Community Health Nursing Test Questions
Course Introduction
Community Health Nursing is a course that explores the principles and practices of nursing within the context of public health. It emphasizes health promotion, disease prevention, and the provision of care to individuals, families, and groups in diverse community settings. Students will learn to assess community health needs, develop and implement health education programs, and collaborate with interdisciplinary teams to address social determinants of health. The course also covers epidemiology, health policy, cultural competency, and strategies for vulnerable populations, preparing students to contribute effectively to the overall well-being of communities.
Recommended Textbook Maternity and Womens Health Care 11th Edition by Lowdermilk
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37 Chapters
1079 Verified Questions
1079 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/961 Page 2
Chapter 1: 21st Century Maternity and Womens Health Nursing
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18940
Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse is unsure how to perform a client care procedure that is high risk and low volume,his or her best action in this situation would be what?
A) Ask another nurse.
B) Discuss the procedure with the client's physician.
C) Look up the procedure in a nursing textbook.
D) Consult the agency procedure manual, and follow the guidelines for the procedure.
Answer: D
Q2) During a prenatal intake interview,the client informs the nurse that she would prefer a midwife to provide both her care during pregnancy and deliver her infant.Which information is most appropriate for the nurse to share with this client?
A) Midwifery care is only available to clients who are uninsured because their services are less expensive than an obstetrician.
B) She will receive fewer interventions during the birth process.
C) She should be aware that midwives are not certified.
D) Her delivery can take place only at home or in a birth center.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Community Care: The Family and Culture
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18941
Sample Questions
Q1) What is a limitation of a home postpartum visit?
A) Distractions limit the nurse's ability to teach.
B) Identified problems cannot be resolved in the home setting.
C) Necessary items for infant care are not available.
D) Home visits to different families may require the nurse to travel a great distance.
Answer: D
Q2) Which resource best describes a health care service representing the tertiary level of prevention?
A) Stress management seminars
B) Childbirth education classes for single parents
C) BSE pamphlet and teaching
D) Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) support group
Answer: D
Q3) Which statement regarding the Family Systems Theory is inaccurate?
A) Family system is part of a larger suprasystem.
B) Family, as a whole, is equal to the sum of the individual members.
C) Changes in one family member affect all family members.
D) Family is able to create a balance between change and stability.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Nursing and Genomics
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is 5 months pregnant.On a routine ultrasound scan,the physician discovers that the fetus has a diaphragmatic hernia.The woman becomes distraught and asks the nurse what she should do.Which response would be most suitable?
A) Talk to the client, and refer her to a genetic counselor.
B) Suggest that the client travel to a fetal treatment center for intrauterine surgery.
C) Tell her that everything is going to be fine.
D) Sit with the client, and calmly suggest that she consider terminating this pregnancy.
Answer: A
Q2) Which congenital malformations result from multifactorial inheritance? (Select all that apply).
A) Cleft lip
B) Congenital heart disease
C) Cri du chat syndrome
D) Anencephaly
E) Pyloric stenosis
Answer: A,B,D,E
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5
Chapter 4: Assessment and Health Promotion
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The unique muscle fibers that constitute the uterine myometrium make it ideally suited for what?
A) Menstruation
B) Birth process
C) Ovulation
D) Fertilization
Q2) A woman arrives at the clinic for her annual examination.She tells the nurse that she thinks she has a vaginal infection,and she has been using an over-the-counter cream for the past 2 days to treat it.How should the nurse initially respond?
A) Inform the woman that vaginal creams may interfere with the Papanicolaou (Pap) test for which she is scheduled.
B) Reassure the woman that using vaginal cream is not a problem for the examination.
C) Ask the woman to describe the symptoms that indicate to her that she has a vaginal infection.
D) Ask the woman to reschedule the appointment for the examination.
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Chapter 5: Violence Against Women
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is the most comprehensive description of sexual violence?
A) Sexual violence is limited to rape.
B) Sexual violence is an act of force during which an unwanted and uncomfortable sexual act occurs.
