Community Health Nursing
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Community Health Nursing focuses on the promotion, maintenance, and restoration of health within communities through the application of nursing knowledge, public health principles, and evidence-based practice. The course covers strategies for disease prevention, health education, and the delivery of care to diverse populations in various community settings. Students will explore topics such as epidemiology, environmental health, family and cultural considerations, health policy, and the assessment of community health needs. Through both theoretical learning and practical experiences, learners develop skills to collaborate with individuals, families, and organizations to address health disparities and improve population health outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Maternal and Child Nursing Care 5th Edition by Marcia L London
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57 Chapters
1275 Verified Questions
1275 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Contemporary Maternal, Newborn, and Child Health Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assisting with the design of a study to analyze changes in maternal mortality. What should the nurse keep in mind when planning the design? Select all that apply.
A) The marital status of maternity clients
B) The use of hospitals by maternity clients
C) The prevention of infection with antibiotics
D) The availability of blood products for transfusions
E) The establishment of care centers for high-risk mothers
Answer: B,C,D,E
Q2) A female client is considering ovulation-inducing medications to achieve pregnancy. What should the nurse explain as potential adverse effects of this type of assisted reproductive technology (ART)? Select all that apply.
A) Miscarriage
B) Preterm birth
C) Neonatal morbidity
D) Multifetal pregnancy
E) Pelvic inflammatory disease
Answer: A,B,C,D
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Chapter 2: Culture and the Family
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Q1) The charge nurse is reviewing the healthcare plans written by the unit's staff nurses. Which NANDA nursing diagnosis is most likely to be construed as culturally biased and possibly offensive?
A) Fear related to separation from support system during hospitalization
B) Spiritual Distress related to discrepancy between beliefs and prescribed treatment
C) Interrupted Family Processes related to a shift in family roles secondary to demands of illness
D) Impaired verbal communication related to recent immigration from non-English-speaking area
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Genetic and Genomic Influences in Maternal, Newborn,
and
Child Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient scheduled for genetic testing is concerned that an employer will learn about the testing and terminate the patient's employment. How should the nurse respond to this patient?
A) "There really is not anything that can be done."
B) "The insurance company has to report the testing to the employer."
C) "Your employer will have this information from the healthcare claim."
D) "There is a federal law prohibiting employers from using genetic information for employment purposes."
Answer: D
Q2) A family is scheduled for a genetic consultation. What should the nurse explain to the family about this appointment? Select all that apply.
A) A diagnosis will be made.
B) Photographs may be taken.
C) An interview will be conducted.
D) A geneticist will examine the child.
E) The appointment can last several hours.
Answer: B,C,D,E
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Chapter 4: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The school nurse is teaching a health class to middle school children. Which structure should the nurse explain as secreting follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)?
A) Hypothalamus
B) Anterior pituitary
C) Posterior pituitary
D) Ovaries and testes
Q2) A pregnant client asks, "What's the difference between the true pelvis and the false pelvis?" How should the nurse respond?
A) "The false pelvis helps support the weight of the pregnant uterus."
B) "The false pelvis consists of the inlet, the pelvic cavity, and the outlet."
C) "The true pelvis does not affect fetal passage during labor and childbirth."
D) "The true pelvis helps direct the presenting fetal part into the false pelvis."
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Chapter 5: Health Promotion for Women
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Q1) A 16-year-old girl asks, "Do I need to have a Pap smear just because I'm sexually active?" What is the nurse's correct response?
A) "No, you do not need to be screened for cervical cancer until you are 21 years old."
B) "Yes, all sexually active females should be screened for both cervical cancer and human papilloma virus (HPV)."
C) "Yes, all women under the age of 29 should be screened for both cervical cancer and human papilloma virus (HPV)."
D) "No, but you will need to begin your screenings for both cervical cancer and human papilloma virus (HPV) when you are 18 years old."
Q2) A client comes to the clinic complaining of severe menstrual cramps. She has never been pregnant, has been diagnosed with ovarian cysts, and has had an intrauterine device (IUD) for 2 years. What is the most likely reason for this client's complaint?
