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Community Pharmacy Practice explores the essential roles and responsibilities of pharmacists within retail and community pharmacy settings. The course covers topics such as patient counseling, prescription processing, medication dispensing, health promotion, over-the-counter recommendations, and collaboration with other healthcare professionals. Students will develop communication and problem-solving skills necessary to address the health needs of diverse populations, ensure medication safety, and support optimal therapeutic outcomes in community environments. Practical case studies and experiential learning components are integrated to prepare students for real-world community pharmacy operations and patient-centered care.
Recommended Textbook
Mosbys Pharmacy Technician Principles and Practice 4th Edition by Elsevier
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895 Verified Questions
895 Flashcards
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Q1) The benefits of certification for pharmacy technicians include:
A)Increased standard of education
B)Increased salary
C)Increased trust by pharmacists
D)All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) The first pharmacy technicians:
A)Worked in hospitals
B)Worked in drug stores
C)Were enlisted military personnel
D)Were pharmacists' wives
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is not a specialty certification offered through the National Pharmacy Technician Association (NPTA) for pharmacy technicians?
A)Sterile products (intravenous [IV] products)
B)Chemotherapy
C)Counseling
D)Compounding
Answer: C
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Q1) Drug errors can be reported to:
A)MedWatch
B)The Joint Commission (TJC)
C)United States Pharmacopeia (USP)
D)DEA
Answer: A
Q2) The purchase of pseudoephedrine is limited to:
A)3.6 g per calendar day
B)9 g per 30 days from a retailer
C)7.5 g per 30 days by mail order
D)All of the above
Answer: D
Q3) Individual states cannot establish which of the following?
A)Storage of certain controlled substances
B)Record keeping of certain controlled substances
C)OTC status of some schedule C-V medications
D)Schedule under which a drug should be placed
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term used for a hospital pharmacy?
A)Closed-door pharmacy
B)Inpatient pharmacy
C)Institutional pharmacy
D)Outpatient pharmacy
Answer: B
Q2) Which one of the following tasks is not considered a nondiscretionary duty for a pharmacy technician?
A)Managing the inventory
B)Counseling patients
C)Billing
D)Stocking shelves
Answer: B
Q3) Job sites for pharmacy technicians include:
A)Hospital, retail, and long-term care pharmacies
B)Prisons
C)Insurance and software companies
D)All of the above
Answer: D

Page 5
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Q1) Which words in the following sentence should be emphasized for proper communication with a patient? "If you will wait a moment, I'll get the information you need."
A)If
B)Moment
C)Wait
D)None should be emphasized
Q2) The communication cycle consists of a sender, a receiver, a message, various channels of communications, and the ______________.
A)Listener
B)Feedback
C)Talker
D)Communicator
Q3) When answering a telephone call, the technician should:
A)Identify his or her name and title.
B)Carefully listen to the caller.
C)Decide whether to forward the call to a pharmacist.
D)All of the above should be performed.
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Q1) Which one of the following statements is not true? Suspensions:
A)Must always be shaken.
B)Are available for many routes of administration.
C)Have very small solid particles suspended in a base solution.
D)Are a good choice for children and some seniors.
Q2) Which of the following is not a type of capsule?
A)Gelatin
B)Pulvule
C)Caplet
D)Spansule
Q3) Dosage forms appropriate for children include:
A)Liquids
B)Spansules
C)Chewable tablets
D)All of the above
Q4) PO is the abbreviation for:
A)By mouth
B)Parenterally
C)Topically
D)Rectally
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is 12:30 AM in military time?
A)1200
B)0000
C)1230
D)0030
Q2) What is 99 in Roman numerals?
A)LXXXXIX
B)CIX
C)XCIX
D)XCVIIII
Q3) Which of the following is not a true statement regarding a drop factor?
A)Drop factor is the size of drops coming through the tubing.
B)It is measured in drops per milliliter.
C)Drop factor is specific to the tubing used.
D)It is measured in drops per minute (gtt/min).
Q4) One fluid ounce is equivalent to _____ milliliters.
A)5
B)10
C)15
D)30
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Q1) A formulary is a list of:
A)Approved drugs to be stocked
B)Drugs covered by an insurance company
C)Drugs that can be compounded in a pharmacy
D)A and B
Q2) OBC:
A)Is a method of pricing drugs.
