Course Introduction
Community Nutrition Exam Preparation Guide
Community Nutrition explores the principles and practices of nutrition as they apply to populations and groups within a community setting. The course examines the assessment of nutritional needs, the planning, implementation, and evaluation of community intervention programs, and the roles of nutrition professionals in promoting public health. Students will engage with topics such as food security, policy development, cultural competency, and strategies for addressing nutrition-related health disparities. Practical skills are developed through case studies and projects focused on improving the nutritional status of diverse communities.
Recommended Textbook Williams' Basic Nutrition and Diet Therapy 14th Edition by Staci Nix McIntosh
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23 Chapters
710 Verified Questions
710 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Food, Nutrition, and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding the functions of protein?
A) Proteins can be a primary fuel source even if there is adequate carbohydrate intake.
B) Proteins are a necessary nutrient to provide energy for the body in times of stress.
C) Proteins can be used as coenzyme factors during cell metabolism.
D) Proteins are essential to tissue building and repair within the body.
Answer: D
Q2) A young woman is 5 months pregnant.She currently lives in a condition of poverty and often runs out of money to buy food.She is most at risk for A) liver damage.
B) osteopenia.
C) undernutrition.
D) overnutrition.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Carbohydrates
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Q1) An apple contains a type of soluble dietary fiber called A) lignin.
B) starch.
C) cellulose.
D) pectin.
Answer: D
Q2) The preferred source of energy for the heart muscle is
A) glucose.
B) glycogen.
C) fatty acids.
D) amino acids.
Answer: C
Q3) The digestion of milk yields the monosaccharides
A) fructose and glucose.
B) galactose and glucose.
C) galactose and sucrose.
D) glucose and maltose.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Fats
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Q1) Triglycerides are composed of
A) glycerol and amino acids.
B) trans-fatty acids.
C) hydrogenated fatty acids.
D) glycerol and fatty acids.
Answer: D
Q2) The recommended total calories provided by fat in an 1800 calorie diet would be A) 180-270 calories.
B) 360-630 calories.
C) 540-630 calories.
D) 540-720 calories.
Answer: B
Q3) After a dietary assessment is completed,it reveals that a client consumes 50% of daily calories from fat.This amount of fat places the client at risk for A) obesity, arthritis, and elevated blood pressure.
B) obesity, elevated blood fats, and diabetes.
C) elevated blood pressure, diabetes, and allergies.
D) diabetes, dementia, and stroke.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Proteins
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Q1) An example of a protein-free body substance is
A) collagen.
B) hemoglobin.
C) insulin.
D) glycogen.
Q2) If the excretion of nitrogen exceeds the nitrogen intake,the condition is called
A) total nitrogen balance.
B) positive nitrogen balance.
C) negative nitrogen balance.
D) anabolism.
Q3) A protein-digesting enzyme found in the stomach rather than in pancreatic secretions is
A) trypsin.
B) pepsin.
C) chymotrypsin.
D) carboxypeptidase.
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Chapter 5: Digestion, Absorption, and Metabolism
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Q1) The process of digestion involves _____ and _____ actions.
A) thermal, chemical
B) chemical, electrical
C) mechanical, chemical
D) mechanical, thermal
Q2) After eating fried chicken the end products from the digestion of fat include
A) glycerol and fatty acids.
B) glucose and fatty acids.
C) amino acids and dipeptides.
D) cholesterol and glycerol.
Q3) Ways to minimize formation of stomach gas include
A) avoiding caffeine.
B) chewing with your mouth open.
C) drinking liquids through a straw.
D) not gulping.
Q4) Bacteria found in the colon are significant because they
A) synthesize some vitamins.
B) are a source of contamination.
C) finish digesting whatever remains in the colon.
D) are necessary for mineral absorption.
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Chapter 6: Energy Balance
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Q1) Mr.Jones normally has a basal metabolic rate of 1500 kcal.He develops a fever of 100.6° F.His rate would now be approximately _____ kcal.