C) Sexual violence encompasses a number of sexual acts.
D) Sexual violence includes degrading sexual comments and behaviors.
Q2) What are the responsibilities of the nurse who suspects or confirms any type of violence against a woman?
(Select all that apply).
A) Report the incident to legal authorities.
B) Provide resources for domestic violence shelters.
C) Call a client advocate who can assist in the client's decision about what actions to take.
D) Accurately and concisely document the incident (or findings) in the client's record.
E) Reassure and support the client.
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Chapter 6: Reproductive System Concerns
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28 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) While interviewing a 31-year-old woman before her routine gynecologic examination,the nurse collects data about the client's recent menstrual cycles.Which statement by the client should prompt the nurse to collect further information?
A) "My menstrual flow lasts 5 to 6 days."
B) "My flow is very heavy."
C) "I have had a small amount of spotting midway between my periods for the past 2 months."
D) "The length of my menstrual cycles varies from 26 to 29 days."
Q2) The female athlete triad includes which common menstrual disorder?
A) Amenorrhea
B) Dysmenorrhea
C) Menorrhagia
D) Metrorrhagia
Q3) Black cohosh root
A)Uterine antispasmodic
B)Uterotonic
C)Antiinflammatory
D)Estrogen-like luteinizing hormone suppressant
E)Decreases prolactin levels
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Sexually Transmitted and Other Infections
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statements regarding the HPV are accurate? (Select all that apply).
HPV infections:
A) are thought to be less common in pregnant women than in women who are not pregnant.
B) are thought to be more common in pregnant women than in women who are not pregnant.
C) were previously called genital warts.
D) were previously called herpes.
E) may cause cancer.
Q2) Group B Streptococcus (GBS)is part of the normal vaginal flora in 20% to 30% of healthy pregnant women.GBS has been associated with poor pregnancy outcomes and is an important factor in neonatal morbidity and mortality.Which finding is not a risk factor for neonatal GBS infection?
A) Positive prenatal culture
B) Preterm birth at 37 weeks or less of gestation
C) Maternal temperature of 38° C or higher
D) Premature rupture of membranes (PROM) 24 hours or longer before the birth
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Chapter 8: Contraception and Abortion
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement regarding the term contraceptive failure rate is the most accurate?
A) The contraceptive failure rate refers to the percentage of users expected to have an accidental pregnancy over a 5-year span.
B) It refers to the minimum rate that must be achieved to receive a government license.
C) The contraceptive failure rate increases over time as couples become more careless.
D) It varies from couple to couple, depending on the method and the users.
Q2) Which nonpharmacologic contraceptive method has a failure rate of less than 25%?
A) Standard days' variation
B) Periodic abstinence
C) Postovulation
D) Coitus interruptus
Q3) The practice of the calendar rhythm method is based on the number of days in each menstrual cycle.The fertile period is determined after monitoring each cycle for 6 months.The beginning of the fertile period is estimated by subtracting 18 days from the longest cycle and 11 days from the shortest.If the woman's cycles vary in length from 24 to 30 days,then her fertile period would be day _____ through day ______.
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Chapter 9: Infertility
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27 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many factors,male and female,contribute to normal fertility.Approximately 40% of cases of infertility are related to the female partner.Which factors are possible causes for female infertility?
(Select all that apply).
A) Congenital or developmental
B) Hormonal or ovulatory
C) Tubal or peritoneal
D) Uterine
E) Emotional or psychologic
Q2) A couple arrives for their first appointment at an infertility center.Which of the following is a noninvasive test performed during the initial diagnostic phase of testing?
A) Hysterosalpingogram
B) Endometrial biopsy
C) Sperm analysis
D) Laparoscopy
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11
Chapter 10: Problems of the Breast
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18949
Sample Questions
Q1) After a mastectomy,which activity should the client be instructed to avoid?
