Comparative Judicial Systems
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Comparative Judicial Systems examines the structures, functions, and processes of courts and legal institutions across different countries and jurisdictions. The course explores how diverse societies organize their judicial systems, addressing topics such as judicial independence, court procedures, the selection and role of judges, and the relationship between the judiciary and other branches of government. Through case studies and comparative analysis, students gain insight into how cultural, political, and historical contexts shape judicial practices, and they learn to critically assess the effectiveness and fairness of various legal systems worldwide.
Recommended Textbook
America's Courts and the Criminal Justice System 10th Edition by David W. Neubauer
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17 Chapters
1664 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 16: Appellate and Habeas Corpus Review
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Sample Questions
Q1) Defendants convicted of violent offenses and sentenced to lengthy prison terms are less likely to win on appeal than those convicted of less serious offenses.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Most criminal cases are affirmed on appeal because of the _____ error rule and the standards of review applied by appellate courts.
Answer: harmless
Q3) A court that must hear an appeal has what kind of appellate jurisdiction of that appeal?
A)compulsory
B)contingent
C)mandatory
D)presumptive
Answer: C
Q4) The leading cause of wrongful convictions is improper forensic evidence.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 1: Courts, Crime, and Controversy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of a request for a judge to make a decision?
A)an affidavit
B)a warrant
C)a motion
D)a judgment
Answer: C
Q2) The dominant reality of contemporary sentencing is:
A) the use of structured sentencing to eliminate wide variations in sentences.
B) prison overcrowding.
C) the decreased used of intermediate sanctions in favor of active sentences.
D) rehabilitation to reduce recidivism.
Answer: B
Q3) _____ jury review is required in all federal felony prosecutions. Answer: Grand
Q4) A trial by a judge only, without a jury is called a(n) _____ trial. Answer: bench
Q5) Approximately 2.5 million people work in the criminal justice system. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Law and Crime
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Sample Questions
Q1) A common civil remedy used in drug cases is:
A)writ of habeas corpus
B)mandatory minimum sentences
C)asset forfeiture
D)declaratory damages
Answer: C
Q2) The mental state, or criminal intent, required for a crime to have been committed is referred to as
A) actus reus
B) mens rea
C) corpus delicti
D) result
Answer: C
Q3) Law is a body of rules enacted by public officials in a legitimate manner and back by the force of the state.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Law is both substantive and _____.
Answer: procedural
Page 5
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Chapter 3: Federal Courts
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the U.S.Supreme Court fails to grant certiorari, they are stating that they unilaterally affirm the decision of the lower court.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Civil lawsuits consume more of the federal courts' time than criminal cases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Differentiate the jurisdiction and functions of Article III courts from Article I courts and other specialized federal courts.
Q4) What federal court has original jurisdiction over disputes between states?
A)Legislative Court
B)District Court
C)Court of Appeals
D)Supreme Court
Q5) A U.S.attorney is nominated by the President, confirmed by the Senate, and serves during "good behavior."
A)True
B)False
Q6) Appellate courts primarily review the legal decisions made by _____ courts.
Page 6
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Chapter 4: State Courts
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the four problem areas facing the lower courts in the United States and explain why they represent problems for the judiciary.
Q2) One type of problem-solving court is the _____ violence court.
Q3) The organization of courts in the United States impacts case processing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following states does not have any trial courts of limited jurisdiction?
A)California
B)New York
C)Texas
D)Ohio
Q5) In domestic violence courts a single judge handles multiple criminal, family court, and divorce cases involving the same defendant.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Most criminal cases do not go to trial.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: The Dynamics of Courthouse Justice
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Sample Questions
Q1) What right did Barker's lawyer argue was violated?
A)the Sixth Amendment right to a speedy trial.
B)the Seventh Amendment right to a speedy trial.
C)the Eighth Amendment right to a speedy trial.
D)the Fourth Amendment right to a speedy trial.
Q2) Maverick defense attorneys
A)most often get the best plea bargains for their clients.
B)work cooperatively with prosecutors to resolve cases quickly.
C)generally have few sanctions imposed on them.
D)are seldom able to negotiate the most lenient sentences.
Q3) In a general sense, the term _____ suggests abnormal or unacceptable time lapses in the processing of cases.
