Community Pharmacy Practice
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Community Pharmacy Practice explores the essential roles and responsibilities of pharmacists within community settings, focusing on the safe and effective dispensing of medications, patient counseling, health promotion, and disease prevention. The course emphasizes communication skills, ethical considerations, and the management of pharmacy operations, including inventory control and regulatory compliance. Students will learn to assess and meet the healthcare needs of diverse populations, collaborate with other healthcare professionals, and provide medication therapy management to optimize patient outcomes in a community environment.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology for Pharmacy Technicians 1st Edition by Kathy Moscou
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43 Chapters
867 Verified Questions
867 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Fundamentals of Pharmacology
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) C-I
Answer: A
Q2) C-IV
Answer: C
Q3) C-II
Answer: B
Q4) The aim of drug therapy is to _____ disease.
A)diagnose
B)treat
C)cure
D)all of the above
Answer: D
Q5) Erythropoietin is an example of a biopharmaceutical.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q6) calcium channel blocker
Answer: C
Q7) b-adrenergic blocking drug
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Principles of Pharmacology
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19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Albumin has the greatest affinity for _____ acids and _____ drugs.
A)weak,lipophilic
B)strong,hydrophilic
C)weak,hydrophobic
D)strong,lipophobic
Answer: C
Q2) The time it takes for a drug to reach the concentration necessary to produce a therapeutic effect is called the _____.
A)duration of action
B)mechanism of action
C)onset of action
D)length of action
Answer: C
Q3) _____ and _____ require lower doses of drug to produce therapeutic effects.
A)Infants,the elderly
B)Teenagers,the elderly
C)Children,adults
D)Infants,children
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Pharmacodynamics
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) undesired effects
Answer: A
Q2) Unexpected drug reactions are known as _____ reactions.
A)idiosyncratic
B)adverse
C)pharmacodynamic
D)dose-response
Answer: A
Q3) _____ is an example of a pure antagonist.
A)Naproxen
B)Niacin
C)Naloxone
D)Nifedipine
Answer: C
Q4) The dose-response curve shows the drug's relative _____ and _____.
A)efficacy and strength
B)efficacy and potency
C)potency and mechanism of action
D)sensitivity and efficacy
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Drug Interactions and Medication Errors
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drug interactions may increase or decrease drug side effects.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Medication errors typically occur in the process of _____.
A)ordering
B)transcribing
C)dispensing
D)all of the above
Q3) microgram
Q4) _____ juice is a powerful inhibitor of metabolic enzyme CYP3A4 and potentiates the effect of anticholesterol drugs like lovastatin.
A)grape
B)prune
C)orange
D)grapefruit
Q5) Confusing abbreviations can cause serious medication errors.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Zyprexa/Celexa
Q7) milliequivalent
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Chapter 5: Treatment of Anxiety
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is labeled for use in the treatment of panic disorder,social phobia,and post-traumatic stress disorder.
A)Clomipramine
B)Fluoxetine
C)Clonazepam
D)Sertraline
Q2) Hydroxyzine HCl and hydroxyzine pamoate are contraindicated in _____.
A)men with prostate disease
B)women with breast cancer
C)lactating women
D)a and c
Q3) diazepam
Q4) Benzodiazepines have a high degree of _____ solubility,which accounts for their rapid and complete absorption and enables the drugs to readily cross the blood-brain barrier.
A)lipid
B)water
C)blood
D)sodium
Q5) buspirone
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Chapter 6: Treatment of Depression
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Venlafaxine belongs to which class of drugs?
A)MAOI
B)SSRI
C)SNRI
D)TCA
Q2) All of the following are types of depressive disorders except _____.
A)schizophrenia
B)bipolar
C)dysthymia
D)clinical depression
Q3) Which statement is not true about lithium?
A)has a narrow therapeutic index
B)plasma levels should be monitored to avoid toxicity
C)has a slow onset of action
D)has a T 1/2 of 24 hours
Q4) Celexa
Q5) Minor depression is not called clinical depression.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Tofranil
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Treatment of Schizophrenia and Other Psychoses
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) ziprasidone
Q2) clozapine
Q3) Traditional neuroleptics are well absorbed in the following routes of administration except _____.