A) Emptying surgical drains twice a day and as needed
B) Lifting more than 4.5 kg (10 lb) or reaching above her head until given permission by her surgeon
C) Wearing clothing with snug sleeves to support the tissue of the arm on the operative side
D) Immediately reporting inflammation that develops at the incision site or in the affected arm
Q2) Which client should the nurse refer for further testing?
A) Left breast slightly smaller than right breast
B) Eversion (elevation) of both nipples
C) Faintly visible bilateral symmetry of venous network
D) Small dimple located in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast
Q3) Having a genetic mutation may create an 85% chance of developing breast cancer in a woman's lifetime.Which condition does not increase a client's risk for breast cancer?
A) BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutation
B) Li-Fraumeni syndrome
C) Paget disease
D) Cowden syndrome
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Structural Disorders and Neoplasms of the Reproductive System
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18950
Sample Questions
Q1) The client has undergone hysteroscopic uterine ablation to destroy a number of smaller fibroids.The nurse is preparing to provide discharge instructions.Which information is a priority for the patient and should be included in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply).
A) Analgesics and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs can be used for pain control.
B) Vaginal discharge is to be expected for 5 to 7 days.
C) Sexual activity can be resumed after 48 hours.
D) Next menstrual period will be irregular.
E) Provider should be notified if heavy bleeding occurs.
Q2) Which ovarian neoplasm is described as a growth that contains hair,teeth,and sebaceous secretions?
A) Ovarian fibroma
B) Dermoid cyst
C) Uterine polyp
D) Follicular cyst
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13
Chapter 12: Conception and Fetal Development
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28 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18951
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman who is 8 months pregnant asks the nurse,"Does my baby have any antibodies to fight infection?" What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
A) "Your baby has all the immunoglobulins necessary: immunoglobulin G (IgG), immunoglobulin M (IgM), and immunoglobulin A (IgA)."
B) "Your baby won't receive any antibodies until he is born and you breastfeed him."
C) "Your baby does not have any antibodies to fight infection."
D) "Your baby has IgG and IgM."
Q2) A woman's cousin gave birth to an infant with a congenital heart anomaly.The woman asks the nurse when such anomalies occur during development.Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A) "We don't really know when such defects occur."
B) "It depends on what caused the defect."
C) "Defects occur between the third and fifth weeks of development."
D) "They usually occur in the first 2 weeks of development."
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14
Chapter 13: Anatomy and Physiology of Pregnancy
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of which physiologic alteration of the uterus during pregnancy is it important for the nurse to alert the patient?
A) Lightening occurs near the end of the second trimester as the uterus rises into a different position.
B) Woman's increased urinary frequency in the first trimester is the result of exaggerated uterine antireflexion caused by softening.
C) Braxton Hicks contractions become more painful in the third trimester, particularly if the woman tries to exercise.
D) Uterine souffle is the movement of the fetus.
Q2) Which statement best describes the rationale for the physiologic anemia that occurs during pregnancy?
A) Physiologic anemia involves an inadequate intake of iron.
B) Dilution of hemoglobin concentration occurs in pregnancy with physiologic anemia.
C) Fetus establishes the iron stores.
D) Decreased production of erythrocytes occur.
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15
Chapter 14: Nursing Care of the Family During Pregnancy
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement accurately describes the centering model of care?
A) Group sessions begin with the first prenatal visit.
B) Blood pressure (BP), weight, and urine dipsticks are obtained by the nurse at each visit.
C) Approximately 8 to 12 women are placed in each gestational-age cohort group.
D) Outcomes are similar to traditional prenatal care.
Q2) During the initial visit with a client who is beginning prenatal care,which action should be the highest priority for the nurse?
A) The first interview is a relaxed, get-acquainted affair during which the nurse gathers some general impressions of his or her new client.
B) If the nurse observed handicapping conditions, he or she should be sensitive and not inquire about them because the client will do that in her own time.
C) The nurse should be alert to the appearance of potential parenting problems, such as depression or lack of family support.