A) 1550
B) 1600
C) 1710
D) 1830
Q2) The first source of stored energy to be used during a period of fasting is
A) amino acids.
B) glycogen.
C) adipose tissue.
D) glucose.
Q3) Metabolically active tissues in the body include
A) the heart, muscles, and intestine.
B) the brain, nerves, and hair.
C) the liver, kidney, and fingernails and toenails.
D) all body tissues.
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Chapter 7: Vitamins
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Q1) The active hormonal form of vitamin D is
A) cholecalciferol.
B) calciferol.
C) calcitriol.
D) calcitonin.
Q2) Foods rich in phytochemicals include
A) mushrooms and algae.
B) fruits and vegetables.
C) yogurt and goat's milk.
D) soy milk and tofu.
Q3) A good food source of vitamin K is
A) spinach.
B) sunflower oil.
C) pork.
D) oranges.
Q4) Recommended intakes for vitamin D are difficult to establish because A) exposure to sunlight varies.
B) it is present in so many foods.
C) the body stores such large amounts.
D) the amount in food varies with the season.
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Chapter 8: Minerals
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Q1) The main function of fluoride is to A) provide structural support.
B) prevent anemia.
C) prevent dental caries.
D) slow aging.
Q2) Potassium deficiency may be caused by A) allergies.
B) food poisoning.
C) psychological stress.
D) myocardial infarction.
Q3) A significant food source of selenium is A) shrimp.
B) processed snacks.
C) canned fruit.
D) a fresh apple.
Q4) Binding agents such as oxalic acid and phytic acid inhibit absorption of A) potassium.
B) sodium.
C) sulfur.
D) calcium.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Water Balance
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Q1) The two minerals that occur in the extracellular fluid and regulate water balance are
A) calcium and potassium.
B) sodium and chloride.
C) phosphorus and magnesium.
D) potassium and magnesium.
Q2) The kidneys must excrete water in the urine because
A) the body needs to get rid of the ingested water.
B) water provides the vehicle for excretion of waste products.
C) they physiologically cannot retain all the water.
D) hormones ensure that a maximal amount of water is retained by the body.
Q3) The kidneys "launder" the blood by A) osmosis.
B) filtration.
C) active transport.
D) diffusion.
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11
Chapter 10: Nutrition During Pregnancy and Lactation
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Q1) Iron needs increase during pregnancy because of A) maternal constipation.
B) increased maternal blood volume.
C) increased maternal metabolic rate.
D) poor iron absorption during pregnancy.
Q2) Nutritional needs during pregnancy are affected by A) the mother's age.
B) the sex of the infant.
C) the mother's food cravings.
D) whether the mother works.
Q3) A pregnant adolescent is at risk because she
A) does not know how to care for herself.
B) has not established good eating habits.
C) is still in a growth stage of development.
D) will not know about the pregnancy until after the fetal organs have formed.
Q4) Increased protein is necessary in pregnancy for
A) preventing gestational diabetes.
B) sparing carbohydrates for energy needs.
C) growing maternal tissues.
D) preventing pregnancy-induced hypertension.
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Chapter 11: Nutrition in Infancy, Childhood, and Adolescence
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Q1) The ideal first food for newborns is
A) infant formula.
B) cow's milk.
C) breast milk.
D) rice cereal.
Q2) Compared with adults,infants and young children have more body fluid
A) outside the cells.
B) inside the cells.
C) in the bloodstream.
D) in intestinal secretions.
Q3) Babies should not be put to sleep with a bottle of formula because A) infants should not hold their own bottles.
B) this could lead to early tooth decay.
C) infants should not suck while asleep.
D) susceptibility to diarrhea is increased.
Q4) An example of a food that provides building material for tissue growth is A) bread.
B) cheese.
C) broccoli.
D) an orange.
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Chapter 12: Nutrition for Adults: the Early, Middle, and Later Years
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Q1) Older adults need more vitamin D than younger adults because they A) are less efficient at making their own.