A)orally
B)rectally
C)parenterally
D)topically
Q4) Schizophrenia does not run in families.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cholecystokinin (CCK)is a(n)_____ neurotransmitter.
A)enzymatic
B)peptide
C)protein
D)lipoid
Q6) Traditional neuroleptics block dopamine at postsynaptic receptor sites.
A)True
B)False
Q7) quetiapine Page 9
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Page 10
Chapter 8: Treatment of Parkinsons Disease and Huntingtons Disease
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ are administered as adjunctive treatment of Parkinson's disease and to lessen drug-induced extrapyramidal symptoms.
A)Anticholinergics
B)Antipsychotics
C)Analgesics
D)Anticonvulsants
Q2) Huntington's disease is a progressive and degenerative disease of neurons that affects _____.
A)muscle movement
B)cognitive function
C)emotions
D)all of the above
Q3) Tasmar
Q4) Huntington's disease is primarily treated with drugs that decrease excessive _____ activity.
A)cholinergic
B)acetylcholinesterase
C)dopaminergic
D)norepinephrine
Q5) Mirapex
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Chapter 9: Treatment of Seizure Disorders
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Generalized seizures are categorized as _____.
A)tonic-clonic
B)myoclonic
C)petit mal
D)all of the above
Q2) GABA analog
Q3) Seizures are caused by a wide range of conditions that include _____.
A)injury
B)illness
C)have no known cause
D)all of the above
Q4) succinimide
Q5) Successful achievement of the therapeutic goal of seizure therapy is dependent on
A)correctly classifying the seizure type
B)selecting an appropriate drug for seizure type
C)preventing onset of a seizure
D)a and b
Q6) barbiturate
Q7) iminostilbene
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Chapter 10: Treatment of Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) The opioid antagonist naltrexone is also indicated for the treatment of _____.
A)opioid overdose
B)management of drug and alcohol dependence
C)help with withdrawal symptoms
D)all of the above
Q2) A patient using a patient-controlled analgesic device can get any amount of medication they need to control their pain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Left untreated,tension headaches may last for 30 minutes to up to 7 days.
A)True
B)False
Q4) NSAIDs have _____ properties.
A)analgesic
B)antiinflammatory
C)antipyretic properties
D)all of the above
Q5) mixed agonists/antagonists
Q6) opioid antagonists
Q7) opioid agonists
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Chapter 11: Treatment of Migraine Headache and Alzheimers Disease
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) sumatriptan
Q2) Which of the following does not trigger a migraine?
A)release of vasoactive neuropeptides
B)clumping platelets causing release of serotonin
C)release of neurotransmitter norepinephrine
D)release of prostaglandins
Q3) Alzheimer's disease causes damage to the _____,the part of the brain that is involved in memory.
A)cerebellum
B)hippocampus
C)medulla
D)thalamus
Q4) When using a triptan to treat a migraine,which route of administration produces the best results?
A)subcutaneous injection
B)intranasal administration
C)oral formulation
D)any of the above
Q5) naratriptan
Q6) donepezil Page 14
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Page 15
Chapter 12: Treatment of Sleep Disorders and Attention
Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the least common sleep disorder?
A)restless legs syndrome
B)sleep apnea
C)narcolepsy
D)insomnia
Q2) Which condition is most associated with sleep apnea?
A)an interruption in the supply of oxygen during sleep
B)an interruption of blood flow to the brain during sleep
C)obstruction of air passageways during sleep
D)frequent nightmares
Q3) The primary treatment for narcolepsy is _____.
A)anti-seizure medications
B)stimulants
C)tricyclic antidepressants
D)any of the above
Q4) Narcolepsy is the most common sleep disorder.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 13: Neuromuscular Blockade
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) drugs used to reverse the effects of neuromuscular blocking drugs
Q2) _____ is the only drug in the depolarizing blocker class
A)Ethosuximide
B)Succinylcholine
C)Acetylcholine
D)Mysoline
Q3) Most neuromuscular blocking drugs are poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract;therefore,they are administered ____.
