Community Nutrition Test Preparation - 1011 Verified Questions

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Community Nutrition Test Preparation

Course Introduction

Community Nutrition explores the principles and practices of promoting optimal nutritional health within diverse populations and communities. The course covers the assessment of community nutritional needs, the planning and implementation of effective intervention programs, and the evaluation of public health policies related to food security, health promotion, and disease prevention. Emphasis is placed on understanding cultural, socioeconomic, and environmental factors that influence dietary behaviors, as well as strategies for collaboration with local organizations and stakeholders to improve nutrition outcomes at the community level.

Recommended Textbook

Nutrition and Diet Therapy 12th Edition by Ruth A. Roth

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21 Chapters

1011 Verified Questions

1011 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: The Relationship of Nutrition and Health

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Sample Questions

Q1) Contact the WIC program in your community. Discuss the benefits and goals and describe the positive outcomes.

Answer: An individualized nutritional risk profile is developed for each person, and a specific nutritional rehabilitation program is determined. Goals are increased birth weight, decreased preterm delivery, and decreased maternal morbidity and perinatal morbidity and mortality.

Q2) What is the most common method of assessing a client's dietary history?

A)3-day food record

B)24-hour recall

C)3-day food diary

D)3-day recall

Answer: B

Q3) Primary deficiencies are those an individual is born with, while secondary deficiencies are those caused by a disease condition associated with malabsorption and accelerated excretion or by the destruction of the nutrients.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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3

Chapter 2: Planning a Healthy Diet

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Sample Questions

Q1) Use approximate measures to determine Haley's usual caloric intake for 1 day.

Answer: 3,000-3,200 calories

Q2) Which of the following items must be included on a food label?

A)total carbohydrates and cholesterol per serving

B)vitamins E and D

C)all B vitamins

D)cost per serving

Answer: A

Q3) Discuss the diet as a link to health claims and food labeling.

Answer: The diet has been linked to many health conditions. Health claims link specific conditions to a nutrient and list them on the label. This allows the consumer to make more appropriate food choices. Examples include calcium and osteoporosis; sodium and hypertension; low saturated fat and cholesterol and high in fiber and coronary heart disease; low fat and high in fiber, antioxidants, and vitamins A and C and cancer; folic acid and neural tube defects; soy and cardiac disease. The food must also be a naturally good source (10% daily value) of at least one of the following nutrients: vitamins A and C, iron, calcium, or fiber. It also must have less than 20% of the daily value for total fat, saturated fat, cholesterol, and sodium.

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Chapter 3: Digestion, Absorption, and Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are the activities of absorption that occur in the large intestine? Describe the movement of food residue through the large intestine that results in watery, liquid stools. Answer: Some nutrient and water absorption occurs in the large intestine. The colon wall secretes mucus as a protection from the acidic digestive juices in the chyme. The major functions of the large intestine are to absorb water, synthesize some B vitamins and vitamin K, and collect food residue. Undigested food is excreted as feces by way of the rectum. If diarrhea is present, this means the chyme and liquids have moved through the colon too rapidly to be absorbed; therefore, a liquid stool results, with little water or nutrient absorption taking place.

Q2) Digestion is the process whereby food is broken down into smaller parts and is chemically changed. Digestion occurs in the stomach and small intestine only.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) Determine her current recommended body weight based on her height and sex. Answer: 111-146 pounds

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Carbohydrates

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Sample Questions

Q1) Discuss the metabolism of glucose. What is the function of glucose in the body? Which food sources are needed to obtain glucose? What controls the process of glucose metabolism? What does the body do with the glucose that is not needed?

Q2) Which part of the grain is full of B vitamins?

A)endosperm

B)exosperm

C)bran

D)germ

Q3) If there are insufficient carbohydrates in the diet to meet energy requirements, fat oxidation occurs. What is the impact of this on the metabolism of the body? What nutrients does the body use for energy?

Q4) Compare and contrast the three groups of carbohydrates: monosaccharides, disaccharides, and polysaccharides.

Q5) Discuss the consequences of consuming too much fiber.

Q6) Carbohydrates are required by the body to furnish adequate fiber needed.

A)True

B)False

Q7) Discuss the protein-sparing action of carbohydrates.

Q8) What is the minimum amount of carbohydrates needed each day?

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Chapter 5: Lipids Fats

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49 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Make a list of fat foods that would be the best sources to encourage Reinay to add fat to her diet.

