Community Nutrition
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Community Nutrition explores the principles and practices of promoting health and preventing disease within diverse populations through nutritional interventions. This course examines the social, cultural, and environmental determinants of nutrition in communities, emphasizing program planning, policy development, and evaluation strategies to address nutritional issues at the local, national, and global levels. Students will analyze the role of nutrition education, food security, and public health initiatives in improving community well-being, while also considering the impact of socioeconomic disparities and cultural diversity on dietary practices. Through case studies and practical projects, learners will develop the skills to assess community nutritional needs and implement evidence-based interventions.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition and Diet Therapy 9th Edition by
Linda Kelly DeBruyne
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Overview of Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) The FDA's list of reliable health claims includes the correlation between _____ deficiency and _____.
A) calcium; osteoporosis
B) zinc; immune system response
C) folate; cancer
D) dietary fat; autoimmune deficiency
E) potassium; neural tube defects
Answer: A
Q2) The 2010 Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend that people over the age of 51 reduce their intake of sodium to _____ mg per day.
A) 1500
B) 2300
C) 3000
D) 3200
E) 2500
Answer: A
Q3) An excess intake of any energy nutrient can lead to weight gain.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) High-fructose corn syrup is composed of _____.
A) fructose and glucose
B) glucose and galactose
C) sucrose and maltitol
D) fructose and galactose
E) sucrose and syrulose
Answer: A
Q2) Of all the possible alternatives, why are carbohydrates the preferred energy source?
Answer: as long as carbohydrate is available, the human brain depends exclusively on it as an energy source. Most cells depend on glucose for their fuel to some extent, and the cells of the brain and the rest of the nervous system depend almost exclusively on glucose for their energy.
Q3) Which of the following breakfast foods has the lowest glycemic index?
A) cornflakes
B) instant oatmeal
C) white bagel
D) cooked oatmeal
E) orange juice
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assuming that we eat plenty of vegetable cooking oils due to their increased production and use by food manufacturers, Americans need to consume more ____.
A) omega-3 fatty acids
B) omega-6 fatty acids
C) monounsaturated fatty acids
D) essential fatty acids
E) trans-fatty acids
Answer: A
Q2) The term "saturated fatty acid" means that ____.
A) its carbon chains contain fewer than ten carbons
B) the fat lacks glycerol
C) each carbon is filled to capacity with hydrogen atoms
D) the fat is solid at room temperature
E) the fat comes from animal sources
Answer: C
Q3) Olive oil is known to help protect against heart disease.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of protein breakdown and synthesis is called ____.
A) protein recovery
B) the protein cycle
C) protein turnover
D) protein rotation
E) protein genesis
Q2) buffers
A)maintenance of the necessary amounts and types of fluid and minerals in each compartment of the body fluids
B)swelling caused by accumulation of fluid in the interstitial spaces
C)compounds that release hydrogen ions in a solution
D)compounds that accept hydrogen ions in a solution
E)the balance maintained between acid and base concentrations in the blood and body fluids
F)the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution
G)too much acid in the blood and body fluids
H)too much base in the blood and body fluids
I)compounds that can reversibly combine with hydrogen ions to maintain a solution's acidity or alkalinity constant
J)produced in response to invasion by antigens
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Chapter 5: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enzymes ____.
A) facilitate chemical reactions
B) draw water into the small intestine
C) are present in all parts of the GI tract
D) encourage bacterial growth
E) discourage water removal by the duodenum
Q2) The mouth initiates the liquefying process to reduce the food to a coarse mash suitable for swallowing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The lymphatic system ____.
A) contains fluid with the same composition as blood
B) eventually drains into the blood circulatory system
C) carries chylomicrons to the intestines
D) is where metabolism of nutrients takes place
E) drains directly into the appendix
Q4) What is norovirus and how is it linked to personal hygiene?
Q5) Pepsin cannot function in the strong acidic environment of the stomach.
A)True
B)False
7
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Chapter 6: Metabolism Energy Balance and Body
Composition
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Q1) Which factor is one of the three indicators established by obesity experts for evaluating health risks due to overweight and obesity?
A) a person's sleep habits
B) BMR
C) a person's alcohol consumption
D) waist circumference
E) family history
Q2) In the body, no metabolic difference exists between fasting and starving.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The health risks associated with central obesity has to do with _____.
A) an imbalance in adipokines
B) the proximity of the excess fat to the gallbladder
C) an imbalance in cytokines
D) the proximity of excess fat to the small intestine
E) an imbalance in ketones
Q4) Normally, the nervous system consumes less than 50% of the total glucose used each day.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Weight Management Overweight and Underweight
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Sample Questions
Q1) The average U.S. diet delivers an estimated _____ kcalories a day from sweetened beverages.
A) 50-75
B) 75-150
C) 160-185
D) 190-225
E) 230-250
Q2) Fast food contributes to obesity because it generally provides _____.