A)topically
B)parenterally
C)transdermally
D)a and c
Q4) The process of neuromuscular transmission begins with the release of _____ from vesicles located in the motor neuron endplate
A)acetylcholine
B)anticholinesterase
C)norepinephrine
D)GABA
Q5) nonpolarizing neuromuscular drugs
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Chapter 14: Treatment of Muscle Spasms
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Sample Questions
Q1) People who have _____ exhibit predominantly negative symptoms of spasticity.
A)muscle strain
B)amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
C)multiple sclerosis
D)hypertonia
Q2) Tizanidine
Q3) Drugs used in the treatment of spasticity are grouped according to _____.
A)their site of action
B)centrally acting
C)peripheral acting
D)all of the above
Q4) Positive symptoms associated with spasticity include muscle weakness,decreased endurance,and reduction in the capacity to make voluntary muscle movements.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cyproheptadine
Q6) Baclofen
Q7) GABA is the major excitatory neurotransmitter in the nervous system.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Treatment of Autoimmune Diseases That Affect
the Musculoskeletal System
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An autoimmune disease occurs when the _____.
A)immune system turns against the parts of the body it is designed to protect
B)body attacks its own cells,thinking they are germs or a harmful substance
C)body manufactures cells to replace the ones it attacked
D)a and b
Q2) _____ levels are elevated in people that have systemic lupus erythematosus.
A)Antinuclear antibody (ANA)
B)Rheumatoid factor
C)Protein specific antigen
D)Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Q3) Drug therapy for autoimmune diseases is aimed at suppressing _____.
A)inflammation
B)pain
C)immune system response
D)all of the above
Q4) methotrexate
Q5) chloroquine
Q6) anakinra
Q7) methylprednisolone
Q8) Enbrel Page 19
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Page 20
Chapter 16: Treatment of Osteoporosis and Pagets Disease of the Bone
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bisphosphonates work by _____.
A)inhibiting osteoblast activity
B)interfering with recruitment,differentiation,and action of osteoclasts
C)inhibiting osteoclast activity
D)b and c
Q2) Which of the following drugs in not a nitrogen-containing bisphosphonate?
A)etidronate
B)alendronate
C)risedronate
D)pamidronate
Q3) Evista
Q4) Of the following substances of abuse,which one can produce osteoporosis?
A)cocaine
B)alcohol
C)smoking
D)none of the above
Q5) Zometa
Q6) Fosamax
Q7) Didronel
Q8) Aredia Page 21
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Page 22
Chapter 17: Treatment of Hyperuricemia and Gout
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common symptom associated with increased urate levels are _____.
A)nausea
B)pain
C)cramps
D)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following can hyperuricemia cause?
A)liver disease
B)kidney disease
C)worsening of preexisting kidney disease
D)b and c
Q3) Hyperuricemia can increase risk of coronary artery disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hyperuricemia is associated with increased insulin resistance and _____.
A)diabetes
B)obesity
C)hypertension
D)a and b
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Page 23
Chapter 18: Treatment of Glaucoma
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) brimonidine
Q2) timolol maleate
Q3) The most common form of glaucoma is closed angle glaucoma.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Tonometry is a diagnostic test that is performed to measure intraocular pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cholinergic agonists are indicated for the treatment of _____.
A)glaucoma
B)intraocular hypertension
C)production of miosis during surgery
D)all of the above
Q6) Latanoprost is a _____ that is used for its ability to promote drainage of accumulated levels of aqueous humor and reducing intraocular pressure.
A)cholinergic agonist
B)prostaglandin analog
C)ß-adrenergic antagonist
D)cholinesterase inhibitor
24
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Chapter 19: Treatment of Vertigo and Other Disorders of the Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carbamide peroxide 6.5% is the only approved agent for _____ removal.
A)earwax
B)fluid
C)bacteria
D)foreign material
Q2) Drug treatments for sudden sensorineural hearing loss include all of the following except _____.