D) Because of legal complications, the nurse should not ask about illegal drug use; that is left to the physician.
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16
Chapter 15: Maternal and Fetal Nutrition
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18954
Sample Questions
Q1) Amniotic fluid
A)0.5 to 1.8
B)1.8 to 2.3
C)3.2 to 3.9
D)0.9
E)0.9 to 1.1
Q2) To prevent gastrointestinal (GI)upset,when should a pregnant client be instructed to take the recommended iron supplements?
A) On a full stomach
B) At bedtime
C) After eating a meal
D) With milk
Q3) A pregnant woman's diet consists almost entirely of whole grain breads and cereals,fruits,and vegetables.Which dietary requirement is the nurse most concerned about?
A) Calcium
B) Protein
C) Vitamin B
D) Folic acid
Q4) The BMI for a woman who is 51 kg before pregnancy and 1.57 m tall is _________.
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Chapter 16: Labor and Birth Processes
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28 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which presentation is accurately described in terms of both the resenting part and the frequency of occurrence?
A) Cephalic: occiput, at least 96%
B) Breech: sacrum, 10% to 15%
C) Shoulder: scapula, 10% to 15%
D) Cephalic: cranial, 80% to 85%
Q2) The nurse expects which maternal cardiovascular finding during labor?
A) Increased cardiac output
B) Decreased pulse rate
C) Decreased white blood cell (WBC) count
D) Decreased blood pressure
Q3) Which statement by the client would lead the nurse to believe that labor has been established?
A) "I passed some thick, pink mucus when I urinated this morning."
B) "My bag of waters just broke."
C) "The contractions in my uterus are getting stronger and closer together."
D) "My baby dropped, and I have to urinate more frequently now."
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18
Chapter 17: Maximizing Comfort for the Laboring Woman
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34 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman has requested an epidural block for her pain.She is 5 cm dilated and 100% effaced.The baby is in a vertex position and is engaged.The nurse increases the woman's IV fluid for a preprocedural bolus.Before the initiation of the epidural,the woman should be informed regarding the disadvantages of an epidural block.Which concerns should the nurse share with this client?
(Select all that apply).
A) Ability to move freely is limited.
B) Orthostatic hypotension and dizziness may occur.
C) Gastric emptying is not delayed.
D) Higher body temperature may occur.
E) Blood loss is not excessive.
Q2) Nurses with an understanding of cultural differences regarding likely reactions to pain may be better able to help their clients.Which clients may initially appear very stoic but then become quite vocal as labor progresses until late in labor,when they become more vocal and request pain relief?
A) Chinese
B) Arab or Middle Eastern
C) Hispanic
D) African-American
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Fetal Assessment During Labor
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which FHR decelerations would require the nurse to change the maternal position?
(Select all that apply).
A) Early decelerations
B) Late decelerations
C) Variable decelerations
D) Moderate decelerations
E) Prolonged decelerations
Q2) Peaking at 40 to 70 mm Hg in the first stage of labor
A)Frequency
B)Duration
C)Strength
D)Resting tone
E)Relaxation time
Q3) What is the correct placement of the tocotransducer for effective EFM?
A) Over the uterine fundus
B) On the fetal scalp
C) Inside the uterus
D) Over the mother's lower abdomen
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Chapter 19: Nursing Care of the Family During Labor and Birth
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18958
Sample Questions
Q1) A primigravida at 39 weeks of gestation is observed for 2 hours in the intrapartum unit.The FHR has been normal.Contractions are 5 to 9 minutes apart,20 to 30 seconds in duration,and of mild intensity.Cervical dilation is 1 to 2 cm and uneffaced (unchanged from admission).Membranes are intact.What disposition would the nurse anticipate?
A) Admitted and prepared for a cesarean birth
B) Admitted for extended observation
C) Discharged home with a sedative
D) Discharged home to await the onset of true labor
Q2) Which information regarding the procedures and criteria for admitting a woman to the hospital labor unit is important for the nurse to understand?
