the nurse what causes this disease, the nurse's best response would be "High blood pressure is caused by A) a decrease in plasma renin levels."
B) a number of factors, not just one cause."
C) arteriosclerotic vessel disease."
D) a kidney problem."
Q3) The nurse would consider referring a hypertensive client for step-down therapy when the blood pressure has been effectively controlled for at least
A) 3 months.
B) 6 months.
C) 1 year.
D) 2 years.
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Chapter 53: Management of Clients with Vascular Disorders
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4051
Sample Questions
Q1) A client is scheduled to have a femoral-popliteal bypass with a synthetic graft. The nurse's preoperative teaching would include information about preoperative A) antibiotics.
B) anticoagulants.
C) platelets.
D) skin preparation.
Q2) The nurse reading the admission note for a client who has an arterial leg ulcer would anticipate that the ulcer will be characterized
A) as being surrounded by atrophic tissue.
B) as producing minimal pain.
C) by a deep-red base.
D) by irregular borders.
Q3) In teaching the preoperative ambulatory surgery client scheduled for vein ligation and stripping, the nurse would include that immediately after surgery, the client will
A) experience pain and swelling in the leg.
B) have legs wrapped with Ace bandages from heel to groin.
C) have the head of the bed put on blocks to elevate it 6 to 9 inches.
D) need to sit in a comfortable chair with legs dependent.
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Chapter 54: Assessment of the Cardiac System
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4052
Sample Questions
Q1) A client who had a myocardial infarction has an elevated blood glucose level and is getting insulin. The client asks why this is occurring because the client does not have diabetes. The best answer by the nurse is
A) "I am not sure, but I will ask the doctor and let you know."
B) "It is an expected side effect of the medications we gave you."
C) "The stress of your heart attack makes blood sugar rise."
D) "You probably are a diabetic and weren't diagnosed until now."
Q2) The nurse assessing an American Indian client would assess for other cardiovascular risk factors because the prevalence of heart disease in this group is
A) no different from other ethnic groups and all should be assessed.
B) the highest of all ethnic groups in America.
C) the second highest of all ethnic groups in America.
D) varies widely between different geographical locations.
Q3) The nurse would explain to a client that the benefit of a Holter monitor over an ECG is that the Holter monitor
A) does not require a lengthy hospital stay.
B) is a continuous recording, often for 24 hours.
C) is less expensive than the traditional ECG.
D) provides a two-dimensional view of the coronary arteries.
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Management of Clients with Structural
Cardiac Disorders
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4053
Sample Questions
Q1) When performing cardiac auscultation on a client with mitral valve prolapse, the nurse would anticipate hearing a
A) harsh, systolic murmur.
B) loud S2 heart sound.
C) midsystolic click.
D) prominent S4 heart sound.
Q2) When a client is hospitalized with dilated cardiomyopathy, the nurse would examine the client's record for the characteristic history of A) long-term alcohol abuse.
B) previous streptococcal infection.
C) resistant hypertension.
D) uncontrolled diabetes.
Q3) To encourage a client recovering from endocarditis, the nurse would stress that new guidelines for home care are less restrictive than in the past and the client no longer needs to
A) observe complete bed rest.
B) restrict the amount of activity.
C) take 2 to 5 weeks of antibiotic therapy.
D) take precautions against emboli formation.
Page 57
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Chapter 56: Management of Clients with Functional
Cardiac Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4054
Sample Questions
Q1) When the client who had a myocardial infarction develops dependent edema, the nurse would assess that this could be an early manifestation of A) fluid deficit.
B) left ventricular failure.
C) renal failure.
D) right ventricular failure.
Q2) Reporting that a client's total cholesterol reading is 230, the nurse would know this result indicates a reading that is A) low.
B) borderline high.
C) high.
D) very high.
Q3) When a client with heart failure is receiving loop diuretics, the nurse would be sure to monitor serum
A) calcium levels.
B) enzyme levels.
C) potassium levels.
D) sodium levels.
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Chapter 57: Management of Clients with Dysrhythmias
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4055
Sample Questions
Q1) When a client in the CCU develops ventricular tachycardia and loses consciousness, the priority action by the nurse would be to immediately administer A) defibrillation.
B) lidocaine.
C) quinidine.