A)glucocorticoids
B)vasoconstricting agents
C)plasma expanders
D)vasodilating agents
Q3) Otic drops should be warmed to room temperature before administering into the ear.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What type of disorder is vertigo?
A)balance
B)neural mismatch
C)sensory-conflict
D)all of the above
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Chapter 20: Treatment of Ophthalmic and Otic Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Conjunctivitis is not caused by _____.
A)allergies
B)virus
C)fungi
D)bacteria
Q2) Which of the following drugs is used to treat fusarium keratitis?
A)penicillin
B)natamycin
C)foscarnet
D)trifluridine
Q3) Which of the following is not true about uveitis?
A)It is a serious eye condition.
B)It can cause scarring of the eye.
C)There are two type of uveitis that affects the same part of the eye.
D)It can cause blindness if left untreated.
Q4) otitis externa
Q5) otitis media
Q6) conjunctivitis
Q7) toxocariasis
Q8) cytomegalovirus
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Chapter 21: Treatment of Angina
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common reason for the onset of angina is which of the following?
A)physical exertion
B)high-fat diet
C)smoking
D)drinking alcohol
Q2) An adverse reaction such as a fatal drop in blood pressure can occur when _____ (treatment for erectile dysfunction)are administered to patients who are taking nitroglycerin.
A)NSAIDs
B)ß-blockers
C)phosphodiesterase inhibitors
D)a and c
Q3) Pharmacological therapy for angina is administered to increase _____.
A)blood to the heart
B)oxygen supply to the heart
C)decrease the workload of the heart
D)all of the above
Q4) Nitroglycerin is lipid soluble and readily crosses cell membranes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Treatment of Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) Systolic blood pressure ranging between 120 and 139 mm Hg and diastolic blood pressure ranging between 80 and 89 mm Hg is defined as ____.
A)prehypertension
B)systolic hypertension
C)diastolic hypertension
D)none of the above
Q2) Which ACE inhibitor is a good choice for patients with decreased kidney function?
A)enalapril
B)fosinopril
C)quinapril
D)ramipril
Q3) bumetanide
Q4) Which class of diuretics can cause dehydration,hyponatremia (sodium loss),and electrolyte deficiency including hypokalemia (potassium loss)and hypochloremia (chloride loss)?
A)loop
B)thiazide
C)potassium-sparing
D)a and b
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Chapter 23: Treatment of Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) What can contribute to the onset or aggravation of heart failure?
A)disease
B)lifestyle
C)drugs
D)all of the above
Q2) What part(s)of the heart does heart failure affect?
A)left side of the heart
B)right side of the heart
C)atria only
D)both sides of the heart
Q3) furosemide
Q4) Digoxin may be administered along with other types of drugs?
A)ACE inhibitors
B)diuretics
C)ß-blockers
D)all of the above
Q5) Digoxin
Q6) Nifedipine
Q7) metoprolol
Q8) Enalapril
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Chapter 24: Treatment of Myocardial Infarction and Stroke
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Sample Questions
Q1) Only three thrombolytic agents are currently in use.They are _____.
A)alteplase,streptokinase,and tenecteplase
B)alteplase,streptokinase,and reteplase
C)alteplase,tenecteplase,and urokinase
D)urokinase,streptokinase,and reteplase
Q2) Which routes of administration can be used to administer heparin and low-molecular-weight heparin?
A)intravenous (IV)
B)intramuscular (IM)
C)subcutaneous (SQ)
D)a and c
Q3) Hemolysis is the medical term for stopping or flowing of blood.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Drugs that control the rate of clot formation and clot dissolution are classified as _____ and can prevent stroke and myocardial infarction.
A)anticoagulants
B)thrombolytics
C)antilipidemics
D)cardiolytics
Page 30
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Chapter 25: Treatment of Arrhythmia
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Sample Questions
Q1) All antiarrhythmic agents can cause other arrhythmias.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Class III agents
Q3) What is not one reason for why arrhythmias occur?
A)when the cardiac ion exchange channels function improperly
B)when inflammation is present
C)when cardiac blood vessels are dilated
D)when there is oxidative stress
Q4) Atrial flutter refers to a heart rate of 100 to 300 beats per minute.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In what type of patients is Class II antiarrhythmics (ß-blockers)contraindicated?