A) Menorrhagia
B) Hypermenorrhea
C) Primary dysmenorrhea
D) Secondary dysmenorrhea
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Chapter 6: Common Gynecologic Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with endometriosis. Which statement by the client requires immediate follow-up?
A) "I've noticed my voice is lower since I started taking danazol."
B) "I am having many hot flashes since I had the Lupron injection."
C) "The pain I experience with intercourse is becoming more severe."
D) "My leg has become painful and swollen since I started taking birth control pills."
Q2) The nurse is preparing a brochure that compares and contrasts cystitis and pyelonephritis. Which information should be included in the brochure?
A) Urine culture is included in the evaluation of both cystitis and pyelonephritis.
B) Dysuria, especially at the end of urination, is often the initial symptom of both conditions.
C) Both conditions usually present with sudden onset of chills, high temperature, and flank pain.
D) Both conditions are associated with pregnancy complications including increased risk of preterm birth and of intrauterine growth restriction.
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8
Chapter 7: Conception and Fetal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A young woman claims that contraception is not needed because she avoids intercourse on the day of ovulation. How should the nurse instruct this patient?
A) Sperm survive 48 to 72 hours in the female reproductive tract.
B) After ovulation, ova are considered fertile for about 72 to 96 hours.
C) Sperm are believed to be healthy and highly fertile for at least 5 days.
D) Refraining from intercourse on the day of ovulation will effectively prevent pregnancy.
Q2) The nurse is preparing information about reproduction for high school students. What should the nurse include about the production of sperm? Select all that apply.
A) Diploid cells are formed.
B) Sperm cells develop through meiotic division.
C) Four spermatids are formed during the second meiotic division.
D) Spermatocytes contain either a double-structured X or Y sex chromosome.
E) Two secondary spermatocytes contain 22 double-structured autosomal chromosomes.
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9
Chapter 8: Physical and Psychologic Changes of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient in the prenatal clinic believes she is pregnant because she has not menstruated for 3 months, and her breasts are getting bigger. What response by the nurse is best?
A) "Lack of menses and breast enlargement are presumptive signs of pregnancy."
B) "The changes you are describing are definitely indicators that you are pregnant."
C) "Lack of menses can be caused by many things. We need to do a pregnancy test."
D) "Breast and menstrual changes are positive signs of pregnancy. Congratulations."
Q2) The partner of a pregnant client at 16 weeks' gestation accompanies her to the clinic. The partner tells you that the baby just does not seem real to him, and he is having a hard time relating to his partner's fatigue and food aversions. Which statement would be best for the nurse to make?
A) "Many men feel this way. Feeling the baby move will help make it real."
B) "My husband had no problem with this. What was your childhood like?"
C) "You might need professional psychologic counseling. Ask your physician."
D) "If you would concentrate harder, you would be aware of the reality of this pregnancy."
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Chapter 9: Antepartum Nursing Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prenatal clinic nurse is designing a new prenatal intake information form for pregnant clients. Which question is the most important to include on this form?
A) What is the name of the baby's father?
B) Where was the father of the baby born?
C) Are you married to the father of the baby?
D) Do genetic diseases run in the family of the baby's father?
Q2) The nurse is seeing prenatal clients in the clinic. Which client is exhibiting expected findings?
A) Primipara at 26 weeks with fundal height of 30 cm
B) Multipara at 12 weeks who reports bright red vaginal bleeding
C) Multipara at 22 weeks who reports no fetal movement felt yet
D) Primipara at 12 weeks with fetal heart tones heard by Doppler fetoscope
Q3) The nurse is assessing a 25-year-old primigravida who is 20 weeks pregnant. Which vital signs finding should the nurse report immediately to the physician?
A) Pulse 88/min
B) Respirations 30/min
C) Blood pressure 134/82
D) Temperature 37.4°C (99.3°F)
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11
Chapter 10: The Expectant Family: Needs and Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching an early pregnancy class for clients in the first trimester of pregnancy. Which statement requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
A) "When my nausea is bad, I will drink some ginger tea."
B) "It is normal for my vaginal discharge to get green colored."