D) verapamil.
Q2) A client in the CCU goes into sudden ventricular fibrillation. The priority action by the nurse would be to immediately administer A) a lidocaine bolus.
B) atropine.
C) cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
D) intravenous (IV) magnesium.
Q3) To prevent possible complications from cardioversion, before administering the shock, the nurse would ensure that the (Select all that apply)
A) emergency equipment is nearby and in working order.
B) joules are set to 50-100 joules initially on a monophasic machine.
C) machine is set to synchronize with the client's QRS complex.
D) the Code Blue team has arrived and is prepared.
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59
Chapter 58: Management of Clients with Myocardial Infarction
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4056
Sample Questions
Q1) When the immediate post-MI client complains about the high-fiber diet and being encouraged to drink water, the nurse would inform the client that the purpose of such a diet is to
A) create a high-bulk, soft stool.
B) lower cholesterol levels.
C) maintain bowel health to decrease gas.
D) promote easy digestion.
Q2) The nursing actions that would most help to prevent cardiogenic shock in a client after a myocardial infarction are (Select all that apply)
A) administering vasopressor agents.
B) enhancing the heart's pumping function.
C) giving the client IV lidocaine.
D) providing adequate IV fluids.
E) treating pain rapidly.
Q3) The nurse would explain to a client that the most common site for MI is the
A) anterior wall of the left ventricle.
B) anterior wall of the right ventricle.
C) inferior (diaphragmatic) surface.
D) posterior wall of the left ventricle.
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Chapter 59: Assessment of the Respiratory System
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4057
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would explain to a client that the most helpful test in the evaluation of a possible pulmonary embolus is
A) alveolar lavage.
B) bronchoscopy.
C) gallium scan.
D) ventilation-perfusion scan.
Q2) A client has just returned from China and is concerned about possible respiratory disorders. The nurse would advise the client to have a screening to assess for exposure to
A) adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
B) histoplasmosis.
C) tuberculosis.
D) Valley fever.
Q3) Before drawing blood for an arterial blood gas (ABG), the nurse would perform a/an A) Allen's test.
B) incentive spirometer assessment.
C) Schilling's test.
D) test for peripheral perfusion.
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Chapter 60: Management of Clients with Upper Airway Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For an elderly client who has a posterior nasal plug and anterior nasal packing in place to control an episode of severe epistaxis, the priority assessment for the nurse would be assessing for
A) continuing nasal pain.
B) dislodged packing.
C) presence of hypoxia.
D) swallowing blood.
Q2) A client has a fenestrated tracheostomy tube in place. A tracheostomy plug will be used to allow the client to talk. The intervention by the nurse that would be essential before inserting the plug is
A) alerting the client to a new system of communication.
B) deflating the cuff on the tracheostomy tube.
C) evaluating the client's tidal volume.
D) positioning the client to facilitate air flow.
Q3) When feeding a client with a tracheostomy, the nurse would
A) follow each spoon of food with liquid.
B) have the client in an upright sitting position.
C) inflate the cuff before the meal.
D) thin the food to liquid consistency.
Page 62
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Chapter 61: Management of Clients with Lower Airway and Pulmonary Vessel
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Important health promotion measures the nurse should encourage the client with COPD to consider are
A) getting influenza and pneumonia vaccinations.
B) increasing ambient humidity in the house or apartment.
C) installing a UV filter in the heating and air conditioning system.
D) moving to an area of the country with a dry climate.
Q2) A nurse caring for an elderly client with COPD alters care knowing that in the older population (Select all that apply)
A) COPD is not a common problem in the elderly.
B) impaired nutrition is a common problem in the elderly.
C) multiple co-morbidities may be present that complicate care.
D) sensory disturbances may hinder their ability to provide self-care.
E) there may be more problems with drug-drug interactions.
Q3) In assessing a client for emphysema, the nurse would know that a physical finding commonly associated with this condition is
A) barrel chest.
B) bulbous nose.
C) spider angiomas.
D) varicose veins.
Page 63
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Chapter 62: Management of Clients with Parenchymal and Pleural Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A young female client with cystic fibrosis (CF) wishes to become pregnant but is concerned about the effect of CF on fertility. The nurse bases a response with the understanding that
A) breastfeeding will not be possible because of plugged milk glands.