A)patients with asthma
B)patients diabetes
C)patients with heart failure
D)all of the above
Q6) digoxin and phenytoin
Q7) Class IV agents
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Chapter 26: Treatment of Gastroesophageal Reflux
Disease,laryngopharyngeal
Reflux and Peptic Ulcer Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)is a motility disorder associated with impaired digestion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Proton pump inhibitors are effective in treating GERD,LPR,and PUD because they _____.
A)decrease gastric acid
B)block histamine
C)decrease respiratory mucus
D)none of the above
Q3) _____ is currently the only prokinetic drug approved by the FDA.
A)Pantoprazole
B)Misoprostol
C)Metoclopramide
D)Sucralfate
Q4) Antacids are the oldest drugs used in the treatment of GERD and PUD.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Treatment of Irritable Bowel
Syndrome,ulcerative Colitis and Crohns Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are three common symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome,ulcerative colitis,and Crohn's disease?
A)bloating,constipation,cramping
B)abdominal pain,diarrhea,cramping
C)rectal bleeding,bloating,diarrhea
D)cramping,abdominal pain,bloating
Q2) Which of the following diseases is treated by administering serotonin receptor antagonists (5-HT and 5-HT ),antidiarrheals,laxatives,fiber supplements,and anticholinergics?
A)ulcerative colitis
B)irritable bowel syndrome
C)Crohn's disease
D)all of the above
Q3) How are the patients who have irritable bowel syndrome,ulcerative colitis,or Crohn's disease tested to confirm diagnosis?
A)sigmoidoscopy
B)proctoscopy
C)colonoscopy
D)jejunoscopy
Q4) infliximab
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Chapter 28: Treatment of Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prevalence of asthma in girls is 30% greater than in boys.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Budesonide
Q3) _____ is an example of an antimuscarinic,anticholinergic bronchodilator that is prescribed for short-term relief of asthma symptoms.
A)Albuterol
B)Ipratropium bromide
C)Prednisone
D)Salmeterol
Q4) Omalizumab is considered to be a(n)_____.
A)"add-on" therapy for patients whose asthma is not controlled with inhaled corticosteroids and ß2 adrenergic agonists
B)monoclonal antibody
C)treat for acute symptoms of asthma
D)a and b
Q5) Zafirlukast
Q6) Omalizumab
Q7) Salmeterol
34
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Chapter 29: Treatment of Allergies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a condition triggered by allergic rhinitis?
A)nasal itching
B)fever
C)sneezing
D)runny nose
Q2) Antihistamines that cross the blood-brain barrier cause what type of side effects?
A)decreased alertness
B)have no effect on the brain
C)sedation
D)a and c
Q3) The only mast cell stabilizer used intranasally is _____.
A)cromolyn sodium
B)fluticasone
C)budesonide
D)clemastine
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Chapter 30: Treatment of Prostate Disease and Erectile Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alprostadil is formulated for _____.
A)oral administration
B)intraurethral insertion
C)intracavernosal injection
D)b and c
Q2) Erectile dysfunction is managed by the administration of drugs that promote _____.
A)engorgement
B)slow loss of erection
C)relaxation and contraction of the smooth muscle in the testes
D)a and b
Q3) Which two classes of drugs are used to manage symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia?
A)ß-blockers
B) -blockers
C)5 -reductase inhibitors
D)5ß-reductase inhibitors
E)b and c
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Chapter 31: Treatment of Fluid and Electrolyte Disorders
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36001
Sample Questions
Q1) Fluids close to the same osmolarity as serum are called _____.
A)hypotonic
B)isotonic
C)hypertonic
D)serotonic
Q2) Which of the following is not an example of an electrolyte?
A)calcium
B)magnesium
C)selenium
D)sodium
Q3) _____ occurs when too much water is drawn into the blood;it is commonly seen in people with hypoglycemia (low blood sugar).
