
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Community Nutrition examines the role of nutrition in promoting the health and well-being of populations and communities. This course explores the assessment of community nutritional needs, the development and evaluation of nutrition programs and policies, and strategies for addressing nutritional issues in diverse populations. Topics include public health nutrition, food security, cultural influences on dietary behaviors, nutrition education and communication, and the role of government and non-government organizations in community nutrition initiatives. Students will engage with case studies and practical projects to develop skills in program planning, implementation, and evaluation to address real-world nutrition challenges at the community level.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition An Applied Approach 5th Edition by
Janice J. Thompson
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30 Chapters
1904 Verified Questions
1904 Flashcards
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Q1) For an experiment to be consistent with the principles of the scientific method,it must be repeatable.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) "Wellness" is a multidimensional process by which people make choices that enhance their lives.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Prevalent in the United States during the early 1900s,pellagra was first thought to be an infectious disease.Today we know that it is caused by a deficiency of A) vitamin A.
B) iron.
C) protein.
D) niacin.
Answer: D
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Q1) How many daily serving of grains do the USDA Food Patterns recommend?
A) 3 cups
B) 4 ounce-equivalents
C) 5 ounce-equivalents
D) 6 ounce-equivalents
Answer: D
Q2) To maintain a healthful weight,the 2015-2020 Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend
A) engaging in recommended levels of physical activity.
B) focusing on "good" and "bad" individual foods, food groups, and nutrients.
C) strictly avoiding added sugars.
D) consuming no more than 2,000 Calories a day.
Answer: A
Q3) Planning a meal that includes many different-colored foods is an example of which characteristic of a healthful diet?
A) adequacy
B) moderation
C) balance
D) variety
Answer: D
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Q1) Which of the following is known as a "hunger hormone"?
A) progesterone
B) testosterone
C) CCK
D) ghrelin
Answer: D
Q2) Hunger is best described as
A) a physiological desire to consume food.
B) a psychological desire to consume food.
C) eating that is often driven by environmental cues.
D) eating that is often driven by emotional cues.
Answer: A
Q3) Assuming the Calories and relative sizes are similar,which of the following snacks will have the highest satiety value?
A) two saltine crackers spread with jam
B) two saltine crackers spread with butter
C) a glass of orange juice
D) a hard-boiled egg
Answer: D
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Q1) Diets high in added sugars are associated with tooth decay and gum disease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Defend or refute two claims: that using alternative sweeteners helps people lose weight; and that using alternative sweeteners helps people maintain a healthful body weight.
Q3) Which of the following alternative sweeteners is made from sucrose?
A) aspartame
B) sucralose
C) acesulfame-K
D) saccharine
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a health problem related to eating too much sugar?
A) unexplained weight loss
B) tooth decay
C) increased risk for cardiovascular disease
D) increased risk for diabetes
Q5) A serving of quinoa has more fiber than a slice of whole-wheat bread.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Yesterday Nadia consumed 250 grams of carbohydrate,75 grams of protein,and 60 grams of fat.What percentage of Calories of her day's intake came from fat?
A) 13%
B) 15%
C) 29%
D) 35%
Q2) Studies show that the use of fat replacers reduces the risk of obesity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following foods contains hidden fats?
A) olive oil
B) zucchini
C) chocolate cake
D) butter
Q4) Fasting for 8 hours before a blood lipids test will allow enough time for your body to clear chylomicrons from your bloodstream.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The type of vegetarian who eats vegetables,grains,fruits,eggs,and milk but excludes all other types of animal protein is called a
A) vegan.
B) lacto-vegetarian.
C) lacto-ovo-vegetarian.
D) pesco-vegetarian.
Q2) A well-planned vegetarian diet reduces the risk for which of the following conditions?
A) obesity
B) peptic ulcers
C) type 1 diabetes
D) celiac disease
Q3) Which hormone controls both the production of HCl and the release of pepsin?
