
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Community Nutrition explores the principles and practices involved in assessing, planning, implementing, and evaluating nutrition programs and policies designed to improve the health and well-being of diverse populations. The course covers topics such as nutritional epidemiology, determinants of health, food security, health promotion strategies, and the role of governmental and non-governmental organizations in nutrition intervention. Students will learn how to conduct community needs assessments, develop targeted nutrition education programs, and address cultural, social, and economic factors that influence dietary behaviors across various life stages and population groups.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition for Health and Healthcare 6th Edition by
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Page 2
Linda Kelly DeBruyne

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Q1) A carton of yogurt claims that it is fat free and the Nutrition Facts panel indicates the product contains 5 grams of fat per serving. This product can legally make this claim.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Dietary Reference Intakes are designed to:
A) recommend numbers of servings of food to eat per day.
B) help food manufacturers decide on product contents and processing methods.
C) meet minimum nutrient needs to prevent malnutrition in people.
D) specify nutrient needs that best support the health of people in the United States and Canada.
E) provide daily value recommendations for children only.
Answer: D
Q3) Dietary Reference Intakes are values that are appropriate to use for planning and assessing diets for individuals and groups.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Which of the following nutrients is/are absorbed into the lymphatic system?
A) fat-soluble vitamins
B) water
C) amino acids
D) glucose
E) minerals
Answer: A
Q2) Which nutrients are digested in the small intestine?
A) carbohydrate, fat, and protein
B) fat, water, and fiber
C) protein, vitamins, and fiber
D) water, fiber, and minerals
E) carbohydrate, fat, and water
Answer: A
Q3) Bacteria in the colon protect people from some infections.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Carbohydrate should contribute approximately what percentage of the total daily energy intake?
A) 35-40
B) 45-55
C) 45-65
D) 55-60
E) 70-80
Answer: C
Q2) Fructose occurs naturally in:
A) bread.
B) milk.
C) meats.
D) fruits.
E) glucose
Answer: D
Q3) Experts agree that moderate amounts of sugar in the diet may pose a number of major health risks.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) The main route for excretion of cholesterol from the body is:
A) via the lungs.
B) in the urine.
C) in the feces.
D) through the skin.
E) no excretion; it is all reused by the body.
Q2) Excessive consumption of saturated fat or trans fat may result in:
A) weight loss due to poor absorption.
B) reduced serum cholesterol levels.
C) storage of the essential fatty acid, linoleic acid.
D) an increased risk of developing cardiovascular disease.
E) lower blood LDL levels.
Q3) Research has shown that fat substitutes are always effective at promoting weight loss.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Foods that are thought of as protein-rich foods may actually contain more fat energy than protein energy.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) acids
A)maintenance of the necessary amounts and types of fluid and minerals in each compartment of the body fluids.
B)the swelling of body tissue caused by leakage of fluid from the blood vessels and accumulation of the fluid in the interstitial spaces.
C)compounds that release hydrogen ions in a solution.
D)compounds that accept hydrogen ions in a solution.
E)the balance maintained between acid and base concentrations in the blood and body fluids.
F)the concentration of hydrogen ions.
G)too much acid in the blood and body fluids.
H)too much base in the blood and body fluids.
I)compounds that can reversibly combine with hydrogen ions to help keep a solution's acidity or alkalinity constant.
J)large proteins of the blood and body fluids, produced in response to invasion of the body by unfamiliar molecules called antigens.
K)chemical messengers.
Q2) Differentiate between severe acute malnutrition and chronic malnutrition.
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Q1) In the first few days of fasting, body protein is used primarily to:
A) rebuild tissue.
B) replace worn out cells.
C) provide glucose.
D) stabilize fluid balance.
E) provide immunity to infection.
Q2) 35.0 or more
A)normal BMI
B)obese BMI
C)overweight BMI
D)underweight BMI
E)waist size (in inches) indicating risk in men
F)waist size (in inches) indicating risk in women
Q3) The amount of fat a person's body stores when excess food is consumed:
A) is directly proportional to weight.