Q2) What are trans-fatty acids? What effect do they have on cholesterol levels? In what foods are they found?

Q3) What indicators are clues to Reinay's weight-conscious habits?

Q4) Monounsaturated fats lower the amount of low-density lipoprotein in the blood when they replace saturated fats in one's diet.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Olive oil, canola oil, and avocados are classified as what type of fat?

A)monounsaturated

B)saturated

C)polyunsaturated

D)hydrogenated

Q6) ____ is a natural emulsifier that helps transport fat in the bloodstream.

A)High-density lipoprotein

B)Phospholipid

C)Lipase

D)Lecithin

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Proteins

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe the dietary condition(s) that are present when children are extremely thin for their height, and contrast this with the reason children are short for their ages. Which is the most common sign for malnutrition in developing countries?

Q2) Correlate the above description of kwashiorkor with the intake of protein.

Q3) Why does edema occur in this state of malnutrition?

Q4) Essential amino acids are necessary for growth and development and must be provided in the diet. There are 20 amino acids that are considered essential.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Most animal sources are high-quality, complete proteins.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Trace the metabolism and digestion, mechanical and chemical, of protein through the body. Describe the metabolism process and the utilization of the by-products and elimination of the waste. Discuss the deamination of amino acids that produces ammonia and the specific actions that occur throughout the body. What is the impact of hormones and enzymes on these processes? Include digestion that begins in the mouth and ends in body tissues.

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Chapter 7: Vitamins

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Sample Questions

Q1) Some vitamins are easily destroyed by light, air, heat, and water. Describe ways to preserve the vitamin during its preparation and cooking.

Q2) The U.S. Food and Drug Administration has determined that synthetic, or manufactured, vitamins are far superior in quality to those that occur naturally.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The major function of vitamin A is the promotion of calcium and phosphorus absorption in the body.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What can you tell Ms. Salmendos about the toxic effects of these vitamins?

Q5) Describe why mineral oil should not be used as a laxative.

Q6) The tolerable upper limits are a maximum level of daily intake that is recommended.

A)True B)False

Q7) If only selected groups of people need vitamins, why do so many people take them?

Q8) Describe the use of vitamin E in premature infants and the elderly.

Page 9

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Chapter 8: Minerals

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe the risk factors of osteoporosis for Ms. James.

Q2) What may occur as a result of dehydration?

A)hypokalemia

B)hyperkalemia

C)edema

D)diabetic acidosis

Q3) The two minerals that are major components of bones and teeth are ____.

A)calcium and phosphorus

B)calcium and potassium

C)calcium and zinc

D)phosphorus and fluoride

Q4) Which mineral deficiency may result in rickets?

A)zinc

B)calcium

C)iron

D)magnesium

Q5) Myxedema refers to hyperthyroidism in adults.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Discuss the consequences of sodium toxicity.

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Chapter 9: Water

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Sample Questions

Q1) The body has buffer systems that regulate _____ content in body fluids.

A)sodium

B)hydrogen ion

C)potassium

D)chloride

Q2) How many days can a human live without water?

A)30-45

B)3-5

C)15-30

D)10-14

Q3) The average adult's body contains approximately 75% water.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which laboratory values are the most important when dehydration is present?

Q5) The body must excrete 1,500 mL of water each day to rid the body of the waste products of metabolism.

A)True

B)False

Q6) List conditions when the need for fluids is increased.

Q7) List substances included in measurement of intake and output.

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Chapter 10: Nutrition During Pregnancy and Lactation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Ms. Jayce states, "Well, you have given me a lot of information to think about. I will continue to think about this. If my labor is not very difficult, I'll probably be able to make up my mind then." What is the appropriate response from the nurse?

Q2) Women with smaller-sized breasts will be unable to produce enough milk to satisfy an infant.

A)True

B)False

Q3) _____ is the condition when nausea persists and becomes so severe that it is life-threatening.

A)Parenteral gravidarum

B)Morning sickness

C)Hyperemesis gravidarum

D)Binge-purge gravidarum

Q4) During lactation, approximately how many extra calories are recommended daily for the first 6 months?

A)300

B)400

C)500

D)1,000

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Chapter 11: Nutrition During Infancy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Infants under the age of 1 year should avoid regular cow's milk because it _____.