B) only about 20% of women with CF are infertile.
C) pregnancy carries a high risk of spontaneous abortion (miscarriage).
D) women with CF are unlikely to become pregnant.
Q2) A spinal cord-injured client complains of severe dyspnea in the side-lying position. The nurse anticipates diagnostic testing to reveal
A) a pleural abscess.
B) a tension pneumothorax.
C) bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis.
D) pneumonia.
Q3) Nurses caring for clients being treated for active pulmonary tuberculosis in the hospital are required to have (Select all that apply)
A) an annual chest x-ray.
B) an annual skin test for TB.
C) no allergies to anti-TB medications.
D) properly-fitting particulate respirators.
Page 64
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Chapter 63: Management of Clients with Acute Pulmonary Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4061
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is providing community education on home safety. An important safety measure to prevent carbon monoxide poisoning is to instruct clients to
A) have furnaces maintained professionally on a regular basis.
B) inspect all electrical plugs before using them.
C) install smoke detectors on each floor of the house.
D) store a fire extinguisher near or in the kitchen.
Q2) A client with respiratory failure was intubated with an oral endotracheal (ET) tube 2 hours ago. Suspecting that the tube has changed position slightly since insertion, the nurse would assess the
A) results of the chest x-ray film taken 2 hours earlier.
B) current oxygen saturation readings.
C) status of the client's breath sounds.
D) position of the numbers on the ET tube at the lip line.
Q3) A client has rapidly progressing ARDS. Which actions by the nurse can help the family during this crisis? (Select all that apply.)
A) Avoid disturbing them in the waiting room.
B) Limit visiting time so the family does not fatigue.
C) Provide frequent condition updates.
D) Use clear communication.
Page 65
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Chapter 64: Assessment of the Eyes and Ears
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before insertion of the otoscope speculum in the ear of an adult, the nurse would pull the pinna
A) down and back.
B) down and forward, and out.
C) up and back, and out.
D) up and forward.
Q2) The nurse examining the conjunctivae of a healthy young adult would document a normal finding when recording that the color of the conjunctivae is
A) dark red.
B) pale.
C) pink.
D) yellow tinged.
Q3) A client is being treated for arthritis with large doses of aspirin, and the nurse assesses the client for ototoxicity. The most indicative clinical manifestation of damage to the eighth cranial nerve is
A) ear pain.
B) hearing loss.
C) nystagmus.
D) tinnitus.
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Page 66
Chapter 65: Management of Clients with Visual Disorders
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4063
Sample Questions
Q1) A client has had vision loss because of glaucoma. The nurse identifies the diagnosis: Anticipatory Grieving related to loss of vision. Which interventions does the nurse include in the client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.)
A) Allow the client to verbalize feelings.
B) Assess causative and contributing factors.
C) Examine the need for vocational rehabilitation.
D) Help the client explore avenues of support.
E) Instruct the client on home safety precautions.
Q2) A nurse is conducting wellness seminars in the community. One health promotion activity the nurse could advise the audience to reduce the chances of developing cataracts is to
A) drink plenty of water.
B) limit the amount of alcohol you drink.
C) take a lot of vitamins A and E.
D) wear sunglasses when outside.
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Chapter 66: Management of Clients with Hearing and Balance Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client's family reports that the client does not hear well. The client becomes angry and defensive and denies having a hearing problem. The best response by the nurse would be
A) "It seems like it's hard to listen to your family when you don't agree with them."
B) "My father has a hearing aid and is really glad he got it."
C) "There's nothing to be ashamed about having poor hearing."
D) "Why don't you believe what your family is saying?"
Q2) The nurse providing instructions to a client after ear surgery would tell the client that for the next 4 to 6 weeks, he/she should avoid
A) any physical activity.
B) blowing the nose.
C) flying in an aircraft.
D) getting the ear wet.
Q3) After assisting a client with insertion of a hearing aid, the nurse would
A) allow the client to adjust volume before speaking.
B) cup hand over the client's ear to check for feedback.
C) explain that the whistling noise will subside in a few minutes.
D) stand in front of the client and speak loudly.
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Chapter 67: Assessment of the Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse documents the client's gait as short, accelerating steps with the client shuffling in a forward-leaning posture and having difficulty starting and stopping. The nurse would identify this type of gait as A) ataxic.