B) is not influenced by GI functioning.
C) always equals 1 pound per 3500 kcal.
D) varies widely among individuals.
E) cannot exceed 200,000 kcalories.
Q4) Define the thermic effect of food and explain its effect on energy expenditure
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Q1) Which food has the lowest energy density?
A) 15 fresh grapes
B) 1/2 cup rice
C) 1/2 cup ice cream
D) 16 baked chips
E) 1 chicken wing
Q2) Which of the following is the best example of the link between food behavior and emotions?
A) someone who eats fast food for lunch every day
B) someone who would rather sit home and eat than ask a friend to go to a movie and risk rejection
C) someone who always eats popcorn while watching a movie
D) a pregnant woman who craves pickles
E) a 5-year-old boy who only wants to eat macaroni and cheese
Q3) The secret to safe and permanent weight loss is a sensible approach involving:
A) physical activity and a healthy low-kcalorie diet.
B) hormones and diet pills.
C) a very-low-kcalorie diet combined with regular exercise.
D) herbal supplements and a low-kcalorie diet.
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E) a low-carbohydrate diet and weekly fat-melting body wraps.
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Q1) Coenzymes are important because:
A) they function as antioxidants.
B) they facilitate vitamin absorption.
C) they function as catalysts.
D) they facilitate chemical reactions.
E) they increase the body's energy requirement.
Q2) Vitamin D can be made in the body with the help of:
A) bacteria.
B) tryptophan.
C) vitamin A.
D) sunlight.
E) exercise.
Q3) Vitamin A toxicity is likely to result from:
A) consuming too many dark green and deep orange vegetables.
B) overconsumption of whole grains.
C) consuming large amounts of fortified foods or vitamin A supplements.
D) drinking too much orange juice.
E) prescription acne treatments.
Q4) Identify three ways vitamin D helps to maintain blood concentrations of calcium and phosphorus.
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Q1) People who regularly take prescription drugs such as steroids and diuretics are at risk for a deficiency of:
A) potassium.
B) chloride.
C) iodine.
D) selenium.
E) calcium.
Q2) Electrolytes in the body function to:
A) maintain fluid balance.
B) stimulate enzyme action.
C) synthesize protein.
D) maintain the health of cell membranes.
E) increase cell division.
Q3) Zinc is most abundant in foods with high amounts of which of the following?
A) alcohol
B) protein
C) carbohydrate
D) fat
E) antioxidants
Q4) How does fluoride exert a caries-reducing effect?
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Q1) In the United States, the prevalence of exclusive breastfeeding at six months is about
A) 11%
B) 19%
C) 28%
D) 35%
E) 44%
Q2) If a lactating woman's diet is poor, her milk _____.
A) quantity will be normal but the nutrient quality will be poor
B) will be thin and watery
C) quality will be maintained at the expense of maternal stores
D) will contain toxic products
E) will dry up more quickly
Q3) Nutrients and oxygen travel to the developing fetus via the _____.
A) placenta
B) amniotic sac
C) lungs
D) intestines
E) fallopian tubes
Q4) Explain how energy needs change as pregnancy progresses.
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Q1) A young child who requires 1000 kcalories per day for energy would need how much fruit each day?
A) ½ cup
B) 1 cup
C) 1 ½ cups
D) 2 cups
E) 2 ½ cups
Q2) Bobby's fatigue is due to iron's role in _____.
A) neurotransmitter synthesis
B) immune function
C) energy metabolism
D) brain tissue development
E) skeletal muscle formation
Q3) At home, where teenagers are frequently snacking, the best strategy for parents is to stock the pantry with _____.
A) plenty of diet drinks and low-fat snacks
B) easy-to-grab foods that are nutritious
C) enough food for only one snack a day
D) 100-kcalorie snack packs
E) a variety of fruits, vegetables, and sweets
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Q1) Older adults can safely participate in aerobic activity and resistance training until age 85, when the risk of injury from activity is greater than its benefits.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How often should older adults participate in strength training exercises?