C) "I will urinate less often during the middle of my pregnancy."
D) "The fatigue I am experiencing will improve in the second trimester."
Q2) A 23-year-old client who is at 10 weeks' gestation with a first pregnancy expresses worry over feeling no sexual desire for her spouse and asks if this is normal. How should the nurse respond?
A) "That's unusual. Throughout a healthy pregnancy, sexual desire usually increases with each trimester."
B) "That's unusual. Usually, there are minimal changes in sexual desire throughout a healthy pregnancy."
C) "That sounds normal. In many cases, sexual desire decreases in the first trimester, but it increases again during the second trimester."
D) "That sounds normal. During the first trimester, sexual desire often decreases; however, by the third trimester, sexual desire is usually greater than before pregnancy."
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Chapter 11: Maternal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is planning an educational session for pregnant clients who are vegans. What information should the nurse include?
A) Vegan diets are high in iron.
B) Rice contains a high level of vitamin B<sub>12</sub>.
C) Soy is not a good source of protein for vegans.
D) Eating beans and rice provides complete protein needs.
Q2) The nurse reviews nutritional requirements with a breastfeeding mother who is concerned that her milk production has decreased. Which statement indicates that further teaching is required?
A) "I have started cutting back on my protein intake."
B) "At least 3 times a day, I drink a glass of milk."
C) "I am drinking a minimum of 8 to 10 glasses of liquid a day."
D) "I try to take a nap in the morning and afternoon when the baby is sleeping."
Q3) The nurse is leading a session on nutrition for postpartum clients. Which statement indicates that teaching has been effective?
A) "Breastfeeding requires that I eat lots of protein daily."
B) "Because I am breastfeeding, I need a low calcium intake."
C) "Since I am bottlefeeding, I don't have to eat vegetables."
D) "Bottlefeeding moms like me require a high sodium intake."
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Pregnancy in Selected Populations
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Q1) An adolescent at 20 weeks' gestation states that it is important not to have a baby that weighs too much. She has been limiting her calories so that her current weight has dropped from 110 pounds to 106 pounds. How should the nurse respond?
A) "You are causing harm to your baby."
B) "You shouldn't be worrying about your figure."
C) "Your baby needs adequate nutrition to develop."
D) "It's okay to want a small baby when you're a teen."
Q2) The nurse is preparing a presentation on psychosocial issues of older pregnant clients. What should the nurse include in this presentation? Select all that apply.
A) Social isolation
B) Financial issues
C) Pending mortality
D) Managing adverse effects
E) Family's and friends' attitudes
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14
Chapter 13: Assessment of Fetal Well-Being
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client at 20 weeks' gestation is scheduled for a transabdominal ultrasound. What should the nurse instruct this client about the examination? Select all that apply.
A) "The entire procedure takes between 20 and 30 minutes."
B) "Arrive 30 minutes before the examination so pain medication will be effective."
C) "Transmission gel will be spread over the abdomen during the examination."
D) "Use an over-the-counter enema to empty the colon before the examination."
E) "Drink 1.5 quarts of water 2 hours before the exam and refrain from voiding."
Q2) The nurse is reviewing clients who would benefit from a biophysical profile (BPP). Which clients should the nurse identify as a priority? Select all that apply.
A) A gravida who is postterm
B) A gravida with intrauterine growth restriction
C) A gravida with mild hypertension of pregnancy
D) A gravida who is experiencing nausea and vomiting
E) A gravida who complains of decreased fetal movement for 2 days
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15
Chapter 14: Pregnancy at Risk: Pregestational Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant client is diagnosed with a cardiac problem. What should the nurse prepare to instruct this client to do, to ensure a safe pregnancy? Select all that apply.
A) Restrict activities.
B) Follow a diet high in iron and protein.
C) Restrict the intake of sodium.
D) Obtain 8 to 10 hours of sleep.
E) Obtain pneumococcal vaccination.
Q2) After completing a physical assessment the nurse determines that a laboring client is experiencing a panic attack. What findings did the nurse use to make this clinical determination? Select all that apply.