A) Client is considered to be in active labor when she arrives at the facility with contractions.
B) Client can have only her male partner or predesignated doula with her at assessment.
C) Children are not allowed on the labor unit.
D) Non-English speaking client must bring someone to translate.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Postpartum Physiologic Changes
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26 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two days ago a woman gave birth to a full-term infant.Last night she awakened several times to urinate and noted that her gown and bedding were wet from profuse diaphoresis.Which physiologic alteration is the cause for the diaphoresis and diuresis that this client is experiencing?
A) Elevated temperature caused by postpartum infection
B) Increased basal metabolic rate after giving birth
C) Loss of increased blood volume associated with pregnancy
D) Increased venous pressure in the lower extremities
Q2) Dehydrating effects of labor
A)Elevated temperature within the first 24 hours
B)Rapid pulse
C)Elevated temperature at 36 hours postpartum
D)Hypertension
E)Hypoventilation
Q3) Excessive use of oxytocin
A)Elevated temperature within the first 24 hours
B)Rapid pulse
C)Elevated temperature at 36 hours postpartum
D)Hypertension
E)Hypoventilation
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Chapter 21: Nursing Care of the Family During the
Postpartum Period
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What information should the nurse understand fully regarding rubella and Rh status?
A) Breastfeeding mothers cannot be vaccinated with the live attenuated rubella virus.
B) Women should be warned that the rubella vaccination is teratogenic and that they must avoid pregnancy for at least 1 month after vaccination.
C) Rh immunoglobulin is safely administered intravenously because it cannot harm a nursing infant.
D) Rh immunoglobulin boosts the immune system and thereby enhances the effectiveness of vaccinations.
Q2) Korean or other South East Asian countries
A)Prefer not to give babies colostrum.
B)Eat only warm foods and hot drinks.
C)Take the placenta home to bury.
D)Will not eat pork or pork products.
E)Have an intrauterine device (IUD) inserted after the first child.
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23
Chapter 22: Transition to Parenthood
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29 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The transition to parenting for same-sex couples can present unique challenges.How can the nurse foster adjustment to parenting for these clients?
(Select all that apply).
A) Use a supplemental feeding device to simulate breastfeeding.
B) Allow the partner to cut the cord.
C) Gay fathers should meet their new infant soon after the birth mother has recovered.
D) Understand that strong social sanctions remain.
E) Provide information regarding support groups.
Q2) When the infant's behaviors and characteristics call forth a corresponding set of maternal behaviors and characteristics,what is the correct term for this behavior?
A) Mutuality
B) Bonding
C) Claiming
D) Acquaintance
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Chapter 23: Physiologic and Behavioral Adaptations of the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cardiovascular changes cause the foramen ovale to close at birth?
A) Increased pressure in the right atrium
B) Increased pressure in the left atrium
C) Decreased blood flow to the left ventricle
D) Changes in the hepatic blood flow
Q2) While evaluating the reflexes of a newborn,the nurse notes that with a loud noise the newborn symmetrically abducts and extends his arms,his fingers fan out and form a C with the thumb and forefinger,and he has a slight tremor.The nurse would document this finding as a positive _____ reflex.
A) tonic neck
B) glabellar (Myerson)
C) Babinski
D) Moro
Q3) Which statement best describes the transition period between intrauterine and extrauterine existence for the newborn?
A) Consists of four phases, two reactive and two of decreased responses
B) Lasts from birth to day 28 of life
C) Applies to full-term births only
D) Varies by socioeconomic status and the mother's age
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Nursing Care of the Newborn and Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) Screening for critical congenital heart disease (CCHD)was added to the uniform screening panel in 2011.The nurse has explained this testing to the new mother.Which action by the nurse related to this test is correct?
A) Screening is performed when the infant is 12 hours of age.
B) Testing is performed with an electrocardiogram.
C) Oxygen (O ) is measured in both hands and in the right foot.
D) A passing result is an O saturation of ³95%.