A)Psychogenic polydipsia
B)Pseudohyponatremia
C)Hypovolemic hyponatremia
D)Euvolemic hyponatremia
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Chapter 32: Treatment of Thyroid Disorders
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15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36002
Sample Questions
Q1) Synthroid
Q2) What are some of the risk factors of thyroid disease?
A)gender,disease
B)aging,pregnancy
C)cancer,injury
D)a and b
Q3) Tapazole
Q4) The thyroid gland secretes hormones that have an affect on nearly all cells in the body._____ and _____ are thyroid hormones that function to regulate growth and metabolism.
A)tetraiodothyronine (T ),trioxythyronine
B)trioxythyroxine,triiodothyroxine
C)triiodothyronine (T ),tetraiodothyronine
D)monothyroxine and triiodothyrosine
Q5) Which thyroid drug(s)may produce a dangerous drop in white blood cells (agranulocytosis)that increases the risk for serious infection?
A)methimazole and PTU
B)Cytomel
C)Synthroid
D)Thyrolar
Page 38
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Chapter 33: Treatment of Diabetes Mellitus
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hormone insulin is necessary for regulation which of the following mechanisms?
A)carbohydrates
B)proteins
C)fats
D)all of the above
Q2) slows gastric emptying,reduces postprandial glucagon secretion,and reduces appetite
Q3) Which of the following is not true of gestational diabetes?
A)may have no symptoms
B)occurs late in pregnancy
C)pregnant women are not routinely tested
D)elevated glucose a sign during pregnancy
Q4) Insulin can only be administered by what route(s)of administration?
A)oral
B)intranasal
C)parenteral
D)b and c
Q5) increases tissue sensitivity to insulin but does not increases insulin secretion
Q6) stimulates insulin secretion for pancreatic ß-cells,similar to sulfonylureas
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Chapter 34: Drugs That Affect the Reproductive System
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36004
Sample Questions
Q1) Oil-based products should not be used with latex diaphragms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) clomiphene
Q3) _____ is defined as irregular or excessive uterine bleeding resulting from a structural problem or hormonal imbalance that causes a disruption of blood supply.
A)Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
B)Primary dysmenorrheal
C)Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
D)Amenorrhea
Q4) Anabolic steroids cause many serious adverse effects and is classified as a _____ substance.
A)C-II
B)C-III
C)C-IV
D)C-V
Q5) Plan B
Q6) Danazol
Q7) GNRH analog
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Chapter 35: Treatment of Bacterial Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) sulfisoxizole
Q2) Aminoglycosides antibiotics are effective for treating all of the following except
A)aerobic gram-negative bacilli
B)staphylococci
C)streptococci
D)mycobacterium
Q3) dicloxacillin
Q4) Multidrug resistance is only a problem in the hospital setting.
A)True
B)False
Q5) First-generation cephalosporins are most effective against what type of bacteria?
A)gram-positive,aerobic bacteria
B)gram-negative,aerobic bacteria
C)gram-positive,anaerobic bacteria
D)gram-negative,anaerobic bacteria
Q6) levofloxacin
Q7) doxycycline
Q8) telithromycin
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Chapter 36: Treatment of Viral Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are eight steps in the HIV life cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) didanosine
Q3) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)is the virus that causes acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS).The virus attacks _____and weakens the immune system.
A)CD4 monocytes
B)CD4 T lymphocytes
C)CD2 T lymphocytes
D)none of the above
Q4) The importance of treating herpes simplex virus is the timing of initiation of drug therapy.Severity of the infection and symptoms are reduced only when antiviral therapy is initiated within the first _____ hours of exposure to the virus or onset of symptoms.
A)6-12
B)12-24
C)24-36
D)24-48
Q5) zanamivir
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Chapter 37: Treatment of Cancers
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carboplatin,cisplatin,and oxaliplatin are platinum compounds.Cisplatin is FDA approved for the treatment of _____ and _____ cancer.
A)testicular,ovarian
B)breast,ovarian
C)testicular,colon
D)cervical,ovarian
Q2) UV radiation is classified as _____.
A)UVA
B)UVB
C)UVC
D)a and b
Q3) The oldest class of antineoplastic agents is _____.