B) dystrophic.
C) festinating.
D) parkinsonian.
Q2) A nurse working on a rehabilitation unit is assessing a new admission, a client with a stable spinal cord injury. The nurse notes that the client is unable to shrug the shoulders. This finding indicates to the nurse that the level of spinal cord injury in the client is A) C4-5.
B) C8-T1.
C) L1-3.
D) S1-2.
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69
Chapter 68: Management of Comatose or Confused
Clients
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22 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse preparing to give mouth care to a comatose client should first place this client into the position of
A) high Fowler.
B) lateral.
C) low Fowler.
D) prone.
Q2) The nursing action contraindicated in the care of a client with a severe basilar skull fracture is
A) nasal suctioning.
B) pharyngeal suctioning.
C) raising the head of his bed.
D) tooth brushing.
Q3) The nursing action that is important to prevent complications from nasogastric feeding in a comatose client receiving tube feedings is to
A) check residual volume every 4 hours.
B) feed only small amounts every hour.
C) feed the client in the supine position.
D) stimulate the gag reflex every 8 hours.
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Chapter 69: Management of Clients with Cerebral Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client who has had intracranial surgery develops urine output in excess of 200 ml per hour. The nurse reports the findings, suspecting
A) diabetes insipidus.
B) fluid volume excess.
C) hyponatremia.
D) hyperkalemia.
Q2) The nurse assesses for the most common manifestations of a post-traumatic brain abscess, which are
A) headache and lethargy.
B) photophobia and dizziness.
C) muscle spasms and tingling.
D) sluggish pupillary reactions.
Q3) When a client is admitted to the hospital in an unconscious state following subarachnoid hemorrhage resulting from a ruptured intracranial aneurysm, the nurse anticipates that the manifestations that preceded the loss of consciousness were A) generalized weakness and fatigue accompanied by anorexia.
B) gradual loss of speech or vision.
C) sudden severe headache accompanied by vomiting.
D) weakness, fever, nausea, and vomiting.
Page 71
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Chapter 70: Management of Clients with Stroke
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4068
Sample Questions
Q1) Safety precautions the nurse instructs the client with homonymous hemianopsia to use include
A) getting evaluated for prescription lenses.
B) turning the head to scan the visual field.
C) using artificial tears to keep the eyes moist.
D) wearing an eye patch on alternating eyes.
Q2) A client who has had a stroke appears to understand words that are spoken but cannot verbally respond. The nurse clarifies that this type of aphasia is
A) Broca's.
B) global.
C) receptive.
D) Wernicke's.
Q3) A nurse teaches a community class about primary prevention for stroke, which includes (Select all that apply)
A) adequate control of hypertension.
B) keeping tight glycemic control in diabetes.
C) maintaining safe cholesterol levels.
D) not smoking or smoking cessation.
E) reducing heavy alcohol consumption.
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Page 72
Chapter 71: Management of Clients with Peripheral Nervous System Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4069
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that the client diagnosed with a spinal tumor will receive
A) radiation and/or chemotherapy.
B) radiation therapy and/or immunotherapy.
C) surgery and/or chemotherapy.
D) surgery and/or radiation therapy.
Q2) To promote back health, nursing personnel are instructed in good body mechanics, which include (Select all that apply)
A) avoid twisting the body when lifting.
B) hold objects away from the body when lifting in case they are dropped.
C) keep heavy objects close to the body when lifting.
D) participate in exercises to strengthen abdominal and back muscles.
Q3) The nurse would question a client with suspected trigeminal neuralgia about facial pain that is
A) characterized by intermittent episodes of severe pain with gradual onset.
B) characterized by intermittent episodes of severe pain with sudden onset.
C) constant and aching or burning in nature.
D) constant, severe, and sharp in nature.
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Page 73
Chapter 72: Management of Clients with Degenerative Neurologic Disorders
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is being treated in the clinic for an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. The nurse would anticipate administering which drug?
A) Diazepam (Valium)
B) Interferon b1b (Betaseron)
C) Lioresal (Baclofen)
D) Methylprednisolone (Solu-Cortef)
Q2) When a client is admitted to the hospital with Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS), the most important assessment the nurse should make is for
A) decreasing alertness.