A) nutrient-dense foods
B) smaller portions
C) plenty of low-kcalorie choices
D) large portions of energy-dense foods
E) too much salt and not enough sugar
Q3) Some research indicates that obese people have much more lipoprotein lipase activity in their fat cells than lean people do.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Briefly describe the set-point theory and its role as a cause of obesity.
Page 9
Q5) Describe strategies for successful weight gain.
Q6) Why are fad diets appealing to a lot of people?
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Page 10
Chapter 8: The Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many of the symptoms of vitamin C deficiency, such as dry scaly skin and failure of wounds to heal, are related to the role of vitamin C in the synthesis of _____.
A) calcium and iron
B) thyroxin
C) collagen
D) adrenal hormones
E) elastin
Q2) Abuse of alcohol may lead to a severe form of thiamin deficiency called _____.
A) beriberi
B) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
C) pellagra
D) rickets
E) fortification
Q3) The formation of collagen requires an adequate intake of _____.
A) vitamin K
B) vitamin E
C) vitamin C
D) folate
E) triglycerides
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Page 11
Chapter 9: Water and the Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Iron is a component of the protein _____, which functions to _____.
A) myoglobin; protect against free radicals
B) transferrin; transport oxygen in the blood
C) hemosiderin; help blood clotting
D) hemoglobin; transport oxygen in the bloodstream
E) hemostatin; excrete excess iron
Q2) The typical American diet, which is _____, provides _____ the recommended intake of potassium.
A) high in meat; more than
B) high in fruits and vegetables; more than
C) low in fruits and vegetables; less than
D) high in milk products; more than
E) low in meat; less than
Q3) When selecting a vitamin-mineral supplement, choose one in which the nutrient levels are _____.
A) at or very close to the RDA
B) all the same
C) at least 200 percent of the RDA
D) at least 300 percent of the RDA
E) at least 500 percent of the RDA
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Chapter 10: Fitness and Nutrition
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Q1) Why are exercise intensity and duration important for people trying to lose body fat?
Q2) Nutrient-dense foods are those that supply adequate vitamins and minerals for the energy they provide.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Drinking extra fluid in the days leading up to an athletic event _____.
A) increases fluid stores in the body
B) increases glycogen stores
C) ensures maximum tissue hydration at the start the event
D) assists the body in better utilizing protein for energy
E) decreases fat stores
Q4) Discuss how exercise intensity affects your body's use of glycogen as a fuel.
Q5) The best fluid to support physical activity for endurance athletes is _____.
A) plain, cool water
B) saltwater mixtures
C) sports drinks
D) lukewarm water
E) caffeinated liquids
Q6) Describe some of the conditioning effects of cardiorespiratory training.
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Nutrition Through the Life Span Pregnancy and Lactation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A man's nutrition may affect his _____ and possibly the genetic contributions he makes to his children.
A) fermentation
B) flocculation
C) fertility
D) fidelity
E) functionality
Q2) A lactating mother should avoid all types of oral contraceptives.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Nutrients and oxygen travel to the developing fetus via _____.
A) the placenta
B) the amniotic sac
C) its lungs
D) its intestines
E) the uterine wall
Q4) Describe the energy, carbohydrate, protein, and fat needs of a pregnant woman.
Q5) Improper breastfeeding position is a frequent cause of sore nipples.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Nutrition Through the Life Span Infancy
Childhood and Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child with any of several nutrient deficiencies may display behaviors that cause them to be labeled as _____.
A) excessively happy
B) likable
C) unloved
D) hyperactive
E) unclean
Q2) How might a pregnant woman's diet and health routine affect the health of her unborn fetus?
Q3) Children who skip breakfast tend to exhibit _____.
A) higher energy intakes
B) enhanced concentration
C) less apathy
D) lower test scores
E) higher energy intakes.
Q4) Describe an ideal treatment program for childhood obesity.
Q5) Allergic reactions to multiple foods are common, while reactions to single foods are the exception.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Nutrition Through the Life Span Later Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which food assistance program would most likely improve the intake of fruits and vegetables among low-income older adults?
A) OAA Nutrition Program
B) Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program
C) Meals on Wheals
D) Senior Farmers Market Nutrition Program
E) Meals for Singles
Q2) Discuss the possible roles of nutrition in the prevention of Alzheimer's disease.
Q3) Your grandfather is beginning to have trouble completing familiar tasks, such as using a microwave oven. You recognize this as an early sign of _____.
A) omega fatty acid deficiency
B) normal age-related changes
C) Alzheimer's disease
D) malnutrition
E) cerebral cortex hypertrophy
Q4) How might a diet plan that is kcalorie restrictive actually help slow the aging process?
Q5) List ten ways that older adults can stretch their food dollars.