B) are in a state of positive calcium balance.
C) excrete large amounts in their urine.
D) do not eat enough fat to absorb the vitamin efficiently.
Q2) For residents in long-term care facilities the type of diet model recommended is A) most restrictive.
B) least restrictive.
C) no sugar.
D) low protein.
Q3) Factors that influence the nutrition needs of young adults include A) growth.
B) climate.
C) personality type.
D) physical activity.
Q4) Energy requirements decrease as adults age because
A) older adults have less stress than younger adults.
B) younger adults are still growing; older adults are not.
C) the height of adults decreases with age.
D) the number of functioning body cells decreases with age.
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Chapter 13: Community Food Supply and Health
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Q1) To prevent food-borne parasitic infections,an important consideration for meat is to A) buy from a reliable source.
B) freeze before it is cooked.
C) cook thoroughly before eating.
D) store raw meat in air-tight packaging.
Q2) To increase shelf life,which of the following may be treated by irradiation?
A) apples
B) yogurt
C) hotdogs
D) milk
Q3) A health claim allowed by the Food and Drug Administration would be
A) low sodium and the prevention of hypertension.
B) a low-carbohydrate diet and the prevention of obesity.
C) supplemental vitamin A and the prevention of osteoporosis.
D) high protein intake and an increased risk of cancer.
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15
Chapter 14: Food Habits and Cultural Patterns
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Q1) Alcohol is strictly prohibited by
A) Jews.
B) Greeks.
C) African Americans.
D) Muslims.
Q2) In Mediterranean countries,the main cooking fat is
A) olive oil.
B) lard or shortening.
C) peanut oil.
D) butter.
Q3) An example of acculturation for a person immigrating from China to the United States would be
A) switching from rice to bread
B) continuing steamed rice with meals.
C) giving up fresh fruits with meals.
D) dressing in jeans occasionally.
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Chapter 15: Weight Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rate of weight loss by overweight adults should not exceed _____ lbs/week.
A) 1 to 2
B) 2 to 4
C) 3 to 5
D) 4 to 6
Q2) The hormone that tends to have the opposite effect to leptin is A) ghrelin.
B) secretin.
C) insulin.
D) peptidase.
Q3) In young,very fit adult men,the percentage of body weight that is fat is between
A) 3.0% and 5.5%.
B) 5.0% and 12.0%.
C) 7.0% and 15.8%.
D) 20.4% and 35.5%.
Q4) A 2-lb increase in fat is the kilocalorie equivalent of _____ kcal.
A) 1000
B) 3000
C) 3500
D) 7000
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Chapter 16: Nutrition and Physical Fitness
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Q1) For an athlete consuming a 3000 kcal diet,the recommended amount of calories from carbohydrate would be
A) 800 - 1050 kcal.
B) 950 - 1250 kcal.
C) 1300 - 1550 kcal.
D) 1350 - 1950 kcal.
Q2) The effect of exercise on blood lipoprotein levels is to A) decrease low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) and decrease high-density lipoproteins (HDLs).
B) increase LDLs and increase HDLs.
C) increase LDLs and decrease HDLs.
D) decrease LDLs and increase HDLs.
Q3) Long-term energy needs are provided by
A) glucose and fatty acids.
B) glycogen and fatty acids.
C) ascorbic acid and fatty acids.
D) glycogen and amino acids.
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Chapter 17: Nutrition Care
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Q1) An oral diet can be modified by
A) energy value, temperature, or cooking method.
B) nutrient content, temperature, or spice content.
C) energy value, energy density, or texture.
D) nutrient content, energy value, or texture.
Q2) "Limited oral intake related to fatigue and nausea as evidenced by average daily intake of calories less than 500 kcal and 8-lb weight loss during past 2 months" is an example of what phase of the nutrition care process?
A) diagnosis
B) intervention
C) assessment
D) monitoring
Q3) Methods used for nutrition assessment of patients include
A) computed tomographic scans.
B) laboratory tests.
C) physical therapy.