A) insulin
B) glucagon
C) gastrin
D) pepsinogen
Q4) Discuss the health benefits associated with becoming a vegetarian.
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Q5) Explain the status of current research into the effects of a high-protein diet on bone loss.

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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a major function of sodium?
A) assists in nerve impulse transmission
B) helps maintain fluid balance
C) contributes to the mineral complex of bone
D) helps maintain blood volume
Q2) The GI flora
A) can synthesize small amounts of electrolytes.
B) can help release the phosphorus in plant foods.
C) can help release the potassium in plant foods.
D) can degrade excessive sodium in the GI tract.
Q3) What factors should you consider before purchasing bottled water?
Q4) Up to what percentage of an adult's healthy body weight is fluid?
A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
D) 70
Q5) A diet rich in potassium has been shown to help maintain a healthy blood pressure.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Rod cells use retinol from the bloodstream to
A) transport visual messages to the brain.
B) replace the retinal lost during bleaching.
C) regenerate the protein iodopsin.
D) stabilize free radicals in the rod cell membrane.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of pellagra?
A) dermatitis
B) diarrhea
C) dementia
D) dizziness
Q3) Which water-soluble vitamin can regenerate vitamin E after it has been oxidized?
A) vitamin B
B) vitamin B
C) vitamin C
D) folate
Q4) Sulfur is a trace mineral that enhances the ability of insulin to transport glucose into the body's cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how vitamin A affects growth,reproduction,and cell differentiation.
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Q1) Bone cells that are responsible for bone resorption are called
A) osteoclasts.
B) osteoblasts.
C) hydroxyapatites.
D) leukocytes.
Q2) Which of the following is an excellent source of vitamin K?
A) citrus fruits
B) green leafy vegetables
C) beef
D) fatty fish
Q3) Trabecular bone has a faster turnover rate than cortical bone.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When blood calcium levels fall,which of the following does NOT occur?
A) Increased secretion of PTH activates vitamin D.
B) PTH and vitamin D stimulate the kidneys to reabsorb calcium from the blood.
C) PTH and vitamin D stimulate osteoblasts to break down bone.
D) Vitamin D increases the absorption of calcium from the intestines.
Q5) Explain the link between inadequate consumption of vitamin C and bleeding gums.
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Q6) Why is the health of your blood important to maintaining your overall health?
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Q1) Ghrelin is a(n)
A) gastric hormone that stimulates appetite.
B) intestinal hormone that raises insulin concentrations.
C) hormone produced by adipose cells that decreases appetite.
D) liver enzyme that promotes the excretion of fat.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of a low-carbohydrate,high-protein diet?
A) Dr. Atkins Diet Revolution
B) Sugar Busters
C) the DASH diet
D) the paleo diet
Q3) The majority of obese people have a low basal metabolic rate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following does NOT define a "healthful body weight?"
A) a weight appropriate for your age and physical development
B) a weight compatible with normal blood pressure, lipid levels, and glucose tolerance
C) a weight that is acceptable to you
D) a weight that you can achieve and maintain with continual dieting
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Q1) Most athletes consume sufficient dietary protein to support their physical activity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) There is evidence supporting the performance claims of which of the following ergogenic aids?
A) ephedrine
B) beta-alanine
C) carnitine
D) chromium
Q3) Fatty-acids provide MOST of the energy for
A) high-intensity, short-term activity.
B) long-term activity such as hiking.
C) participation in a marathon.
D) sprinting in a 1500-meter race.
Q4) Creatine supplementation may enhance an athlete's sprint performance in swimming,running,and cycling.
A)True
B)False

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Q5) Discuss the health benefits of regular physical activity.
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Q1) Chemicals that accumulate in soil and water as a result of car emissions,improperly disposed waste,industry,and agriculture are known as
A) greenhouse gases.
B) mycotoxins.
C) food residues.
D) persistent organic pollutants.