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Chapter 14: Illness and Nutrition Care
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Q1) A diet order that states "NPO" means that the patient should receive ____.
A) nothing by mouth
B) medications only by mouth
C) liquids only
D) tube feedings
E) normal feedings
Q2) If either the appetite or the sense of taste is affected by illness, the health practitioner should work with the patient to identify foods that are the most enjoyable.
A)True
B)False
Q3) "What is the first thing you ate or drank yesterday morning?" is the first question asked in a ____.
A) food frequency questionnaire
B) kcalorie count
C) food diary
D) 24-hour dietary recall
E) hospital admission
Q4) Describe how prolonged bed rest may compromise nutrition status.
Q5) Describe the concept of NPO.
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Chapter 15: Medications - Diet Drug Interactions - and Herbal Supplements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the ways in which drugs can affect food intake.
Q2) Valerian
A)used to treat erectile dysfunction
B)used to treat enlarged prostate
C)relieves menopausal symptoms
D)relieves insomnia with little side-effects
E)used to treat cancer and arthritis; may cause hepatitis and liver failure
F)used for wound healing; can cause liver damage
G)used to improve memory
H)treatment of anxiety, stress, insomnia
I)treatment of digestive system disorders; has possible interactions with diuretics, causing excessive potassium loss
J)used to reduce blood pressure and blood cholesterol; side effects include breath and body odor
Q3) The most common adverse effects of herbs include _____.
A) breathing difficulties
B) renal failure, seizures, and heart palpitations
C) nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
D) heart attack or stroke
E) cancer
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Chapter 16: Specialized Nutrition Support - Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 5% dextrose solution contains _____.
A) 2.5 grams of dextrose monohydrate per 100 mL
B) 5 grams of dextrose monohydrate per 100 mL
C) 2.5 grams of dextrose monohydrate per liter
D) 5 grams of dextrose monohydrate per liter
E) 5 grams of dextrose monohydrate per kg body weight
Q2) A parenteral solution that contains dextrose, amino acids, and lipids is called a
A) standard formula
B) modular formula
C) 2-in-1 solution
D) 3-in-1 solution
E) hydrolyzed solution
Q3) IV lipid emulsions _____.
A) provide only nonessential fatty acids
B) are hypertonic
C) are a diluted source of energy
D) do not contain glycerol
E) contain egg phospholipids
Q4) Describe characteristics of patients who are candidates for PPN.
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Chapter 17: Foods and Food Consistency for Upper Gi Disorders
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Q1) The protein recommendation for bariatric surgery patients is _____ g per kg of body weight per day.
A) 0.8 to 1.0
B) 1.0 to 1.5
C) 1.2 to 1.8
D) 1.5 to 2.0
E) 2.0 to 2.5
Q2) Describe the nutritional concerns for a patient following bariatric surgery.
Q3) Appropriate foods for a postgastrectomy diet include _____.
A) lean, tender meats
B) fruit punch
C) milk shakes
D) frosted flakes
E) caffeinated beverages
Q4) Which food would not be allowed on a full-liquid diet?
A) pudding
B) ice cream
C) cream of wheat
D) angel food cake
E) yogurt
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Chapter 18: Fiber-Modified Diets for Lower Gastrointestinal
Tract Disorders
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Q1) Noel requires aggressive dietary management of her disease, otherwise _____ could result.
A) nutrient deficiencies and protein-energy malnutrition
B) problems with chronic constipation and laxative use
C) dehydration and electrolyte imbalances
D) a higher risk of pancreatic cancer
E) a higher risk of liver cirrhosis
Q2) Diverticulitis and ulcerative colitis are the two most prevalent inflammatory bowel diseases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Inflammation that may extend deeply into intestinal tissue and be accompanied by ulcerations, fissures, and fistulas is characteristic of _____. Celiac disease
A) Crohn's disease
B) ulcerative colitis
C) celiac disease
D) irritable bowel syndrome
E) gluten-intolerance
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Chapter 19: Carbohydrate - and Fat Modified Diets for
Malabsorption Disorders
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Q1) Acute pancreatitis can be caused by all of these conditions except _____.
A) gallstones
B) exposure to toxins
C) stress
D) alcohol abuse
E) elevated blood triglycerides
Q2) If Kati does not eliminate gluten from her diet, she could likely experience all of these conditions except _____.
A) anemia
B) infertility
C) bone disorders
D) hypertension
E) muscle wasting
Q3) Kati will require nutrition education aimed at eliminating gluten from her diet. The dietitian will teach Kati to _____.
A) avoid all cereal and grain products
B) substitute whole-wheat flour for enriched wheat flour when cooking
C) check ingredient lists on food labels carefully
D) avoid all milk and milk products
E) avoid fish and poultry
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Nutrition Therapy for Liver and Gallbladder Diseases
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Q1) Which laboratory finding is not associated with fatty liver?
