Comparative Government Test Questions
Course Introduction
Comparative Government explores the fundamental principles, structures, and functions of political systems across the world. The course introduces students to key concepts in political science, such as regime types, institutional frameworks, political culture, and policy-making processes. By examining case studies from democracies, authoritarian states, and hybrid systems, students learn how different countries address challenges related to governance, representation, and accountability. The curriculum emphasizes comparative analysis to understand the impact of historical, cultural, social, and economic factors on governments, fostering critical thinking about the similarities and differences among political systems globally.
Recommended Textbook
Struggle for Democracy 2012 Election Edition 11th Edition by Edward S. Greenberg
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Chapter 1: Democracy and American Politics
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what type of situation would you recommend direct democracy over representative democracy? Why? Give an example.
Answer: An ideal response will:
1. Note that direct democracy requires that people are able to meet regularly to discuss issues.
2. Discuss how direct democracy may be more appropriate in small communities, areas such as New England towns where participation is encouraged, and schools and local communities. It is more likely that these citizens can meet regularly, and also be reasonably informed on issues.
Q2) If __________ are to be useful as a way to keep government leaders responsive and responsible, they must be conducted in a fashion that is free and fair.
Answer: elections
Q3) The form of political decision making in which policies are decided on the basis of what a majority of the people want is known as __________.
Answer: majority rule
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Chapter 2: The Constitution
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of "stay acts" was to __________.
A) block tariffs between states
B) delegitimize British rule
C) halt formation of militia
D) protect fledgling banks
E) stop farm foreclosures
Answer: E
Q2) The publication of which of the following galvanized the colonists' belief that reconciliation with Great Britain was impossible?
A) American Cousin
B) Articles of Confederation
C) Common Sense
D) Federalist No. 10
E) Revolution
Answer: C
Q3) The main weakness of the Articles of Confederation was the lack of a strong national government.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Federalism: States and Nation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Devolution was particularly strong during the 1990s.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Explain why today's federalism is or is not an effective form of government for the United States. Be specific in supporting your argument.
Answer: An ideal response will:
1. Form a coherent argument with specific support.
2. Explain that the United States has a large and heterogeneous population with significant regional differences. A pro-federalist argument may state that the federalist system allows a large and diverse population to have unity without requiring uniformity; an anti-federalist or earlier federalist argument might highlight a removed or ineffective federal bureaucracy or a failure to address regional differences.
3. Address problem-solving by state and national government.
4. Discuss issues of security and commerce.
Q3) The __________ position holds that the Constitution created a system in which the national government is supreme relative to the states.
Answer: nationalist
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Chapter 4: The Structural Foundations of American
Government and Politics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What regions have benefited the most from shifting political power in the last few decades?
A) East and Midwest
B) Great Lakes and Pacific Northwest
C) Mountain and Midwest
D) Northeast and Southwest
E) South and West
Q2) What kinds of challenges does globalization pose for labor unions?
Q3) Which of the following makes typical Americans the most nervous?
A) capitalism
B) democracy
C) globalization
D) industrialization
E) mass production
Q4) China currently has the largest economy in the world, as measured by GDP.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An American is more likely to live in poverty than is a Frenchman.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Public Opinion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it problematic to use the Internet to conduct public opinion polls?
Q2) For the most part, polling on the Internet falls prey to the problem of __________ sampling.
Q3) What was the principal concern of James Madison, Alexander Hamilton, and other Founders of our national government with respect to public opinion?
A) that public opinion would undermine the supremacy of the legislature
B) that public opinion would be susceptible to radical and frequent shifts
C) that public opinion would too closely mirror public policies
D) that public opinion would be immoveable in times of crisis
E) that public opinion would lead the people to prefer policies inconsistent with presidential power
Q4) Of the following events, which would political scientists consider least likely to have a generational effect on people's political outlooks?
A) the Great Depression
B) the civil rights movement
C) the 9/11 terrorist attacks
D) the incidence of childhood leukemia
E) the Reagan Revolution
Q5) Compare and contrast the different agents of political socialization.
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Chapter 6: The News Media
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define "media framing." How does media framing of poverty affect American attitudes about its cause?
Q2) Which of the following accurately describes recent changes in how news is reported?
A) A growing diversity of news outlets conveys news originating from a growing number of sources.
B) A growing diversity of news outlets conveys news originating from fewer and fewer sources.
C) A shrinking diversity of news outlets conveys news originating from a growing number of sources.
D) A shrinking diversity of news outlets conveys new originating from fewer and fewer sources.
E) There is a consolidation of media ownership and an increase in the number of foreign correspondents.