Q2) If the newborn has excess secretions,the mouth and nasal passages can be easily cleared with a bulb syringe.How should the nurse instruct the parents on the use of this instrument?
A) Avoid suctioning the nares.
B) Insert the compressed bulb into the center of the mouth.
C) Suction the mouth first.
D) Remove the bulb syringe from the crib when finished.
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Chapter 25: Newborn Nutrition and Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Baby Friendly Hospital Initiative endorsed by the World Health Organization (WHO)and the United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF)was founded to encourage institutions to offer optimal levels of care for lactating mothers.Which actions are included in the "Ten Steps to Successful Breastfeeding for Hospitals"? (Select all that apply).
A) Give newborns no food or drink other than breast milk.
B) Have a written breastfeeding policy that is communicated to all staff members.
C) Help mothers initiate breastfeeding within ½ hour of childbirth.
D) Give artificial teats or pacifiers as necessary.
E) Return infants to the nursery at night.
Q2) The nurse is explaining the benefits associated with breastfeeding to a new mother.Which statement by the nurse would provide conflicting information to the client?
A) Women who breastfeed have a decreased risk of breast cancer.
B) Breastfeeding is an effective method of birth control.
C) Breastfeeding increases bone density.
D) Breastfeeding may enhance postpartum weight loss.
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Chapter 26: Assessment of High Risk Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which clinical finding is a major use of ultrasonography in the first trimester?
A) Amniotic fluid volume
B) Presence of maternal abnormalities
C) Placental location and maturity
D) Cervical length
Q2) How does the nurse document a NST during which two or more FHR accelerations of 15 beats per minute or more occur with fetal movement in a 20-minute period?
A) Nonreactive
B) Positive
C) Negative
D) Reactive
Q3) The nurse is planning the care for a laboring client with diabetes mellitus.This client is at greater risk for which clinical finding?
A) Oligohydramnios
B) Polyhydramnios
C) Postterm pregnancy
D) Chromosomal abnormalities
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Chapter 27: Hypertensive Disorders
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18966
Sample Questions
Q1) The client has been on magnesium sulfate for 20 hours for the treatment of preeclampsia.She just delivered a viable infant girl 30 minutes ago.What uterine findings does the nurse expect to observe or assess in this client?
A) Absence of uterine bleeding in the postpartum period
B) Fundus firm below the level of the umbilicus
C) Scant lochia flow
D) Boggy uterus with heavy lochia flow
Q2) A woman with worsening preeclampsia is admitted to the hospital's labor and birth unit.The physician explains the plan of care for severe preeclampsia,including the induction of labor,to the woman and her husband.Which statement by the husband leads the nurse to believe that the couple needs further information?
A) "I will help my wife use the breathing techniques that we learned in our childbirth classes."
B) "I will give my wife ice chips to eat during labor."
C) "Since we will be here for a while, I will call my mother so she can bring the two boys-2 years and 4 years of age-to visit their mother."
D) "I will stay with my wife during her labor, just as we planned."
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Chapter 28: Hemorrhagic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman is being discharged from the hospital after the placement of a cervical cerclage because of a history of recurrent pregnancy loss,secondary to an incompetent cervix.Which information regarding postprocedural care should the nurse emphasize in the discharge teaching?
A) Any vaginal discharge should be immediately reported to her health care provider.
B) The presence of any contractions, rupture of membranes (ROM), or severe perineal pressure should be reported.
C) The client will need to make arrangements for care at home, because her activity level will be restricted.
D) The client will be scheduled for a cesarean birth.
Q2) What is the correct definition of a spontaneous termination of a pregnancy (abortion)?
A) Pregnancy is less than 20 weeks.
B) Fetus weighs less than 1000g.
C) Products of conception are passed intact.
D) No evidence exists of intrauterine infection.
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Chapter 29: Endocrine and Metabolic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which preexisting factor is known to increase the risk of GDM?