Q2) Which of the following would NOT help reduce exposure to bisphenol A (BPA)?
A) reducing consumption of canned foods
B) using plastics marked with recycling codes 3 or 7 when microwaving foods
C) avoiding use of scratched plastic containers
D) using stainless steel containers for storing food and beverages
Q3) In the United States,the agencies most responsible for preventing foodborne illness are the USDA and the CDC.
A)True
B)False
Q4) It is unsafe to thaw frozen fish on the kitchen counter.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain what you are buying when you buy certified organic foods.
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Q1) The green revolution has enhanced water and soil quality.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a simple food strategy you can follow to help preserve natural resources and reduce greenhouse gas emissions?
A) carbohydrate loading
B) high-protein diet
C) fish Fridays
D) meatless Mondays
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a benefit of school gardening programs?
A) teach children about nutrition and cooking
B) expose children to new fruits and vegetables
C) produce healthful foods for school cafeterias
D) decrease corporate investment in sustainable agriculture
Q4) A majority of contingent farm workers
A) have healthcare insurance.
B) have paid sick leave.
C) are younger than 12 years of age.
D) are not entitled to breaks for rest or meals mandated by law for other U.S. workers.
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a factor that indicates an infant is ready to accept solid foods?
A) The infant can sit up with or without support.
B) The infant's tongue extrusion reflex has begun to abate.
C) The infant is at least six months old.
D) The infant has high stores of iron.
Q2) Which of the following statements about breastfeeding is TRUE?
A) Breastfed newborns typically require more frequent feedings than formula-fed infants.
B) In the United States and Canada, HIV-positive women are encouraged to breastfeed.
C) Environmental contaminants such as pesticide residues do not pass from a lactating mother into her breast milk.
D) For reasons that are not entirely clear, women who are overweight or obese appear to initiate and maintain breastfeeding at higher rates than women of normal weight.
Q3) Pica is an abnormal craving for high-fat foods.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify the hormones that regulate lactation and describe their functions.
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Q1) Although school breakfasts and lunches in the United States must meet certain nutrition standards,many critics question their nutritional quality.Design a nutritious meal that (1)meets federal standards; (2)could be prepared for hundreds of schoolchildren; (3)uses inexpensive,widely available foods; and (4)would be appealing to a majority of young children.
Q2) As compared to infancy,growth rates increase during the toddler years.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements regarding supplements for elderly individuals is TRUE?
A) Older adults have an increased need for dietary fiber to promote regular bowel function; therefore, it is recommended that they consume a fiber supplement.
B) Older adults who do not receive regular and adequate exposure to sunshine may benefit from taking a vitamin D supplement.
C) Supplemental vitamins C and E are critical for reducing oxidative stress.
D) Calcium requirements are higher for adults over age 70 than for any other age group.
Q4) Compare the benefits and risks of feeding a vegan diet to a young child.
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Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE about a diet high in phytochemicals?
A) It is thought to increase the risk of cancer.
B) It is thought to reduce inflammation linked to the development of cancer.
C) It can prevent some forms of cancer.
D) It can cure some forms of cancer.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a health-promoting function associated with a healthy intake of phytochemicals from foods?
A) reduction in inflammation that is linked to the development of cardiovascular disease
B) slowing of tumor growth in the development of cancer
C) increase in bacterial resistance to antibiotics
D) enhanced immune function to protect against infection
Q3) Probiotics contribute to human health by improving the balance of healthful bacteria in the GI tract.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Research suggests that consumption of probiotics may reduce susceptibility to colds.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Fortunately,more than 50% of Americans do follow a healthful eating pattern.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Mediterranean diet is rich in phytochemicals,probiotics,and prebiotics.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following choices would be at home on the Harvard School of Public Health's Healthy Eating Plate?
A) a baked potato
B) French fries
C) nuts
D) a croissant
Q4) An aspect of the Mediterranean diet that makes it more healthful than the typical American diet is that sweets
A) are consumed only once a day.