A) Flat affect
B) Monotone replies
C) Heart rate 120 bpm
D) Respiratory rate 28/minute
E) Disoriented to place and time
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Chapter 15: Pregnancy at Risk: Gestational Onset
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Q1) The nurse receives the following report on a client who delivered 36 hours ago: para 1, rubella immune, A-negative, antibody screen negative, newborn B-positive, Coombs negative, discharge orders are written for both mother and newborn. What should be the priority action by the nurse?
A) Administer rubella vaccine.
B) Ask if she is breast- or bottlefeeding.
C) Determine if RhoGAM has been given.
D) Discuss the discharge education with the client.
Q2) A pregnant client diagnosed with Chlamydia trachomatis infection is refusing treatment. What effects on the fetus should the nurse explain might occur if treatment is waived? Select all that apply.
A) Fetal death
B) Premature labor
C) Newborn conjunctivitis
D) Chlamydial pneumonia
E) Ophthalmia neonatorum
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Chapter 16: Processes and Stages of Labor and Birth
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Q1) The primiparous client at 39 weeks' gestation calls the clinic and reports increased bladder pressure but easier breathing and irregular, mild contractions. She also states that she just cleaned the entire house. Which statement should the nurse make?
A) "You should not work so much at this point in pregnancy."
B) "Your body may be telling you it is going into labor soon."
C) "If the bladder pressure continues, come in to the clinic tomorrow."
D) "What you are describing is not commonly experienced in the last weeks."
Q2) The nurse is teaching a prenatal class. What characteristics about false labor should the nurse include? Select all that apply.
A) Increased thin vaginal secretions
B) Pain in the abdomen that does not radiate
C) Progressive cervical effacement and dilatation
D) Contractions that do not intensify while walking
E) An increase in the intensity and frequency of contractions
Q3) Which client requires immediate intervention by the labor and delivery nurse?
A) Primipara in active labor with urine output of 100 mL/hour
B) Primipara that delivered 1 hour ago with white blood cells (WBCs) of 50,000
C) Multipara at 8 cm, systolic blood pressure has increased 35 mm Hg
D) Multipara at 5 cm with a respiratory rate of 22 between contractions
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Intrapartum Nursing Assessment
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Q1) A client's fetal heart rate has a sinusoidal pattern. What should the nurse consider as being the reason for this pattern? Select all that apply.
A) Fetal anemia
B) Chronic fetal bleed
C) Severe fetal hypoxia
D) Maternal hypotension
E) Umbilical cord compression
Q2) The baseline fetal heart rate is 135 beats per minute. Following contractions, the fetus develops late decelerations. Which nursing intervention should be implemented first?
A) Facilitate a maternal left lateral position.
B) Alert the healthcare provider of the fetal status.
C) Decrease the rate of infusion of intravenous fluids.
D) Administer oxygen to the client at 4 L per minute via nasal cannula.
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Chapter 18: The Family in Childbirth: Needs and Care
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Q1) The nurse is preparing to admit a pregnant client who is Muslim to the birthing center. What should the nurse keep in mind during the labor process? Select all that apply.
A) Have long-sleeved gowns available.
B) Offer warm fluids to sip during the labor process.
C) Ask the spouse for permission before examining the client.
D) Ensure female healthcare providers examine the client.
E) Provide the spouse with water to cleanse the newborn upon birth.
Q2) Five minutes after delivery, the neonate's body is pink with blue extremities. The heart rate is
150) The infant demonstrates a vigorous cry and good respiratory effort, and is actively moving. His elbows and hips are flexed, with his knees positioned up toward his abdomen. When the nurse flicks the soles of his feet, the neonate withdraws his leg. Which nursing interventions are appropriate?
A) Rescue breathing and stimulation
B) Stimulation and resuscitative efforts
C) Nasopharyngeal suctioning and blow-by oxygen
D) Oxygen via face mask and endotracheal suctioning
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20
Chapter 19: Pharmacologic Pain Management
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Q1) A client in labor received a dose of meperidine (Demerol) for pain control. Which assessment findings should the nurse suspect are adverse effects of this medication? Select all that apply.