A)phosphamides
B)alkerans
C)alkylating agents
D)phosphorylating agents
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Chapter 38: Vaccines,immunomodulators,and Immunosuppressants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immunosuppressants are used for all of the following disease states except _____.
A)multiple sclerosis
B)muscular dystrophy
C)rheumatoid arthritis
D)systemic lupus erythematosus
Q2) daclizumab
Q3) A living,but weakened,version of the invader that does not cause disease (nonvirulent)is called _____ vaccine.
A)live,attenuated
B)dead,attenuated
C)live,encapsulated
D)live,strengthened
Q4) Which of the following classification of drugs are not categorized as immunopharmacologicals?
A)corticosteroids
B)antineoplastics
C)antivirals
D)cytokine inhibitors
Q5) mycophenolate mofetil
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Chapter 39: Treatment of Fungal Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following drugs are derived from the fungi-like bacteria Streptomyces except _____.
A)nystatin
B)miconazole
C)natamycin
D)amphotericin B
Q2) Which of the following is true about dermatophytes?
A)They live on the top layer of the skin,hair,and nails.
B)They are usually found in the mouth.
C)They thrive in the vaginal mucosa.
D)All of the above are true.
Q3) No fungus is beneficial because they all cause disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Women taking a broad-spectrum antibiotic for a bacterial infection may develop _____ as a result.
A)a yeast infection
B)a rash
C)onychomycosis
D)thrush
Page 45
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Chapter 40: Treatment of Decubitus Ulcers and Burns
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the care of a burn patient,at what step is a check for airway injury or impaired breathing done?
A)first step
B)second step
C)third step
D)last step
Q2) The most frequently used topical agent for burns is _____.
A)erythromycin
B)silver sulfadiazine
C)hydrocortisone
D)a and b
Q3) There are several ways to estimate the extent of body surface area burned.One method is called the "rules of palms" and is based on the assumption that the palm size of a burn victim is about _____ of the total body surface area.
A)1%
B)3%
C)4 %
D)10%
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Chapter 41: Treatment of Acne
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sodium sulfacetamide is a(n)_____ agent and is used in the treatment of acne,rosacea,and seborrheic dermatitis.
A)antiviral
B)keratolytic
C)antibacterial
D)seborrheic
Q2) Which of the following agents is not an example of a retinoid used to treat acne?
A)vitamin A
B)adapalene
C)tretinoin
D)triamterene
Q3) Which of the following agencies has announced the approval of a strengthened risk management program,called iPLEDGE,for Accutane and generic isotretinoin?
A)USP
B)FDA
C)CDER
D)TJC
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Chapter 42: Treatment of Eczema and Psoriasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is not the mechanism of action for pimecrolimus and tacrolimus?
A)inhibits t-cell activation
B)increases production of cytokines and interleukins
C)inhibit skin cell turnover
D)increases production of interferons
Q2) anthralin
Q3) Methoxsalen is the only drug in the class of furanocoumarins,and it works by _____.
A)working synergistically with UV light
B)decreasing photosensitivity
C)blocks UV rays
D)causing new skin cells to grow
Q4) A patient placed on azathioprine has called the physician's office complaining of nausea and vomiting.The patient should be advised that this drug may also cause which of the following?
A)increase in WBCs
B)drop in RBCs and WBCs
C)headaches
D)diarrhea
Q5) desonide
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Chapter 43: Treatment of Lice and Scabies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eurax
Q2) _____ are indicated for the treatment of head lice,pubic lice,and body lice.
A)Pyrethrins
B)Permethrins
C)Organochlorine pesticides
D)Scalethin
Q3) Ovide
Q4) Nix
Q5) Body lice infestations are caused by the parasite Phthirus pubis.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ____,or "crabs," is sometimes classified as a sexually transmitted infection.
A)Scabies
B)Head lice
C)Pubic lice
Q7) The scabies mite lives in all of the following places except _____.
A)the surface of the skin
B)webbing between the fingers and toes
C)skin folds of the breast
D)bend of the elbows,knees,and wrists
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