A) elevated HDL
B) elevated ALT and AST
C) elevated glucose
D) elevated triglycerides
E) elevated cholesterol
Q2) Which individual is at highest risk of developing gallstones?
A) a female athlete with anemia
B) a menopausal woman who uses estrogen replacement therapy
C) a 30 year old African-American male
D) a male patient on long-term tube feeding
E) a 25-year old non-pregnant female
Q3) Furosemide is a(n) _____ often used to treat the symptoms of cirrhosis.
A) appetite stimulant
B) diuretic
C) laxative
D) antiviral
E) immunosuppressant
Q4) What symptoms did Marcia have that are consistent with a diagnosis of cholelithiasis?
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Chapter 21: Carbohydrate Controlled Diets for Diabetes
Mellitus
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Q1) The prevalent form of diabetes _____.
A) usually results from an autoimmune disorder
B) develops most often in people over 40
C) is called type 1 diabetes
D) develops as a result of drastic weight loss
E) is characterized by decreased insulin production
Q2) People with diabetes are at increased risk for cardiovascular diseases because they
_____.
A) tend to eat poorly
B) have an increased tendency for thrombosis and abnormal ventricle function
C) experience claudication and foot ulcers
D) are usually unable to participate in any form of physical activity
E) are less likely to form blood clots
Q3) The hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome is a complication of type 2 diabetes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the appropriate medical nutrition therapy for pregnant women with diabetes.
Q6) Define metabolic syndrome and describe the criteria for diagnosis. Page 24
Q5) Describe how glycated hemoglobin is used to evaluate long-term glycemic control.
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Page 25
Chapter 22: Fat Controlled - Mineral Modified Diets for
Cardiovascular Diseases
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Q1) The accumulation of fatty deposits, smooth muscle cells and fibrous connective tissue on arterial walls form _____.
A) foam cells
B) ischemia
C) thrombus
D) cancerous cells
E) plaque
Q2) The general recommendation for high-risk individuals is a cholesterol intake of less than _____ milligrams per day.
A) 100
B) 125
C) 150
D) 175
E) 200
Q3) Which statement does not characterize trans fats?
A) They raise LDL levels.
B) They are often found in baked goods and snack foods.
C) Their intake should be kept as low as possible.
D) They raise HDL levels.
E) They are found in margarine, but not butter.
Page 26
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Chapter 23: Protein - Mineral - and Fluid Modified Diets for Kidney Diseases
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Q1) Compared to a hemodialysis patient, a peritoneal dialysis patient is allowed a more liberal intake of _____.
A) kcalories
B) phosphorus
C) potassium
D) calcium
E) protein
Q2) Which process is not a function of the kidneys?
A) maintaining blood pressure
B) regulating electrolyte concentrations
C) maintaining acid-base balance
D) converting vitamin K to its active form
E) maintaining cholesterol levels
Q3) One cause of nephrotic syndrome is _____.
A) infections of the kidney
B) uremia
C) low blood lipids
D) dehydration
E) elevated sodium
Q4) Which medications are used to prevent or treat calcium oxalate stones?
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Chapter 24: Energy - and Protein - Modified Diets for
Metabolic and Respiratory
Stress
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Q1) In critically ill patients, a high intake of _____ may suppress immune function and increase the risk of developing infections.
A) fat
B) dextrose
C) protein
D) zinc
E) glucose
Q2) Clinical findings typical of patients undergoing metabolic stress include all of these factors except _____.
A) hyperglycemia
B) hypermetabolism
C) insulin resistance
D) positive nitrogen balance
E) protein loss
Q3) The inflammatory process can alter immune cell function in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the potential diet-drug interactions Caroline might experience?
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Q5) Describe the medications used to treat COPD and the possible metabolic side effects.
Chapter 25: Energy - and Protein - Modified Diets for
Cancer and HIV Infection
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Q1) Some people with cancer fail to regain lean body mass even when they are receiving adequate nutrients and energy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the metabolic changes associated with cancer that contribute to weight loss and nutrient depletion.
Q3) Why should AIDS patients be concerned about food-borne illnesses?
Q4) During a class at a nursing home on cancer prevention, a resident asks if one's diet affects his or her risk of developing cancer. The speaker makes the following statements. Which one is incorrect?
A) "Citrus fruits may decrease the risk of esophageal cancer."
B) "Fruits and nonstarchy vegetables may reduce the risk of several types of cancer."
C) "Foods rich in folate seem to prevent pancreatic cancer."
D) "Dairy foods have been implicated in many types of cancer."
E) "Tomato products may decrease the risk of prostate cancer."
Q5) How might fruits and vegetables reduce the risks of some cancers?
Q6) Describe HIV-lipodystrophy syndrome and discuss current treatment strategies.
Q7) Explain reasons why HIV patients have reduced food intake.
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