A) Nausea
B) Pruritus
C) Sedation
D) Bradycardia
E) Hypotension
Q2) The charge nurse is reviewing the plans of care for four clients in labor. Which care plan requires additional information before implementing?
A) Administration of a spinal anesthetic to a client who is scheduled for a vaginal delivery
B) Administration of a spinal anesthetic to a client with a history of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)
C) Administration of epidural anesthesia to a client who is in the first stage of labor and has a shellfish allergy
D) Administration of epidural anesthesia to a client with a history of vomiting secondary to hyperemesis gravidarum
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21
Chapter 20: Childbirth at Risk: Prelabor and Intrapartum
Complications
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Q1) The nurse is caring for the newborn of a client who received magnesium sulfate for preterm labor. Which fetal effects should the nurse attribute to the client's medication treatment? Select all that apply.
A) Flushing
B) Lethargy
C) Hypotonia
D) Poor sucking reflex
E) Respiratory depression
Q2) For which reason should the nurse suspect hydramnios in a pregnant client?
A) The client is pregnant with twins.
B) The quadruple screen comes back positive.
C) There is less amniotic fluid than normal for gestation.
D) The fundal height increases disproportionately to the gestation.
Q3) A client at 30 weeks' gestation is experiencing painless late vaginal bleeding. What should the nurse expect in the management of this client?
A) Assessing blood pressure every 2 hours
B) Evaluating the fetal heart rate with an internal monitor
C) Limiting vaginal examinations to only one per 24-hour period
D) Monitoring for blood loss, pain, and uterine contractibility
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Childbirth at Risk: Labor-Related Complications
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Q1) The multiparous client at 33 weeks has experienced an intrauterine fetal demise. What finding requires immediate intervention?
A) Temperature 99°F
B) Fibrinogen level 50 mg/dL
C) Platelet count 210,000/cmm
D) Family refusing fetal autopsy
Q2) The nurse is caring for a client who delivered a 38 weeks' gestation stillborn fetus. What should the nurse do to support the client at this time? Select all that apply.
A) Remove the fetus from the room.
B) Clean the fetus and wrap in a blanket.
C) Ask the client if she would like to hold the baby.
D) Instruct on postdelivery care to be completed in the home.
E) Ask if other family members would like to spend time with the baby.
Q3) A primiparous client is at 42 weeks' gestation. What order should the nurse question?
A) Begin non-stress test now.
B) Return to the clinic in 1 week.
C) Obtain biophysical profile today.
D) Schedule labor induction for tomorrow.
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Chapter 22: Birth-Related Procedures
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Q1) A client experiencing a difficult labor is going to have vacuum extraction to facilitate delivery. Which statement indicates that the client needs additional information about vacuum extraction assistance?
A) "The baby's head might have a bruise from the vacuum cup."
B) "The vacuum will be applied for a total of 10 minutes or less."
C) "I can stop pushing and just rest if the vacuum extractor is used."
D) "A small cup will be put onto the baby's head, and a gentle suction will be applied."
Q2) The nurse manager observes care being provided by a graduate nurse who is caring for a client undergoing a forceps delivery. Which action requires intervention?
A) Bladder is emptied using a straight catheter.
115)
B) The client is instructed to push between contractions.
C) Fetal heart tones are consistently between 110 and
D) Regional anesthesia is administered via pudendal block.
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Chapter 23: The Physiologic Responses of the Newborn to Birth
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Q1) The nurse manager of the neonatal intensive care unit is preparing a handout for new parents. Which statement should the nurse include?
A) Neonates have a tendency to become dehydrated.
B) Sugar is always present in the urine of a newborn.
C) The kidneys are fully functional by 30 weeks' gestation.
D) Newborns can eliminate excess fluid as quickly as an adult.
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the medical records of several newborns. Which infant requires immediate intervention?
A) 24-hour-old term male with total bilirubin level of 2
B) 3-day-old term bottle-fed female with bilirubin of 11
C) 2-week-old postterm breastfed male with bilirubin of 10
D) 12-hour-old preterm female exhibiting icterus and lethargy
Q3) A newborn weighing 8.8 lb is prescribed bottle-feedings every 3 hours to achieve the caloric intake of 120 calories/kg each day. How many calories should be in each ounce of feeding? (Calculate to the nearest whole number.)