B) are consumed only weekly.
C) are consumed only on special occasions.
D) are not consumed.
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Q1) Celiac disease is the same as gluten sensitivity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the United States,how many foods account for over 90 percent of all documented food allergies?
A) 3
B) 8
C) 20
D) 160
Q3) Bryce is dangerously allergic to shrimp,which he accidentally consumes in a baked dish.Which of the following would NOT be an expected way for Bryce's body to react to the allergen?
A) widespread inflammation
B) loss of consciousness
C) difficulty breathing
D) sudden increase in blood pressure
Q4) Strawberries are one of the eight most common allergenic foods in the American diet.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Moderate weight loss can reduce or eliminate symptoms of type 2 diabetes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When two or more tests of fasting plasma glucose fall within the values 100-125 mg/dL,the individual will likely be diagnosed with A) diabetic ketoacidosis.
B) diabetes.
C) prediabetes.
D) normal blood glucose regulation.
Q3) Insulin is synthesized and secreted by the A) liver.
B) pancreas.
C) gallbladder.
D) spleen.
Q4) Losing as little as 10 to 30 pounds can reduce or eliminate the symptoms of type 2 diabetes.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Josiah was just diagnosed with type 2 diabetes,which means that he is now also at increased risk for developing cardiovascular disease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Fatty streaks in blood vessels indicate the presence of atherosclerosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements about the DASH diet is TRUE?
A) It was developed by Richard H. Dash, M.D.
B) It is high in potassium, calcium, magnesium, and fiber.
C) It includes 2-3 servings of fruits and 2-3 servings of vegetables each day.
D) About one-third of the people who follow the DASH diet experience a modest reduction in blood pressure.
Q4) What lifestyle changes can you take to improve your blood lipid profile?
A) maintain your intake of saturated fat below 7-10% of total energy
B) eat most of your day's energy intake in the evening
C) maintain a lower-than-normal body weight
D) decrease your amount of physical activity
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Q1) Which of the following is a major mineral?
A) sulfur
B) iodine
C) iron
D) zinc
Q2) Research studies suggest that adequate intake of vitamin D is associated with a reduced risk for
A) cataracts.
B) colon cancer.
C) pneumonia.
D) type 2 diabetes.
Q3) Even individuals who eat a variety of healthful foods cannot meet their micronutrient needs from food alone and should take a daily supplement.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The iron in breakfast cereal is absorbed more readily when consumed with a glass of vitamin C-rich orange juice.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)is a serious condition that is associated with physical birth defects and mental retardation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a tip for taking control of your alcohol intake?
A) Make sure you have not eaten for at least 3-4 hours before having your first alcoholic drink.
B) Think about why you are planning to drink.
C) Decide in advance what your alcohol intake will be.
D) Dilute hard liquor with large amounts of water, diet soda, or juice.
Q3) Whereas the damage that occurs in fatty liver is reversible,the damage that occurs in alcoholic hepatitis is never reversible.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What distinguishes alcohol dependence from alcohol abuse?
A) impaired functioning
B) physical dependence
C) health problems
D) disruption of interpersonal relationships
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Q1) The site in which cancer develops,the aggressiveness of the cell type,and the stage at which the cancer is detected all influence a cancer patient's clinical A) promotion.
B) prognosis.
C) progression.
D) praxis.
Q2) The MOST common form of cancer in the United States is cancer of the A) lung.
B) skin.
C) colon.
D) stomach.
Q3) A physician who specializes in the treatment of patients with cancer is called A) an oncologist.
B) a radiologist.
C) an internist.
D) a rheumatologist.
Q4) Certain cancers can be directly caused by certain infections. A)True B)False
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Q1) In which phase of a woman's life cycle is bone loss the greatest?
A) puberty
B) pregnancy
C) lactation
D) menopause
Q2) An increased load of supplemental calcium in the bloodstream might increase the risk for a heart attack.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The only way to obtain adequate calcium and vitamin D is to use supplements.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements about osteoporosis is TRUE?