A) Underweight before pregnancy
B) Maternal age younger than 25 years
C) Previous birth of large infant
D) Previous diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus
Q2) Step 1
A)Without adding air, withdraw the correct dose of NPH insulin.
B)Gently rotate the insulin to mix it, and wipe the stopper.
C)Inject air equal to the dose of NPH insulin into the vial, and remove the syringe.
D)Inject air equal to the dose of regular insulin into the vial, and withdraw the medication.
E)Check the insulin bottles for the expiration date.
F)Wash hands.
Q3) The nurse who is caring for a woman hospitalized for hyperemesis gravidarum would expect the initial treatment to involve what?
A) Corticosteroids to reduce inflammation
B) Intravenous (IV) therapy to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances
C) Antiemetic medication, such as pyridoxine, to control nausea and vomiting
D) Enteral nutrition to correct nutritional deficits
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Medical-Surgical Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman has experienced iron deficiency anemia during her pregnancy.She had been taking iron for 3 months before the birth.The client gave birth by cesarean 2 days earlier and has been having problems with constipation.After assisting her back to bed from the bathroom,the nurse notes that the woman's stools are dark (greenish-black).What should the nurse's initial action be?
A) Perform a guaiac test, and record the results.
B) Recognize the finding as abnormal, and report it to the primary health care provider.
C) Recognize the finding as a normal result of iron therapy.
D) Check the woman's next stool to validate the observation.
Q2) Bell palsy is an acute idiopathic facial paralysis,the cause for which remains unknown.Which statement regarding this condition is correct?
A) Bell palsy is the sudden development of bilateral facial weakness.
B) Women with Bell palsy have an increased risk for hypertension.
C) Pregnant women are affected twice as often as nonpregnant women.
D) Bell palsy occurs most frequently in the first trimester.
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Chapter 31: Mental Health Disorders and Substance Abuse
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Q1) During an inpatient psychiatric hospitalization,what is the most important nursing intervention?
A) Contacting the client's significant other
B) Supervising and guiding visits with her infant
C) Allowing no contact with anyone who annoys her
D) Having the infant with the mother at all times
Q2) While providing care to the maternity client,the nurse should be aware that one of these anxiety disorders is likely to be triggered by the process of labor and birth.Which disorder fits this criterion?
A) Phobias
B) Panic disorder
C) Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
D) Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
Q3) When a woman is diagnosed with postpartum depression (PPD)with psychotic features,what is the nurse's primary concern in planning the client's care?
A) Displaying outbursts of anger
B) Neglecting her hygiene
C) Harming her infant
D) Losing interest in her husband
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Labor and Birth Complications
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Q1) The nurse who elects to work in the specialty of obstetric care must have the ability to distinguish between preterm birth,preterm labor,and low birth weight.Which statement regarding this terminology is correct?
A) Terms preterm birth and low birth weight can be used interchangeably.
B) Preterm labor is defined as cervical changes and uterine contractions occurring between 20 and 37 weeks of gestation.
C) Low birth weight is a newborn who weighs below 3.7 pounds.
D) Preterm birth rate in the United States continues to increase.
Q2) In planning for home care of a woman with preterm labor,which concern should the nurse need to address?
A) Nursing assessments are different from those performed in the hospital setting.
B) Restricted activity and medications are necessary to prevent a recurrence of preterm labor.
C) Prolonged bed rest may cause negative physiologic effects.
D) Home health care providers are necessary.
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Chapter 33: Postpartum Complications
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Q1) Lacerations of the cervix,vagina,or perineum are also causes of PPH.Which factors influence the causes and incidence of obstetric lacerations of the lower genital tract? (Select all that apply).
A) Operative and precipitate births
B) Adherent retained placenta
C) Abnormal presentation of the fetus
D) Congenital abnormalities of the maternal soft tissue
E) Previous scarring from infection
Q2) The most effective and least expensive treatment of puerperal infection is prevention.What is the most important strategy for the nurse to adopt?