A) At least five days per week
B) At least two days per week
C) At least one day per week
D) Every other (nonconsecutive) week
E) As often as they are able
Q3) The DRI committee recommends that adults aged 51 years and older obtain 2.4 micrograms of vitamin B12 daily and that vitamin B12-fortified foods (such as fortified cereals) or supplements be used to meet much of the DRI recommended intake. Mrs. Wylie should be placed on a vitamin B12 supplement because _____.
A) she is at risk of depression
B) she has not been drinking enough water
C) she is socially isolated
D) she has neurologic symptoms consistent with vitamin B12 deficiency
E) she has mobility problems

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Q1) The human body contains _____ chromosomes.
A) 23
B) 37
C) 46
D) 52
E) 56
Q2) Which type of assessment evaluates a person's risk of malnutrition by ranking key variables from the medical history and physical examination?
A) Subjective Global Assessment
B) Integrated assessment
C) Functional assessment
D) Nutrition care plan
E) Katz Index
Q3) genome
Q4) What laboratory test would most likely aid in the diagnosis of anemia?
A) red blood cell count
B) total protein
C) C-reactive protein
D) blood urea nitrogen
E) white blood cell count
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Q1) What information would most likely be included as part of a diet manual?
A) Foods allowed and not allowed on each diet
B) Principles of nutrition education
C) The method of estimating appropriate energy intakes for patients
D) An analysis of how altered intake affects nutrient content
E) The advantages and disadvantages of certain nutrients
Q2) A hospitalized patient is on a progressive diet following surgery. One day, the patient experiences nausea and vomiting after consuming lunch. The nurse recognizes that it is his responsibility to _____.
A) track the patient's tolerance and readiness to advance the diet
B) withhold all foods from the patient until the patient's physician has been contacted
C) contact the kitchen immediately to report a case of foodborne illness
D) contact the dietitian and request that the diet order be changed
E) ask the patient if he wants medication that would prevent vomiting
Q3) Describe a mechanically altered diet and explain when it is useful.
Q4) Most hospitals choose not to offer selective menus as a way to simplify operations and cut costs.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Enteral formulas may be used orally to supplement a patient's diet. When this occurs, _____ becomes an important consideration.
A) taste
B) kcalorie content
C) osmolality
D) cost
E) glucose content
Q2) The dextrose monohydrate used in parenteral nutrition solutions provides _____ kcal/g.
A) 0.9
B) 1.8
C) 2.5
D) 3.4
E) 4.2
Q3) If a client tolerates a formula after it is initiated, the rate of a continuous feeding should be increased by about 30 milliliters per hour every 8 to 10 hours.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is refeeding syndrome, and how can it be prevented?
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Q1) If stress continues for a long period, growth retardation and illness can occur.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Emphysema associated with COPD is most often diagnosed by _____.
A) serial chest x-rays
B) clinical signs and lung function tests
C) oxygen saturation readings
D) 24-hour halter monitoring
E) culture and sensitivity of mucus samples
Q3) Estimate Kati's energy needs using the Ireton-Jones equation: 1925 + [5 ´ wt (kg)][10 ´ age (yr)] + (281 ´ sex) + (292 ´ trauma) + (851 ´ burn).
A) 2288
B) 2681
C) 2828
D) 3420
E) 3240
Q4) Describe the symptoms and complications associated with SIRS.
Q5) Explain important goals of nutrition therapy among patients undergoing metabolic stress.
Q6) Explain the metabolic effects of corticosteroid drugs.
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Q1) On the day following surgery, Ms. Wilson will be allowed to consume what food or fluids?
A) Chicken broth
B) Saltine crackers
C) Tomato soup
D) Skim milk
E) A fruit smoothie
Q2) Due to reduced food intake and nutrient malabsorption, Ms. Wilson will likely require supplements of _____.
A) vitamin B12, iron, and calcium
B) zinc, magnesium, and iron
C) vitamin B6, folate, and niacin
D) calcium, iron, and vitamin C
E) vitamin E, vitamin A, and magnesium
Q3) What treatment is most often used in the management of ulcers?