Q3) If you were an operative on a political campaign, what would you do to make stories about your campaign and candidate newsworthy?
Q4) According to the authors, what aspects of the mainstream media fuel Americans' political cynicism? What is the result of increased public cynicism?
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Chapter 7: Interest Groups and Business Organizations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most scholars believe that sub-governments/iron triangles are becoming more important in American government.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One way that interest groups can influence court cases they are interested in is by filing a(n) __________.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of an advocacy group?
A) an environmental group
B) a corporation
C) a professional association
D) a group representing state governments
E) a labor union
Q4) An interest group filing an amicus curiae brief is an example of __________.
A) grassroots or outside lobbying
B) how interest groups influence elections
C) lobbying an executive branch agency
D) how groups influence the president
E) lobbying the judicial branch
Q5) In __________, James Madison expressed concerns about the harmful effects of factions.
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Chapter 8: Social Movements
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Sample Questions
Q1) In February 1838, abolitionist __________ addressed the Massachusetts legislature and presented a petition against slavery with an estimated 20,000 signatures from women of the state.
Q2) Social movements are often successful because they have access to interest groups, PACs, lobbyists, and campaign contributors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Great Depression ultimately led to the creation of new majorities, in the form of labor unions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Declaration of Independence begins, "We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal . . . ." What two groups discussed in the chapter obviously were not meant to be included in that group? How did each of these groups obtain more equality? Who was important to each respective movement? Did these movements overlap and draw upon each other at any point?
Q5) Social movements are different from __________, which last longer and are more organized, but social movements often lead to their formation.
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Chapter 9: Political Parties
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do voter attitudes serve as a barrier to minor parties in government?
A) Americans increasingly identify as Republican or Democrat.
B) Americans overwhelmingly favor a two-party system.
C) Americans often believe a minor-party vote is a wasted vote.
D) Americans fear the federal penalty for breaking Duverger's law.
E) Americans largely fail to realize the barrier is merely psychological.
Q2) One reason for the tensions and bitter disputes in government today is the decline in the number of moderates within the political parties.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An active partisan is a person who claims to be independent but consistently favors one party over another.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Gridlock is least likely to occur when the government is __________, since then political party loyalty helps to overcome the constitutionally designed conflict between the different branches of government.
Q5) The __________ is the site for the writing of the party platform every four years.
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Chapter 10: Voting, Campaigns, and Elections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most recent candidate to win the presidency without winning the popular vote was __________.
Q2) In a prospective voting model, voters are interested in what government will do
A) fiscally
B) on social issues
C) about education
D) at the state level
E) in the future
Q3) Describe four ways in which American elections are different from those in most other democracies.
Q4) New Hampshire holds its primary in the month of __________.
Q5) What recent phenomenon in voting was designed to increase turnout?
A) Internet voting
B) absentee voting
C) early voting
D) digital voting
E) proxy voting
Q6) Explain the issues with Latino voter mobilization. What should be done to increase Latino voter turnout?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Congress
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Sample Questions
Q1) A special joint committee created to reconcile differences in bills passed by the House and Senate is called a(n) __________ committee.
A) arbitration
B) conference
C) joint
D) select/special
E) standing
Q2) Which of the following occurs at a party conference (or party caucus)?
A) All the members of a political party in the House or Senate meet to select its leaders and approve committee assignments.
B) Party members debate ways to close the bipartisan divide between Republicans and Democrats in Congress.
C) Party members react against the legislative objectives for the upcoming session of Congress.
D) The members of the minority party in the Senate select the president pro tempore.
E) The members of the minority party select the Speaker of the House.
Q3) Describe majority-minority districts and explain their purpose(s).
Q4) After the Speaker, the next most powerful person in the House is the __________.
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Chapter 12: The Presidency
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Sample Questions
Q1) Congress can remove a president through __________.
A) veto
B) executive privilege
C) executive order
D) impeachment
E) filibuster
Q2) Which word best describes the language used by the Framers to describe the office of the president?
A) exact
B) static
C) deferential
D) florid
E) vague
Q3) Describe the major ways in which the presidency has changed since the beginning of the twentieth century. Be sure to include a description of the changes and the reasons why these changes occurred. Include a conclusion to summarize your key points.
Q4) What is the president's power to convene Congress? Why would this be more significant in the early years of the presidency?
Q5) What is an executive order and what is a reason that a president would use it?
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Chapter 13: The Executive Branch
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the main purpose served by government corporations?
A) generating profit for the federal government
B) providing services not fully trusted to the private sector
C) breaking up monopolies
D) expanding international trade
E) regulating sectors of the economy
Q2) Which list of traits best describes a bureaucracy?