A) Although osteoporosis can be disfiguring, it is not painful.
B) About 20% of older adults who suffer a hip fracture die within 1 year.
C) The mortality rate following an osteoporotic fracture is higher for women than for men.
D) The rate of osteoporotic fractures in both men and women is higher worldwide than it is in the United States.
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Q1) Excess visceral fat stores and thus reduces the release of fatty acids and adipokines.
A)True
B)False
Q2) About 60% of obese people trying to lose weight are successful at least in the short term.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Obesity researchers have identified more than 100 variables that influence the risk for obesity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a reason that bariatric surgery fails to achieve long-term weight loss for most people?
A) chronic diarrhea and vomiting
B) inability to maintain reduced consumption over time
C) gradual enlargement of the stomach pouch
D) loosening of staples or gastric bands
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Q1) David typically eats healthfully,but after breaking up with his girlfriend,he went home and ate an entire bag of corn chips and a carton of ice cream.Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) David has bulimia nervosa.
B) David has binge-eating disorder.
C) David's behavior is an example of binge eating.
D) David's behavior is an example of purging.
Q2) Nutrition counseling is an important aspect of inpatient (hospital)treatment for eating disorders.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is characteristic of anorexia nervosa?
A) refusal to maintain body weight at a minimally normal level for age and height
B) worn tooth enamel and chronic sore throat
C) secretive consumption of large amounts of food in a short period of time
D) occurs in 3% to 5% of adult females and 2% of adult males
Q4) Binge-eating disorder is common in men.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Which of the following populations is MOST likely to benefit from taking a vitamin D supplement?
A) women who may become pregnant
B) people with low exposure to sunlight
C) people who do not consume adequate calcium
D) people on a highly restrictive weight-loss diet
Q2) There are currently no federal guidelines or practices to ensure the purity,quality,safety,and composition of dietary supplements.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A dietary supplement would NOT contain
A) vitamins and minerals.
B) herbs or other botanicals.
C) amino acids.
D) aspirin.
Q4) The use of herbs to promote health and treat discomfort and disease is a relatively recent phenomenon.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) About what percentage of deaths of children from birth to age 5 are due to malnutrition?
A) 15%
B) 25%
C) 35%
D) 45%
Q2) All nations around the world have been exposed to a nutritional transition over the past 30 years.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Iron deficiency is a significant cause of death in women during pregnancy,childbirth or the immediate postpartum period.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The three micronutrient deficiencies of greatest concern in impoverished countries are
A) calcium, iron, and thiamin.
B) folate, vitamin D, and iodine.
C) iron, iodine, and vitamin A.
D) vitamin E, iron, and calcium.
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Q1) The negative impact of fetal exposure to malnutrition is worsened if followed by low nutrient intakes shortly after birth.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Research into the fetal origins of adult disease suggests that
A) maternal nutritional deficiencies during pregnancy have no effect on the fetus.
B) the harmful effects of prenatal exposure to famine can be reversed if followed by high nutrient intakes shortly after birth.
C) prenatal exposure to famine affects the health of the offspring as well as the health of their children.
D) low birth weight among babies exposed to famine in utero reduces cardiovascular disease risk in adulthood.
Q3) Adults who were exposed in utero,in infancy,and in early childhood to the Leningrad famine had far poorer health,on average,than adults who were exposed to the Netherlands famine.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) If you want to live a longer,healthier life,the CDC recommends consuming a gluten-free diet.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Antioxidant supplements have consistently been shown to lower rates of death from heart disease and certain types of cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Even without Calorie restriction,vegan diets have been shown to improve an individual's metabolic profile.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A drawback of Calorie restriction is that A) it increases the risk of cardiovascular disease. B) it may result in infertility.
C) many people who follow it complain of frequently feeling hot. D) it is not thought to be effective in women.
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