Q4) Legal ethics is of critical importance because
A)the American legal system is based on the adversarial system.
B)the American legal system is based on the confrontational system.
C)the American legal system is based on the legalistic system.
D)the American legal system is based on the acrimonious system.
Q5) Who are the courtroom workgroup members? Why is it important that the members of the courtroom workgroup cooperate with each other?
Page 8
Q6) The _____ Amendment provides for the right to a speedy and public trial.
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Chapter 6: Prosecutors
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what case was it determined that a district attorney's office may not be held liable under Section 1983 for failure to train prosecutors based on a single Brady violation?
A)Connick v.Thompson (2011).
B)Kalina v.Fletcher (1997).
C)Buckley v.Fitzsimmons (1993).
D)Burns v.Reed (1991).
Q2) Most assistant district attorneys have worked in private practice for years before being hired by the prosecutor's office.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In _____ prosecution, separate prosecutors are assigned to specific court functions, such as initial appearance, charging, grand jury, trial, or appeal.
Q4) Most modern prosecutors in the United States hold a public office.
A)True
B)False
Q5) State attorneys general have chosen to emphasize their _____ responsibilities because they typically have limited authority over criminal matters.
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9
Chapter 7: Defense Attorneys
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Sample Questions
Q1) More than half of defendants are described by their attorneys as passive participants in their overall defense.
A)True
B)False
Q2) At which of the following stages in the criminal justice process is an indigent defendant not guaranteed counsel paid for by the government?
A)plea bargaining
B)trial
C)first appearance
D)discretionary appeal
Q3) What factor(s) affect the availability of lawyers to represent defendants in major cities?
A)low status
B)difficulty in securing clients
C)low fees
D)all of these answers are correct
Q4) Explain why ethics important to the defense of criminal defendants.
Q5) Defending unpopular clients is the basis for a great deal of _____ of lawyers.
Q6) Lawyers must assert valid defense and ensure _____.
Page 10
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Chapter 8: Judges
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Sample Questions
Q1) When legislators appoint _____, it is quite clear that former legislators are more likely to be selected than in other systems.
Q2) Judges are under pressure to move their docket.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What happened to three Iowa Supreme Court justices who rule that a state law banning same-sex marriage violated the state constitution?
A)they were impeached
B)they were found guilty of ethical violations
C)they were removed from office
D)Nothing
Q4) Which system is likely to produce judges who have held political office?
A)the appointment system.
B)the merit system.
C)the Missouri system.
D)the election system.
Q5) The U.S._____ specifies that the President of the United States has the power to nominate judges with the advice and consent of the Senate.
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Chapter 9: Defendants, Victims, and Witnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) In crimes of violence such as assaults, robberies, and rapes, Hispanic women report the crime to the authorities what percent of the time?
A)10
B)25
C)35
D)50
Q2) The Victim and Witness _____ Act, a federal law passed in 1982, required greater protection of victims and witnesses and also mandated guidelines for the fair treatment of victims and witnesses in federal criminal cases.
Q3) Lack of cooperation on the part of victims of crime is referred to by scholars as indigent cynicism.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Lack of trust in governmental authorities is one reason Latinos often do not report crimes to the police.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Victim advocacy groups have become a powerful _____ voice.
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Chapter 10: Arrest to Arraignment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The burden of proof required at a preliminary hearing is
A)preponderance of the evidence.
B)proof beyond a reasonable doubt.
C)reasonable suspicion.
D)probable cause.
Q2) Which of the following is a power of the grand jury?
A)All of these are powers of the grand jury
B)To subpoena witnesses
C)To indict defendants
D)To grant witness immunity
Q3) Which Amendment to the U.S.Constitution states: "No person shall be held to answer for a capital or otherwise infamous crime, unless on a presentment or indictment of a grand jury"?
A)1st Amendment
B)4th Amendment
C)5th Amendment
D)6th Amendment
Q4) Grand juries have the power to grant witnesses immunity from prosecution.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Disclosing and Suppressing Evidence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which U.S.Supreme Court case held that police must inform suspects of their rights prior to custodial interrogation?
A)U.S.v.Miller
B)Texas v.Cobb
C)Miranda v.Arizona
D)Mapp v.Ohio
Q2) The exclusionary rule requires exclusion of evidence obtained as a result of a _____ ?violation.