A) small organization, no hierarchy of offices, obscure chain of command
B) large organization, hierarchy of offices, clear chain of command
C) large organization, volunteer workers, clear chain of command
D) small organization, volunteer workers, obscure chain of command
E) large organization, no hierarchy of offices, clear chain of command
Q3) Which of the following was a consequence of the spoils, or patronage, system?
A) The federal bureaucracy was staffed with people who lacked expertise.
B) There was low turnover in the federal bureaucracy between presidential administrations.
C) Only wealthy people could get jobs in the federal bureaucracy.
D) There was less government corruption.
E) Voter turnout in presidential elections decreased.
Q4) Critique or defend the constitutional doctrine known as the unitary executive.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Courts
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the debate over judicial activism. Examine the five ways it is expressed by comparing the proponents and critics of each approach.
Q2) A conservative retrenchment of the Court in the early 1990s began to reconsider federalism in favor of __________ rights.
Q3) For a case to be heard in the Supreme Court, a minimum of how many justices must vote to hear the case?
A) one
B) four
C) five
D) nine
E) six
Q4) Gideon v. Wainwright established the right of all criminal defendants to have a(n) __________ at trial.
Q5) Describe the difference between original and appellate jurisdiction.
Q6) How does public opinion influence the Supreme Court?
Q7) The circuit courts hear appeals from the __________ courts.
Q8) Litigants have an automatic right of appeal to the Supreme Court.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Civil Liberties: the Struggle for Freedom
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Sample Questions
Q1) How has the Supreme Court responded to religion in public schools?
Q2) Selective incorporation makes the protections from the Bill of Rights applicable to the states through which of the following amendments?
A) Fourth
B) Fifth
C) Sixth
D) Tenth
E) Fourteenth
Q3) In matters of religion, the free exercise clause protects individuals from which of the following?
A) discrimination
B) persecution
C) governmental intrusion
D) segregation
E) dissenting opinions
Q4) How did the Marshall Court focus on the contract clause and how did that focus impact jurisprudence?
Q5) How has the Supreme Court applied the exclusionary rule?
Q6) Why did the Supreme Court briefly end capital punishment in 1972?
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Chapter 16: Civil Rights: the Struggle for Political Equality
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Sample Questions
Q1) How has the Equal Rights Amendment affected women's civil rights?
A) It has ensured that men and women are treated equally in the workplace.
B) It has ensured that the courts evaluate gender discrimination using the strict scrutiny test.
C) It has eliminated gender discrimination in the military.
D) It solidified the civil rights women had earlier won through legal victories.
E) It has had little effect because it was not formally adopted.
Q2) The __________ is the government agency that hears complaints filed by those who believe they have been sexually harassed at work.
Q3) What are civil rights? What does the Constitution say about them? Why did the idea of civil rights appear comparatively late in the development of the United States?
Q4) Brown v. Board of Education overturned the __________ doctrine.
Q5) What did the Supreme Court decide in Loving v. Virginia (1967)? What was public opinion on the issue before and after this ruling? Does this say anything about whether the federal government should be a role model for the promotion of civil rights for gays and lesbians by approving same-sex marriage?
Q6) The __________ was enacted in 1990 and is designed to protect the civil rights of disabled Americans.
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Chapter 17: Domestic Policies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What has been the U.S. government's recent trend regarding budget deficits and the national debt, and what factors are driving this trend?
Q2) The economic theory of regulation holds that most regulation results from pressure by public interest groups to protect citizens.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe three changes that could be made to Social Security to improve its long-term solvency by increasing the revenue the program collects. Evaluate these reforms and determine which of the three you think the public would find most palatable.
Q4) What has happened to the poverty rate in the United States since the 1970s?
A) It has steeply declined.
B) It has trended downward.
C) It has steeply increased.
D) It has trended upward.
E) It has remained relatively constant.
Q5) What is the Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP)? Whom does it cover? How is it funded? How has health insurance coverage for poor children changed since the program was enacted in 1997?
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Chapter 18: Foreign Policy and National Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) The United States and the Soviet Union were the main adversaries in the Cold War.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The war and occupation in Iraq and the continuing struggle in Afghanistan dampened much of the initial enthusiasm for the unilateral position advocated by George W. Bush for most of his presidency.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Outline a possible diplomatic solution to a foreign policy crisis involving North Korea's nuclear program. How difficult would it be for the United States and North Korea to reach such a solution?
Q4) Which Cabinet-level department has primary responsibility for U.S. foreign policy?
A) Department of Defense
B) Department of Justice
C) Department of the Interior
D) Department of Homeland Security
E) Department of State
Q5) How is terrorism fundamentally different from traditional military action?
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