Q4) A newborn weighing 7.7 lb has an estimated bladder capacity of 20 mL. If 25 mL/kg of urine is expected to be produced each day, how many diaper changes will this baby need? (Calculate by rounding to the nearest whole number.)
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Nursing Assessment of the Newborn
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Q1) During an assessment of a 12-hour-old newborn, the nurse notices pale pink spots on the nape of the neck. How should the nurse document this finding?
A) Nevus flammeus
B) Nevus vasculosus
C) A Mongolian spot
D) Telangiectatic nevi
Q2) The nurse is assessing newborns in the nursery. Which assessment finding places a newborn at risk for developing physiologic jaundice?
A) Molding
B) Mongolian spots
C) Cephalohematoma
D) Telangiectatic nevi
Q3) Before the nurse begins to dry the newborn off after birth, which assessment finding should be documented to ensure an accurate gestational rating on the Ballard gestational assessment tool?
A) Size of the areolae
B) Creases on the sole
C) Body surface temperature
D) Amount and area of vernix coverage
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Chapter 25: The Normal Newborn: Needs, Care, and Feeding
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Q1) The nurse is assessing a 2-day-old male infant that has been circumcised. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A) The umbilical cord clamp has been removed.
B) The mother is ready to breastfeed on demand.
C) The infant maintains temperature when wrapped in a blanket.
D) The infant has had a dry diaper since the circumcision procedure.
Q2) Which statement by a breastfeeding class participant indicates that teaching was effective? Select all that apply.
A) "Breastfeeding is worthwhile, even if it costs more overall."
B) "Breastfed infants get more skin-to-skin contact and sleep better."
C) "Breastfed infants have fewer digestive and respiratory illnesses."
D) "Breastfeeding raises the level of a hormone that makes me feel good."
E) "Breastfeeding is complex and difficult, and I probably will not succeed."
Q3) An infant weighing 8 lb, 4 oz at birth weighs 7 lb, 15 oz 3 days later. What should the nurse explain to the parents about this change in the newborn's weight?
A) "This weight loss is unusual."
B) "This weight loss is less than expected."
C) "This weight loss is excessive."
D) "This weight loss is within normal limits."
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Chapter 26: The Newborn at Risk: Conditions Present at Birth
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Q1) A newborn is diagnosed with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS). Which statement indicates that the parents require additional teaching about this health problem?
A) "He might be a fussy baby because of this."
B) "His face looks like it does due to this problem."
C) "Cuddling and rocking will help him stay calm."
D) "Our baby's heart murmur is from this syndrome."
Q2) A small-for-gestational-age (SGA) newborn weighing 2000 g is prescribed to receive 130 kcal/kg/day of oral feeding to achieve a daily weight gain of 30 g.What should this newborn weigh after 2 weeks of receiving these feedings? (Calculate to the nearest whole number.)
Q3) The nurse is working with a family that just experienced the birth of their first child at 34 weeks. Which statements indicate that additional teaching is needed? Select all that apply.
A) "Our baby will be in an Isolette to keep him warm."
B) "The growth of our baby will be faster than if he were term."
C) "Breathing might be harder for our baby because he is early."
D) "Tube feedings will be required because his stomach is small."
E) "Because he came early, he will not produce urine for 2 days."
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Chapter 27: The Newborn at Risk: Birth-Related Stressors
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70680
Sample Questions
Q1) At birth, an infant newborn has a heart rate of 100, is not breathing, and is limp and bluish in color. What nursing action is best?
A) Assess blood pressure.
B) Deep suction the airways.
C) Begin chest compressions.
D) Begin bag-and-mask ventilation.
Q2) An infant born to a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is lethargic, has a high-pitched cry, and has an initial plasma glucose level of 19 mg/dL. What should the nurse do immediately?
A) Have the mother breastfeed the infant.
B) Start an IV with D<sub>5</sub>W dextrose solution.