A)is harder to digest than the mother's milk

B)can cause infectious diseases

C)doesn't contain any protein

D)is not readily available

Q2) What assessment data is most important?

Q3) The physician has made a diagnosis of failure to thrive. The mother does not understand why the nurse and the doctor are so concerned about Lucia's weight. Tell Maryanne about the usual weight gain of infants.

Q4) Which disease is characterized by low weight for height; slow development of physical skills such as rolling over, sitting, and standing; and delayed social skills such as smiling or playing peek-a-boo?

A)phenylketonuria (PKU)

B)maple syrup urine disease (MSUD)

C)galactosemia

D)failure to thrive

Q5) Is Lucia's failure to thrive classified as organic or nonorganic? Why?

Q6) What factors for Maryanne have contributed to Lucia's failure to thrive?

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Chapter 12: Nutrition During Childhood and Adolescence

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Sample Questions

Q1) Smoking increases the risk of _____.

A)heart disease

B)cirrhosis

C)anorexia nervosa

D)none of the above

Q2) List nursing interventions to deal with the negative interpersonal feelings that the adolescent has developed.

Q3) A child's calorie needs depend on which of the following?

A)body size and activity level

B)type of diet

C)taste preferences

D)availability of food

Q4) Nerissa's mother asks about the treatment for anorexia.

Q5) Which vitamin increases the utilization of iron in the body?

A)vitamins B

B)vitamin C

C)vitamin A

D)vitamin K

Q6) State goals for the anorexic adolescent and her family.

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Q7) Her mother asks, "Why did Chandra develop this condition? What did I do wrong?"

Chapter 13: Nutrition During Adulthood

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Sample Questions

Q1) List adverse symptoms of dehydration for the elderly.

Q2) Which of the following is NOT a reason for poor nutrition in an elderly person?

A)poor dentation

B)depression

C)fad diets

D)poor appetite

Q3) What are the recommended protein needs for adults over the age of 25?

A)0.65 g per kilogram of body weight

B)0.06 g per kilogram of body weight

C)0.8 g per kilogram of body weight

D)0.08 g per kilogram of body weight

Q4) More than 80% of people over the age of 65 have one or more chronic diseases. Current research emphasizes the role of nutrition in preventing or relieving these conditions. Discuss the role of nutrition in the treatment of the elderly with chronic disease.

Q5) One pound of weight gain equals how many calories?

A)2,500

B)2,000

C)3,000

D)3,500

Page 15

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Chapter 14: Weight Management Across the Life Cycle

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Sample Questions

Q1) Subcutaneous fat is the accumulation of fat under the skin and around the organs in the body and correlates more with health risks such as cardiovascular disease and type 2 diabetes.

A)True

B)False

Q2) List causes of malnutrition.

Q3) The most immediate consequence of overweight as perceived by the children themselves is social discrimination.

A)True

B)False

Q4) List nursing interventions related to diet modifications.

Q5) Which of the following is NOT a behavior change strategy for weight loss?

A)Keep a record of food intake and activity.

B)Set your specific, realistic goals.

C)Change your surroundings to avoid overeating.

D)Reward yourself with food.

Q6) List some of the complications that may result from an inadequate nutritional status.

Q7) Discuss the dangers of being underweight.

Q8) Describe the risk factors associated with childhood obesity.

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Chapter 15: Diet and Pre-Diabetes and Diabetes

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Sample Questions

Q1) This type of diabetes, formerly classified as juvenile-onset, occurs suddenly in children and young adults, requiring insulin injections and a carefully controlled diet.

A)type 2

B)type 1

C)gestational

D)pre-diabetes

Q2) What are the expected lab results for someone with pre-diabetes?

Q3) Describe the benefits of exercise.

Q4) What is the recommended carbohydrate intake for diabetics?

A)40-50% of total calories

B)no more than 30% calories

C)intake should be based on individual needs

D)15-20% of total calories

Q5) Approximately _____ of type 2 diabetes clients are overweight.

A)85%

B)65%

C)less than 50%

D)95%

Q6) What data are used to validate the condition?

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Chapter 16: Diet and Cardiovascular Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) The Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) plan has been shown to reduce high blood pressure. A core component of this plan is to increase consumption of fruits and vegetables. How many servings of fruits and vegetables per day are encouraged on this plan? List four potassium-rich fruits and vegetables.