A) Surgery
B) Relaxation therapy
C) Aspirin
D) Vitamin C
E) Antibiotics
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Q1) In which ethnic group is lactose intolerance most prevalent?
A) Arab Americans
B) Asians
C) Australians
D) Caucasians
E) Pacific Islanders
Q2) In which way would A.R. benefit from using medium-chain triglycerides?
A) As a source of essential fatty acids
B) As a primary source of energy
C) To add flavor to foods
D) As a method of weight control
E) To keep foods palatable and soft
Q3) Identify the possible causes of diarrhea and describe its appropriate treatment.
Q4) After intestinal resection, the absorptive efficiency of the intestine is improved through _____.
A) intestinal adaptation
B) enzyme replacement therapy
C) following a high-fiber diet
D) further surgery
E) iron supplementation

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Q1) Persons using potassium-sparing diuretics should be cautioned about consuming
A) eggs
B) soy sauce
C) soft drinks
D) dairy foods
E) salt substitutes
Q2) The drug _____ is an alternative treatment for elevated ammonia associated with cirrhosis that works by altering bacterial populations.
A) rifaximin
B) megestrol acetate
C) furosemide
D) dronabinol
E) lactulose
Q3) What signs or symptoms best describe ascites?
A) Yellowing of the sclera of the eyes, skin, and mucous membranes
B) Fluid accumulation in the abdomen
C) Inflammation of the liver
D) Elevated blood ammonia levels
E) Increased amounts of fat in the stool
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Q1) Prediabetes is diagnosed when a person has a fasting blood glucose level that falls between 100 and 125 mg/dL.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sam is an African-American male who is obese and has a family history of diabetes. The nurse recognizes that Sam has _____ of the major risk factors for type 2 diabetes.
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
E) 4
Q3) In treated diabetes, hypoglycemia is a possible complication of _____.
A) overeating
B) insulin deficiency
C) eating too many carbohydrates
D) inappropriate disease management
E) fluid overload
Q4) What is the "honeymoon period" associated with diabetes treatment?
Q5) Describe the different methods of insulin delivery.
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Q1) A patient with heart failure has developed cardiac cachexia as a result of the disease. The nurse understands that which medication would most likely be effective to reverse cardiac cachexia?
A) Digoxin
B) Furosemide
C) Nicotinic acid
D) Spironolactone
E) There is no treatment for cardiac cachexia.
Q2) Foods or supplements that contain significant amounts of plant sterols can help to lower LDL cholesterol levels by _____.
A) interfering with cholesterol and bile absorption
B) reducing cholesterol synthesis in the liver
C) suppressing inflammation
D) reducing blood clotting
E) replacing intake of total cholesterol
Q3) People with metabolic syndrome and type 2 diabetes often have small, dense LDL, elevated VLDL levels, and low HDL levels.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Furosemide (Lasix) is a drug used to _____.
A) mobilize fluids
B) lower cholesterol
C) prevent PEM
D) activate vitamin D
E) stimulate appetite
Q2) One primary function of the kidneys is to ____.
A) produce albumin
B) aid in the digestion of fats
C) maintain acid-base balance
D) convert vitamin K to its active form
E) produce enzymes that protect the body from viral infections
Q3) The nurse understands that patients on peritoneal dialysis may most likely experience what side effect?
A) Weight loss
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Lactose intolerance
D) Hypertriglyceridemia
E) Uremia
Q4) Describe the potential consequences that can develop with nephrotic syndrome.
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Q1) Laws regarding advance directives are standardized from state to state.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Common oral infections associated with HIV infection that may cause discomfort and interfere with food consumption include candidiasis and _____.
A) herpes simplex virus infection
B) tooth abscesses
C) canker sores
D) gingivostomatitis
E) Porphyromonas gingivalis infection
Q3) Explain how GI tract complications can contribute to malnutrition in HIV patients.
Q4) Nutrition-related factors may increase or decrease the risk of developing cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The medication megestrol acetate can improve appetite and increase weight in HIV patients.
A)True
B)False
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