B) respiratory difficulty.
C) seizure activity.
D) urinary retention.
Q3) A client with MS is being taught self-care measures to prevent constipation. The nurse would realize goals for teaching had been met when the client states he/she will avoid
A) a high-fiber diet.
B) citrus fruits.
C) laxatives.
D) stool softeners.
Page 74
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Chapter 73: Management of Clients with Neurologic
Trauma
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28 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse encourages the client who has sustained a C5 complete spinal cord injury that he should anticipate that he will be able to
A) dress totally independently.
B) feed himself.
C) learn to type or use a computer.
D) self-catheterize.
Q2) The nurse explains to a family that immediate medical-surgical stabilization after a severe cervical injury would include
A) cervical brace.
B) halo jacket.
C) skeletal traction.
D) spinal fusion.
Q3) The emergency department nurse should position the client with cranial injuries
A) in high-Fowler position and knees elevated.
B) side-lying with head of bed elevated 20 degrees.
C) supine with head of bed elevated 30 degrees.
D) supine with the bed completely flat.
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Page 75
Chapter 74: Assessment of the Hematopoietic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The laboratory test result that would be most helpful to the nurse in the assessment of a client with a bleeding disorder is
A) differential count.
B) hematocrit.
C) platelet count.
D) RBC count.
Q2) The manifestation the nurse would question the client about that is characteristically associated with anemia is A) fatigue.
B) pruritus.
C) rash.
D) ruddy skin color.
Q3) The nurse is monitoring the laboratory test results for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy. The nurse is aware that the International Normalized Ratio (INR) for most clinical conditions requiring anticoagulation is
A) less than 1.
B) 1 to 2.
C) 2 to 3.5.
D) 3 to 5.5.
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Page 76
Chapter 75: Management of Clients with Hematologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has folic acid deficiency anemia. Which information in the nursing history would be of concern to the nurse? The client
A) cooks in cast iron skillets.
B) does not like to eat fish.
C) has one alcoholic drink a week.
D) takes metformin.
Q2) The nurse explains that the definitive laboratory finding confirming the diagnosis of sickle cell anemia is
A) folate deficiency.
B) hemoglobin level of less than 9 g/dl.
C) increase in hemoglobin G (Hgb G).
D) presence of hemoglobin S (Hgb S).
Q3) A nurse is conducting a wellness seminar on healthy eating and prevention of iron deficiency anemia. The food the nurse would describe as being high in iron is
A) citrus fruits.
B) grains.
C) green leafy vegetables.
D) milk products.
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Chapter 76: Management of Clients with Immune Disorders
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17 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with urticaria is frustrated with the chronic nature of the problem. To enhance coping, which intervention by the nurse would be most effective?
A) Assist the client in identifying and eliminating triggers for outbreaks.
B) Demonstrate to the client measures to increase comfort.
C) Let the client vent frustrations and remain supportive.
D) Teach the client the proper way to take antihistamines.
Q2) The nurse instructs the client who has a new prescription for cromolyn sodium (NasalCrom) that the most effective administration schedule is
A) at the start of allergy season, with once-a-day dosing.
B) just after manifestations begin, with twice daily dosing.
C) 1 week before allergy season begins, with four to six doses per day.
D) when manifestations peak only, with two or three doses per day.
Q3) A client will undergo testing for possible food allergy to chocolate. The nurse teaches the client to eliminate chocolate from the diet before the testing for A) 1 to 2 days.
B) 3 to 5 days.
C) 5 to 10 days.
D) 10 to 14 days.
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78
Chapter 77: Management of Clients with Rheumatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The intervention the client with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) can do that is most effective in preserving motor function during periods when the affected joints are not inflamed is A) application of moist heat to joints.
B) encouraging moderate increase in activity.
C) promotion of a high-protein diet.
D) restriction of the client's activity.
Q2) A client has dermatomyositis. The nurse will include priority interventions in the care plan provisions to meet the problem of A) difficulty ambulating.
B) difficulty swallowing.
C) disorientation.
D) phlebitis.
Q3) The nursing care plan should be modified for a client with RA who develops Sjögren's syndrome to include
A) encouraging fluids to prevent constipation.
B) lubricating the eyes with artificial tears.
C) providing skin care daily.