Q2) Discuss the impact of fiber on cholesterol levels.

Q3) The newest guideline for potassium intake is 2,500 mg per day to lower blood pressure.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which of the following foods should be limited on a low-cholesterol diet?

A)whole milk

B)potatoes

C)chicken

D)enriched bread

Q5) Discuss the goal and recommendations for the dietary management of James. State nursing interventions to obtain that goal.

Q6) The sodium in tap water is consistent from one area to another.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 17: Diet and Renal Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) Vitamin D may be added and phosphorus limited in a renal client's diet in order to prevent _____ (softening of the bones due to excessive loss of calcium).

A)osteomalacia

B)osteoporosis

C)gynecomastia

D)periodontal disease

Q2) Describe the diet for clients who are on hemodialysis.

Q3) A typical renal daily diet is sometimes referred to as "80-3-3," meaning what?

A)80% protein, 3% fats, 3% carbohydrates

B)80 g of carbohydrates, 3 g of fat, 3 g of protein

C)80 g of protein, 3 g of sugar, 3 g of fat

D)80 g of protein, 3 g of sodium, 3 g of potassium

Q4) _____refers to the hardening of the renal arteries.

A)Nephritis

B)Glomerulonephritis

C)Nephrosclerosis

D)Nephrolithiasis

Q5) What are the incidence and prognosis of a kidney stone?

Q6) Discuss the most common types of stones and the dietary therapies of each.

Q7) Describe hemodialysis.

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Chapter 18: Diet and Gastrointestinal Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Celiac disease is a disorder characterized by malabsorption of virtually all nutrients and is caused by recurrent diverticulitis.

A)True

B)False

Q2) After the bowel has been allowed to rest and heal and the acute phase of diverticulitis is over, a _____ diet is given.

A)low-residue

B)high-fiber

C)low-fiber

D)full liquid

Q3) Hepatitis has become a social disease, as all forms are transmitted by blood, blood products, body fluids, or sexual intercourse.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Besides her lack of appetite, why is she malnourished? How has her liver disease contributed to her nutritional status?

Q5) Describe the pathology of cholecystitis.

Q6) What is the most common cause of cirrhosis?

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Chapter 19: Diet and Cancer

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nutrient and calorie needs of the cancer client are lower than they were before the onset of the disease.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Discuss the nutrition-related effects of radiation treatment to the head and neck.

Q3) Cachexia is defined as _____.

A) abnormally low amounts of proteins in the blood

B) anorexia combined with dysphagia

C) a malignant carcinogen

D) severe malnutrition and body wasting

Q4) What is the term for abnormally low amounts of protein in the blood?

A)hypoalbuminemia

B)proteinemia

C)hypoglycemia

D)marasmus

Q5) Melanoma originates in the cells that produce melanin and is almost always fatal.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 20: Foodborne Illness, Allergies, and Intolerances

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Sample Questions

Q1) How should beef be cooked to be rid of all parasites?

A)cook to 160°F

B)freeze below 40°F

C)cook to 170°F

D)keep internal temperature to 140°F

Q2) State the goal of the elimination diet and describe the process.

Q3) Compare and contrast Clostridium botulinum and Clostridium perfringens. Include source, signs and symptoms, prevention, and prognosis.

Q4) What disease is caused by protozoa?

A) cancer

B) diabetes

C) rickets

D) dysentery

Q5) All allergic reactions to food are always immediate.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Prepare a worksheet for her, stressing that knowledge of pathogenic names will be irrelevant if she adheres to the guidelines for prevention of foodborne illnesses.

Q7) Describe the reason for the resistance of pathogens with spores.

Page 22

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Chapter 21: Nutritional Care of Clients With Special Needs

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Sample Questions

Q1) When feeding clients who are unable to feed themselves, the nurse should sit on the bed so the client will not feel that the nurse is in a hurry.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Nutrition is of primary importance for a burn client. List some vitamins and minerals that have an impact on the healing process.

Q3) One reason weight reduction is desirable prior to surgery is that fatty tissue tends to retain the anesthetic longer than other tissue.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What are some conditions that can cause a decline of the sense of taste?

A)vitamin deficiencies

B)dysphagia

C)high sugar intake

D)mineral deficiencies

Q5) Nausea and vomiting have begun. What nursing interventions can be done to relieve or prevent further attacks?

Q6) When does the greatest need for fluids occur? Why?

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