A) Large doses of vitamin C during pregnancy
B) Prophylactic antibiotics
C) Strict aseptic technique, including hand washing, by all health care personnel
D) Limited protein and fat intake
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Chapter 34: Nursing Care of the High Risk Newborn
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Q1) Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)is an inflammatory disease of the gastrointestinal mucosa.The signs of NEC are nonspecific.What are generalized signs and symptoms of this condition?
A) Hypertonia, tachycardia, and metabolic alkalosis
B) Abdominal distention, temperature instability, and grossly bloody stools
C) Hypertension, absence of apnea, and ruddy skin color
D) Scaphoid abdomen, no residual with feedings, and increased urinary output
Q2) Which risk factors are associated with NEC?
(Select all that apply).
A) Polycythemia
B) Anemia
C) Congenital heart disease
D) Bronchopulmonary dysphasia
E) Retinopathy
Q3) When providing an infant with a gavage feeding,which infant assessment should be documented each time?
A) Abdominal circumference after the feeding
B) Heart rate and respirations before feeding
C) Suck and swallow coordination
D) Response to the feeding
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Chapter 35: Acquired Problems of the Newborn
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Q1) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)may be transmitted perinatally or during the postpartum period.Which statement regarding the method of transmission is most accurate?
A) Only in the third trimester from the maternal circulation
B) From the use of unsterile instruments
C) Only through the ingestion of amniotic fluid
D) Through the ingestion of breast milk from an infected mother
Q2) A 3.8-kg infant was vaginally delivered at 39 weeks after a 30-minute second stage.A nuchal cord was found at delivery.After birth,the infant is noted to have petechiae over the face and upper back.Which information regarding petechiae is most accurate and should be provided to the parents?
A) Are benign if they disappear within 48 hours of birth
B) Result from increased blood volume
C) Should always be further investigated
D) Usually occur with a forceps-assisted delivery
Q3) What is the most important nursing action in preventing neonatal infection?
A) Good handwashing
B) Isolation of infected infants
C) Separate gown technique
D) Standard Precautions
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Chapter 36: Hemolytic Disorders and Congenital
Anomalies
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Q1) Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a newborn diagnosed with a diaphragmatic hernia?
A) Risk for impaired parent-infant attachment
B) Imbalanced nutrition, related to less than body requirements
C) Risk for infection
D) Impaired gas exchange
Q2) The nurse is instructing a family how to care for their infant in a Pavlik harness to treat DDH.What information should be included in the teaching?
A) Apply lotion or powder to minimize skin irritation.
B) Remove the harness several times a day to prevent contractures.
C) Return to the clinic every 1 to 2 weeks.
D) Place a diaper over the harness, preferably using an absorbent disposable diaper.
Q3) A neonate is born with mild clubfeet.When the parents ask the nurse how this will be corrected,how should the nurse respond?
A) Traction is tried first.
B) Surgical intervention is needed.
C) Frequent, serial casting is tried first.
D) Children outgrow this condition when they learn to walk.
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Chapter 37: Perinatal Loss, Bereavement, and Grief
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Q1) During a follow-up home visit,the nurse plans to evaluate whether parents have progressed to the second stage of grieving (phase of intense grief).Which behavior would the nurse not anticipate finding?
A) Guilt, particularly in the mother
B) Numbness or lack of response
C) Bitterness or irritability
D) Fear and anxiety, especially about getting pregnant again
Q2) Which finding would indicate to the nurse that the grieving parents have progressed to the reorganization phase of grieving?
A) The parents say that they "feel no pain."
B) The parents are discussing sex and a future pregnancy, even if they have not yet sorted out their feelings.
C) The parents have abandoned those moments of "bittersweet grief."
D) The parents' questions have progressed from "Why?" to "Why us?"
Q3) Which statement most accurately describes complicated grief?
A) Occurs when, in multiple births, one child dies and the other or others live
B) Is a state during which the parents are ambivalent, as with an abortion
C) Is an extremely intense grief reaction that persists for a long time
D) Is felt by the family of adolescent mothers who lose their babies
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