Q3) Arrest warrants may be issued by
A)chiefs of police.
B)prosecutors
C)judges.
D)defense attorneys.
Q4) The _____ rule bars evidence from being used in the prosecution's case-in-chief if it was obtained in violation of a defendant's constitutional rights.
Q5) _____ evidence is any evidence that may be favorable to the defendant at trial either by tending to case doubt on the defendant's guilt or tending to mitigate the defendant's culpability, thereby potentially reducing the defendant's sentence.
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Page 14
Chapter 12: Negotiated Justice and the Plea of Guilty
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Sample Questions
Q1) Researchers consistently find that jurisdictions with larger caseloads have higher rates of plea bargaining than jurisdictions with smaller caseloads.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are the three most common types of plea bargains?
A)charge bargaining, count bargaining, and sentence bargaining.
B)charge bargaining, limit bargaining, and sentence bargaining
C)limit bargaining, count bargaining, and sentence bargaining
D)charge bargaining, count bargaining, and limit bargaining
Q3) To gain a potential advantage in plea bargaining, prosecutors sometimes
A)deliberately overcharge.
B)waive grand jury review.
C)demand a preliminary hearing.
D)refuse to take Alford pleas.
Q4) Why do judges engage in plea bargaining?
A)to move cases.
B)to gain leniency for the defendants.
C)to gain convictions.
D)None of these answers is correct.
Q5) Explain why few cases go to trial but most defendants plead guilty.
Page 15
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Chapter 13: Trials and Juries
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evidence at trial is limited to relevant evidence.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What Amendment gives a criminal defendant the privilege not to testify at trial?
A)4th
B)5th
C)6th
D)7th
Q3) Which of the following types of evidence is generally not admissible at trial?
A)DNA
B)fingerprint
C)hair analysis
D)Polygraph
Q4) Both the adult criminal justice system and the juvenile justice system provide defendants a right to a trial by jury.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The most frequently used source for compiling a master jury list are _____ lists.
Q6) The first step in jury selection is the compilation of the _____ jury list.
Page 16
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Chapter 14: Sentencing Options
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Sample Questions
Q1) Victim impact statements belong in what sentencing philosophy?
A)rehabilitation
B)deterrence
C)restoration
D)incapacitation
Q2) Probation is one alternative to incarceration.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____is a backdoor solution to prison overcrowding.
Q4) The _____ branch of government controls the length of the prison term.
Q5) The executive branch of government becomes involved in punishment by way of pardons and parole.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The _____ model of criminal justice believes the death penalty should be abolished because it is morally wrong for the state to take a life.
Q7) Direct _____ involves an offender making monetary payments to the victim.
Q8) What are the responsibilities of the three different branches of government (legislative, judicial, and executive) regarding sentencing?
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Chapter 15: Sentencing Decisions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are normal crimes? What are the two most important factors in determining normal penalties?
Q2) Factors such as young age, lack of mental capacity, and lower social stability may have an influence on sentencing and are called
A)mitigating factors.
B)positive and negative sanctions.
C)latent and patent considerations.
D)exacerbating and exculpatory factors.
Q3) What are the most recent changes by the U.S.Supreme Court regarding federal sentencing guidelines?
Q4) Regarding gender-based differences in sentencing outcomes, the evil woman hypothesis focuses on
A)traditional sex role expectations.
B)treating women like children.
C)treating women the same as men.
D)traditional female crimes.
Q5) What were the main objectives of changes in sentencing structures beginning in the 1960s? What were the major consequences of these changes?
Q6) How has the U.S.Supreme Court limited sentencing guidelines?
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Juvenile Courts
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some proponents of the crime control model of criminal justice go as far as to argue that it is time to abolish the juvenile court altogether.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A juvenile court trial is referred to as a(n) _____ hearing.
Q3) What was the charge against Gerald Gault?
A)making a lewd phone call
B)Murder
C)stealing a car
D)armed robbery
Q4) What are the different ways that a juvenile may be transferred to adult court?
Q5) The three major categories of juvenile court cases are delinquency, status offenses, and children in need of supervision.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Juveniles accused of _____ offenses, or who have a history of repeated offenses, may be tried as adults.
Q7) Reverse waivers allow a juvenile to _____ the criminal court to transfer jurisdiction to a juvenile court.
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