B)Identifies therapeutic equivalence.
C)Stands for Orange Book code.
D)B and C
Q3) The chemical structure of a medication is:
A)How the medication is shaped for marketing
B)The shape of the molecules and their location to one another in the active compound
C)What active ingredients and fillers are in the medication
D)None of the above
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Q1) What beyond-use date should be assigned to a newly filled prescription of furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg #30?
A)Same date as the expiration date on the stock bottle
B)One year from the date it was repackaged
C)Six months from the date it was filled or the manufacturer's expiration date, whichever is earlier
D)One year from the date it was filled or the manufacturer's expiration date, whichever is earlier
Q2) Which of the following statements is(are) true of the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005?
A)A purchaser must be at least 16 years old to purchase pseudoephedrine-containing products.
B)The Act led to the classification of behind-the-counter (BTC) medications.
C)Sales of pseudoephedrine-containing products must be made under the supervision of a pharmacist.
D)All of the above statements are true.
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Q1) A hospital pharmacy that is not open 24 hours a day has which of the following options for filling after-hours medication orders?
A)Allow limited access to medications by specific nursing personnel.
B)Have an on-call pharmacist.
C)Have an off-site pharmacy that can deliver medications.
D)All of the above.
Q2) An ASAP order:
A)Takes precedence over all other orders.
B)Should be delivered within 5 to 15 minutes.
C)Should be quickly processed.
D)Can mean the difference between life and death.
Q3) Which of the following criteria is(are) used to distinguish between types of hospitals?
A)Size
B)Profit or nonprofit
C)Types of services provided
D)All of the above
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Q1) Pharmacy benefit management (PBM) companies hire pharmacy technicians to:
A)Process claims for members according to their benefits.
B)Provide benefit information to patients.
C)Prepare mail-order prescriptions.
D)Perform all of the above tasks.
Q2) Which of the following is(are) required for a pharmacy technician to teach at an accredited college?
A)National certification
B)Retail and hospital pharmacy experience
C)An associate or bachelor's degree
D)All of the above
Q3) For which type of pharmacy technician position is it preferred that the technician have a bachelor's degree in computer science?
A)Pharmacy technician educator
B)Pharmacy informatics technician
C)Nuclear pharmacy technician
D)Medication reconciliation technician
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Q1) On April 14, 2015, 1000 low-dose (81 mg) aspirin with a manufacturer's expiration date of December 2017 are unit dosed. What BUD should be assigned?
A)October 14, 2015
B)October 31, 2015
C)April 14, 2016
D)December 14, 2016
Q2) When combining two or more ingredients that have different melting points, the ingredients are:
A)Placed in a container and melted together.
B)Melted from the lowest to the highest melting point.
C)Melted from the highest to the lowest melting point.
D)Mixed; the order of mixing is not important.
Q3) Which of the following statements is(are) true regarding a class A balance?
A)Class A balance is also called a torsion or class III balance.
B)Class A balance is required by most states' boards of pharmacy.
C)Class A balance uses special milligram and gram weights for counterbalance.
D)All of the above statements are true.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A room that has a lower pressure than surrounding rooms is called a ___________ pressure room.
A)Reverse
B)Negative
C)Positive
D)Forward
Q2) Work in a horizontal flow hood should be performed at least _____ inches inside the hood.
A)4
B)6
C)8
D)10
Q3) What is the last part of an IV hood to be cleaned?
A)Sides
B)Top
C)Filter
D)Work surface
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Q1) Some insurance policies require that the person pay a monthly:
A)Premium
B)Deductible
C)Copay
D)Stipend
Q2) The amount to be charged to the insured patient for a prescription is decided by the
A)Pharmacy
B)Patient
C)Insurance company
D)None of the above
Q3) Which of the following types of patients would not be eligible for Medicare coverage?
A)Disabled patients
B)Senior citizens
C)Dialysis patients
D)Healthy babies
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Q1) The ISMP focuses on all of the following except:
A)Type of error
B)How the error occurred
C)Recommendations on preventing a similar error
D)Placing blame on the appropriate individual
Q2) Why does TJC require hospitals and institutions to prepack all liquid doses in oral syringes or containers?
A)Continually opening bulk containers has led to an increased risk of contamination.