D) restricting activity in the late evening.
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Chapter 78: Management of Clients with Acquired
Immunodeficiency Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is afraid of a recent possible HIV exposure. The nurse should explain that the period of time it takes before HIV antibodies can be detected by laboratory tests is generally
A) 1 to 3 days.
B) 7 to 10 days.
C) 1 to 3 weeks.
D) 4 to 12 weeks.
Q2) A client with AIDS is experiencing fever with night sweats. A suggestion the nurse could make is to
A) drink all liquids in the morning.
B) keep liquids at the bedside to drink.
C) limit fluid intake after supper.
D) take aspirin if awakened in the night.
Q3) The nurse counsels other co-workers that the suggested treatment for HIV exposure is
A) a single retroviral medication for 2 weeks.
B) combination retroviral medications for 2 weeks.
C) determined by the severity of the exposure and other factors.
D) "watching and waiting" for 12 weeks post-exposure.
Page 80
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Chapter 79: Management of Clients with Leukemia and Lymphoma
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with acute leukemia has an extremely high white count and is going to receive chemotherapy. The nurse should anticipate administering which agents to this client? (Select all that apply.)
A) Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
B) Increased IV fluids
C) Rasburicase (Elitek)
D) Urine acidifiers
Q2) A client with stage I GVHD following a bone marrow transplant is very depressed because he has developed this complication. The nurse should base interactions with this client on the fact that stage I GVHD
A) is likely to prevent successful engraftment.
B) may prevent leukemic relapse.
C) is treatable with steroids.
D) is usually fatal very quickly.
Q3) The nurse explains that acute leukemia is caused by A) accumulation of immature blast cells.
B) excessively rapid mitosis of leukemic cells.
C) proliferation of neutrophils.
D) undifferentiated blast cells entering bone marrow.
Page 81
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Chapter 80: Management of Clients Requiring
Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client who had a kidney transplant develops decreased urine output, increased serum creatinine level, and a slight elevation in temperature. The nurse anticipates providing which intervention?
A) Antibiotics
B) Extra IV fluids
C) High-dose steroids
D) Plasmapheresis
Q2) The nurse explains that the law prohibiting the buying and selling of organs is the A) National Transplant Act.
B) Organ Procurement and Transplant Network.
C) Uniform Anatomical Gift Act.
D) United Network of Organ Sharing.
Q3) The nurse working in an emergency department assesses that the client near death who would be the best candidate for organ donation is the client with A) cancer.
B) cirrhosis.
C) coronary heart disease.
D) subarachnoid hemorrhage.
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Chapter 81: Management of Clients with Shock and Multisystem Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the progressive stage of shock, lactic acidosis occurs, resulting in A) arterial pooling in the periphery.
B) constriction of the microcirculation.
C) increased capillary permeability.
D) movement of fluid into the capillaries.
Q2) A client has been in a motor vehicle accident and sustained significant injuries. The client is in shock and is semi-conscious, but is restless and moaning. The family is concerned the client is in pain and demands the nurse administer ordered morphine. The priority action by the nurse is to
A) check the client's oxygen saturation.
B) give morphine as ordered, slowly.
C) politely decline their request.
D) reposition the client.
Q3) The nurse caring for a client in shock who is being mechanically hyperventilated explains that the rationale for this intervention is to
A) decrease carbon dioxide levels in the blood.
B) prevent atelectasis and respiratory failure.
C) rest the client to decrease metabolism.
D) stimulate endorphin production.
Page 83
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Chapter 82: Management of Clients in the Emergency Department
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) For children who need crystalloid fluid resuscitation, the formula is altered to
A) 20 ml/kg bolus.
B) 20 ml/kg/hour.
C) 40 ml/kg bolus
D) 40 ml/kg/hour.
Q2) An unconscious client is brought to the emergency department (ED) by ambulance following a car accident. Without a family member to give informed consent, the nurse should
A) begin treatment of the client under the doctrine of implied emergency consent.
B) have a hospital administrator sign the consent form.
C) request the physician to sign the consent form.
D) wait until a family member is contacted before treating the client.
Q3) After stabilizing a trauma victim's airway, breathing, and circulation, the next item for the ED nurse to assess is
A) abdomen.
B) broken bones.
C) integument.
D) neurologic status.
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