D) fitness testing.
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Chapter 18: Gastrointestinal and Accessory Organ
Problems
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Q1) Nutrition therapy for hepatitis includes a diet that is _____ in protein,_____ in carbohydrate,and _____ in fat.
A) high, high, high
B) low, high, low
C) low, low, high
D) high, high, moderate
Q2) A patient with a history of diverticulosis who complains of severe left lower quadrant pain with diarrhea,nausea,and vomiting should be evaluated for A) diverticulitis.
B) obstruction.
C) diarrhea.
D) celiac disease.
Q3) A cause of diarrhea is
A) drinking too much liquid with a meal.
B) lactose intolerance.
C) excessive intake of protein.
D) swallowing air while eating.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Coronary Heart Disease and Hypertension
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Q1) The underlying pathologic process in coronary heart disease appears to be
A) atrophy of the heart muscle.
B) weakened coronary vessels.
C) fibrous plaques in coronary vessels.
D) inadequate nutrition to the heart muscle.
Q2) Nutrition therapy for those with heart failure restricts sodium to A) 1.0 gram per day.
B) 1.5 grams per day.
C) 2.0 grams per day.
D) 2.5 grams per day
Q3) An example of a food that is recommended with the DASH eating plan is A) lemonade.
B) a fresh orange.
C) a bread roll.
D) bottled water.
Q4) An infarct in a major artery supplying the brain results in A) a myocardial infarction.
B) a coma.
C) a cerebrovascular accident.
D) hypertension.
21
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Chapter 20: Diabetes Mellitus
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Q1) Women with a history of gestational diabetes mellitus are at risk for developing A) chronic kidney disease.
B) type 2 diabetes.
C) type 1 diabetes.
D) morbid obesity.
Q2) A food that is not in the meat group of the Choose Your Foods: Exchange Lists for Diabetes is A) turkey. B) shrimp.
C) egg.
D) milk.
Q3) A food that represents one carbohydrate exchange would be A) 1 slice whole wheat bread
B) 1 cup vanilla ice cream
C) 5 ounces white tuna
D) 1 tsp margarine
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Chapter 21: Kidney Disease
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Q1) The patient treated by peritoneal dialysis can increase _____ intake.
A) protein
B) phosphorus
C) caloric
D) fat
Q2) The type of diet recommended for a person with a calcium stone depends on A) body weight.
B) the composition of the stone.
C) fiber intake.
D) fluid intake.
Q3) Patients with chronic renal disease may need to restrict their intake of foods high in phosphorus,such as
A) milk, nuts, and legumes.
B) meat, chicken, and fish.
C) bread, cereal, rice, and pasta.
D) fruit and potatoes.
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Chapter 22: Surgery and Nutrition Support
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Q1) The surgery in which the colon is attached to an opening in the abdominal wall is known as a(n)
A) cholecystectomy.
B) ileostomy.
C) colostomy.
D) jejunostomy.
Q2) Before general surgery,nothing is given by mouth for at least _____ hours.
A) 4
B) 8
C) 12
D) 24
Q3) Immediately following a gastrectomy,postoperative nutrition feedings are met by A) small frequent oral feedings.
B) jejunostomy feedings.
C) total parenteral nutrition.
D) an oral full liquid diet.
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Chapter 23: Nutrition Support in Cancer and Aids
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Q1) Patients who receive chemotherapeutic drugs often develop A) tremors.
B) anemia.
C) hypertension.
D) abnormal heart rhythms.
Q2) The cells responsible for synthesis and secretion of antibodies are the A) immunoglobulins.
B) T cells.
C) cells.
D) lymphocytes.
Q3) Cancer therapy that uses radioactive isotopes is A) surgery.
B) radiation.
C) chemotherapy.
D) x-rays.
Q4) Category 2 CD4 T-Lymphocyte values are defined as A) less than 200 cells/µL.
B) more than 200 cells/µL.
C) 200 to 499 cells/µL.
D) 800 to 1000 cells/µL.
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