B)Patient-specific instructions are not denoted on the bulk medication; therefore the likelihood of an inappropriate dose increases when nurses pour medicine from bulk containers.
C)The pharmacy must maintain control over each dose to ensure accuracy.
D)All of the above are reasons..
Q3) How often is it recommended for a technician to check a medication during the filling process?
A)Twice
B)Three times
C)Only if he or she thinks something is wrong
D)As many times as he or she can
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Q1) Which of the following ions is(are) involved in nerve transmission?
A)Potassium
B)Sodium
C)Iodide
D)A and B
Q2) Methylphenidate for the treatment of ADHD is available in a variety of dosage forms including:
A)Capsules and tablets
B)Oral solution
C)Transdermal patch
D)All of the above
Q3) All benzodiazepine medications are:
A)C-II
B)C-III
C)C-IV
D)Not scheduled
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Q1) The prime regulatory mechanism used by the endocrine system to maintain homeostasis is:
A)Endocrine mechanism
B)Negative feedback
C)Exocrine mechanism
D)Homeostasis feedback
Q2) Which one of the following is primarily considered a mineralocorticoid?
A)Methylprednisolone
B)Hydrocortisone
C)Prednisone
D)Fludrocortisone acetate
Q3) Which oral hypoglycemic agent is frequently used in combination products?
A)Carbose
B)Metformin
C)Pioglitazone
D)Sitagliptin
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Q1) Which of the following osteoporosis agents can be intravenously (IV) administered?
A)Actonel
B)Boniva
C)Fosamax
D)A and B
Q2) What organ is affected by an overdose of acetaminophen?
A)Kidney
B)Liver
C)Heart
D)Bladder
Q3) Osteoarthritis is considered to be a(an):
A)Autoimmune disease
B)Degenerative joint disease
C)Musculoskeletal disease
D)A and B
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Q1) A frequent, annoying side effect of ACE inhibitors that causes some users to switch to a different antihypertensive medication is:
A)Diarrhea
B)Dry, hacking cough
C)GI upset
D)Nausea
Q2) The only artery(ies) that carry(ies) deoxygenated blood is(are) the:
A)Aorta
B)Coronary arteries
C)Pulmonary arteries
D)Carotid arteries
Q3) One annoying side effect of some niacin formulations is:
A)Cramping
B)Diarrhea
C)Flushing
D)Excessive urination
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Q1) MDI stands for:
A)Multiple-drug inclusion
B)Many dosage increments
C)Metered-dose inhaler
D)Multidose inhaler
Q2) The functions of the respiratory system include all except:
A)Maintaining blood pH balance
B)Oxygenating the blood
C)Removing carbon dioxide
D)Removing excess sodium
Q3) Which of the following is not a combination product?
A)Nasacort AQ
B)Combivent
C)Advair
D)Symbicort
Q4) Which of the following agents can be used as an expectorant?
A)Guaifenesin
B)Pseudoephedrine
C)Water
D)A and C
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Q1) Agents that decrease the production of acid in the stomach include:
A)PPIs
B)Antacids
C)Histamine2 (H )-antagonists
D)A and C
Q2) The chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) can be activated by:
A)Smell, pain, and motion
B)Emotions
C)Chemotherapeutic agents
D)All of the above
Q3) What is the primary danger of untreated diarrhea?
A)Feeling uncomfortable
B)Developing an infection
C)Dehydration from fluid and electrolyte loss
D)Giving it to someone else
Q4) All of the following are functions of the GI system except:
A)Absorption
B)Digestion
C)Distribution
D)Excretion
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Q1) Which of the following is not a loop diuretic?
A)bumetanide (Bumex)
B)torsemide (Demadex)
C)furosemide (Lasix)
D)spironolactone (Aldactone)
Q2) Agents to treat anemia associated with kidney failure include:
A)Ferrous sulfate to increase the production of red blood cells
B)Erythropoietin to increase the production of red blood cells
C)Ferrous sulfate to increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the hemoglobin in red blood cells
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is not a cause of kidney stones?
A)Genetic predisposition
B)Gout
C)Excessive dietary intake of calcium
D)Hyperparathyroidism
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Q1) Cigarette smokers who take oral contraceptives have an increased risk of:
A)Breakthrough bleeding
B)STDs
C)Getting pregnant
D)Serious cardiovascular events
Q2) Because anabolic steroids that are used for infertility and hypogonadism have the potential for abuse, they are schedule _______ controlled substances.
A)C-II
B)C-III
C)C-IV
D)C-V
Q3) Erectile dysfunction (ED) is caused by a(n):
A)Lack of blood flow to the penis
B)Lack of desire
C)Lack of sperm
D)Abundance of estrogen
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Q1) What agents contain antibodies that can neutralize dangerous toxins?
A)Antitoxins
B)Antivenins
C)Antibiotics
D)A and B
Q2) Which of the following medications for rheumatoid arthritis can be orally administered?
A)Methotrexate
B)Etanercept
C)Adalimumab
D)Abatecept
Q3) Why is it important for a pharmacy technician to have a record of up-to-date immunizations?
A)Many hospitals require proof of childhood immunizations before hiring technicians.
B)Many hospitals require proof of childhood immunizations before providing externships.
C)Records can provide information to avoid numerous blood tests to prove previous immunizations.
D)All of the above statements apply.
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Q1) What is GERD?
A)Gastric exertion reflux disease
B)Gastric esophagus reflux disorder
C)Gastroesophageal reflux disease
D)Gastroesophageal regurgitation disease
Q2) PPIs used to inhibit gastric acid secretion are:
A)Positive proton inhibitors
B)Proton producing inhibitors
C)Proton pump inhibitors
D)None of the above
Q3) What is the abbreviation for ointment?
A)O
B)Ung
C)Ungu
D)Oin
Q4) What medication is considered the first-line therapy for bacterial sinusitis?
A)Amoxicillin
B)Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
C)Azithromycin
D)Clarithromycin
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Q1) Topical salicylic acid and benzoyl peroxide preparations can be used in the treatment of:
A)Acne
B)Impetigo
C)Psoriasis
D)A and B
Q2) Which auxiliary label(s) is(are) needed on a prescription for tetracycline for acne?
A)Do not take with dairy products.
B)Do not take within 4 hours of antacids or iron products.
C)Avoid sunlight.
D)All of the above auxiliary labels are needed.
Q3) What instructions should accompany a prescription for fluorouracil (5-FU)?
A)Apply using gloves or a nonmetal applicator.
B)Wash hands after each application.
C)Avoid excessive sun exposure.
D)All of the above instructions should accompany the prescription for 5-FU.
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Q1) What is the primary treatment for iron-deficiency anemia?
A)Spinach
B)Blood transfusions
C)Oral iron supplements
D)Intravenous (IV) iron
Q2) Desmopressin (DDAVP) is available in all of the following dosage forms except:
A)IV and subcutaneous
B)Topical
C)Intranasal
D)Oral
Q3) Which of the following statements is(are) true of filgrastim (Neupogen)?
A)Filgrastim is administered orally.
B)It should not be shaken before administering.
C)Filgrastim is used to treat neutropenia.
D)B and C are true statements.
Q4) What is the term for an increase in the total cell mass of the blood?
A)Erythropoiesis
B)Hemophilia
C)Polycythemia
D)Leukopenia
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Q1) Rebound congestion can occur with:
A)Afrin
B)Nasalcrom
C)Benadryl
D)Claritin
Q2) Which organ is at risk from an overdose of acetaminophen?
A)Lungs
B)Liver
C)Heart
D)Kidney
Q3) What is the most common ingredient in OTC acne preparations?
A)Miconazole
B)Tolnaftate
C)Benzoyl peroxide
D)Hydrocortisone
Q4) OTC medications that are also available as prescription formulations often have:
A)Lower strengths
B)Different indications for use
C)Different active ingredients
D)A and B
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Q1) Which of the following would not be considered traditional medicine?
A)X-ray imaging
B)Laboratory tests
C)Chiropractor visits
D)Physician visits
Q2) Echinacea is known by all of the following names except:
A)Sampson root
B)Narrow-leafed purple coneflower
C)Red sunflower
D)Soy
Q3) Black cohosh may increase the effects of:
A)Esterified estrogens
B)Diuretics
C)Antiinflammatories
D)Analgesics
Q4) Aromatherapy is based on:
A)Changing bad habits
B)Adjusting the spirit
C)Using various blends of fragrances to relieve certain ailments
D)None of the above
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