C) Start an IV with D<sub>10</sub>W dextrose solution.
D) Wait 30 minutes and retest plasma glucose levels.
Q3) An infant weighing 1500 g is prescribed intravenous normal saline 10 mL/kg. How many milliliters of fluid should the nurse expect to provide this infant? (Calculate to the nearest whole number.)
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Chapter 28: Postpartum Adaptation and Nursing Assessment
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70681
Sample Questions
Q1) A postpartum client is not going to breastfeed her newborn. What should the nurse include when teaching this client about breast care?
A) The let-down reflex
B) Lactation suppression
C) The purpose of fundal massage
D) The cause of afterpains
Q2) During a home visit the nurse is concerned that a new mother is experiencing postpartum blues. What did the nurse assess to make this clinical determination? Select all that apply.
A) Fear
B) Anger
C) Euphoria
D) Anorexia
E) Weepiness
Q3) A client weighing 80 kg lost 5 kg of body weight immediately after delivery. In 2 days, another 3 kg has been lost. During a 6-week postpartum examination the client was pleased to learn of returning to her prepregnancy weight of 143 lb. How many kilograms of weight did the client lose during the 6 weeks postpartum? (Calculate to the nearest whole number.)
Page 30
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Chapter 29: The Postpartum Family: Early Care Needs and Home Care
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70682
Sample Questions
Q1) On the second day postpartum, the client who is bottlefeeding experiences engorgement. Which should the nurse encourage to enhance the client's comfort?
A) Removing her bra
B) Applying heat to her breasts
C) Applying ice packs to her breasts
D) Limiting breastfeeding to twice daily
Q2) The nurse is caring for an adolescent client who gave birth to her first child yesterday. Which nursing action indicates accurate understanding of adolescent parenting concepts?
A) The client's mother is included in all discussions and demonstrations.
B) The father of the baby is encouraged to change a diaper and give a bottle.
C) The nurse explains the characteristics and cues of the baby during the assessment.
D) A discussion on contraceptive methods is the first topic of teaching.
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Chapter 30: The Postpartum Family at Risk
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70683
Sample Questions
Q1) The postpartum client who delivered a newborn 2 days ago develops endometritis. Which entry in the medical record would the nurse expect to find when reviewing the client's history?
A) "Cesarean birth performed secondary to arrest of dilation."
B) "Rupture of membranes occurred 2 hours prior to delivery."
C) "External fetal monitoring used throughout labor."
D) "History of pregnancy-induced hypertension."
Q2) A client is experiencing excessive bleeding immediately after the birth of her newborn. After increasing the IV fluids containing oxytocin, with no noticeable decrease in the bleeding, the nurse anticipates which prescriptions from the healthcare provider? Select all that apply.
A) methylergonovine maleate (Methergine)
B) butorphanol tartrate (Stadol)
C) misoprostol (Cytotec)
D) betamethasone (Diprolene)
E) fentanyl (Duragesic)
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Chapter 31: Growth and Development
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) As children grow and develop, their style of play changes. Place the descriptions of play styles in order from infancy to school age.
A) Plays beside but not with other children
B) Plays games with other children and is able to follow the rules of the game
C) Plays alone with play directed by others
D) Plays with others in loose groups
Q2) Two hospitalized pediatric clients are working on a puzzle together in the hospital playroom. Which type of play are the clients exhibiting?
A) Solitary play
B) Associative play
C) Parallel play
D) Cooperative play
Q3) Which nursing actions are developmentally appropriate when caring for a hospitalized school-age child? Select all that apply.
A) Knocking on the school-age child's hospital room door prior to entering
B) Giving clear instructions about details of treatment
C) Providing brochures regarding sexuality
D) Offering medical equipment to play with prior to a procedure
E) Using toys for distraction during a painful procedure
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Infant, Child, and Adolescent Nutrition
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which concepts will the nurse use when conducting client teaching to a family regarding Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) in the United States (U.S.)? Select all that apply.
A) Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
B) Recommended Daily Allowance (RDA)
C) Adequate Intake (AI)
D) Upper Intake (UI)
E) Reference Nutrient Intake (RNI)
Q2) A 2-month-old infant is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of "failure to thrive" (FTT). Which possible causes for FTT will the nurse include in the infant's plan of care?
Select all that apply.
A) Overdilution of formula concentrate
B) Parental neglect
C) Rumination
D) Malabsorption syndromes
E) Pica
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34
Chapter 33: Pediatric Assessment
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which questions will the nurse include in the health history for an infant when assessing the birth history? Select all that apply.
A) "When did you first receive prenatal care when you learned you were pregnant?"
B) "Where was your baby born?"
C) "Was your baby born vaginally or by cesarean birth?"
D) "Is your baby experiencing vomiting after bottle feedings?"
E) "Does your baby take any medications on a regular basis?"
Q2) Which techniques would the nurse use when assessing a preschool-age child? Select all that apply.
A) Asking the child to sit on the examination table
B) Having the child undress for the examination leaving on the undergarments
C) Asking the child when he or she would like to have head, eyes, and ears assessed
D) Asking direct questions to the child
E) Having the parent of the child leave the room for the duration of the exam
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Chapter 34: Health Promotion and Maintenance: General
Concepts, the Newborn, and the Infant
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a health supervision visit, the nurse is attempting to develop a partnering relationship with the child and family. Which is the initial action by the nurse?
A) Telling the family what the child should be doing physically for the age level
B) Telling the family that the healthcare provider will answer any questions they might have related to their child's growth and development
C) Setting goals for the family related to the child's health
D) Discussing a plan with the family to address the child's health needs
Q2) A nurse assesses the height and weight measurements on an infant and documents these measurements at the 75th percentile. The nurse notes that the measurements 2 months ago were at the 25th percentile. Which interpretation of these data by the nurse is accurate?
A) The infant is not gaining enough weight.
B) The infant has gained a significant amount of weight.
C) These measurements most likely are inaccurate.
D) The previous measurements were most likely inaccurate.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Health Promotion and Maintenance: the
Toddler and the Preschooler
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Sample Questions
Q1) At which age will the nurse begin to calculate body mass index (BMI) as a part of the nursing assessment process?
A) 12 months
B) 18 months
C) 2 years
D) 4 years
Q2) During a well-child visit with a 4-year-old girl the nurse notes that the parents speaks harshly to the child and used negative remarks when speaking with the nurse. Which statement by the nurse would be beneficial in this situation?
A) "Perhaps you should leave the room so that I can speak with your child privately."
B) "I am going to refer you for counseling since your interactions with your child seem so negative."
C) Addressing the child, the nurse says, "Are you unhappy when mommy talks to you like this?"
D) "Let's talk privately. We should discuss the way you speak with your child and possible ways to be more positive."
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Chapter 36: Health Promotion and Maintenance: the
School-Age Child and the Adolescent
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70689
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse notes dental issues during the assessment of an adolescent client. Which topics will the nurse explore further to determine the cause of the issues? Select all that apply.
A) Use of fluoridated water
B) Use of a mouth guard when playing physical sports
C) Anorexia nervosa
D) Bulimia nervosa
E) Use of daily vitamins
Q2) Which screening is appropriate for the school nurse to perform on all adolescent students?
A) Respiratory rate
B) Hepatitis B profile
C) Chest x-ray
D) Scoliosis
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Chapter 37: Family Assessment and Concepts of Nursing
Care in the Community
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The telephone triage nurse receives a call from a parent who describes a crowing sound when the 18-month-old breathes and the child is hard to wake up. Which is the appropriate nursing action?
A) Making an appointment for the child to see the healthcare provider
B) Obtaining the history of the illness from the parent
C) Advising the parent to hang up and call 911
D) Reassuring the parent and providing instructions on home care for the child
Q2) Which nursing actions will allow a family to further develop resilience when faced with an illness of a child? Select all that apply.
A) Teaching skills to provide care
B) Suggesting adaptations related to discipline
C) Providing positive reinforcement
D) Recommending the use of defensive coping strategies
E) Focusing on the weaknesses
Q3) Which pediatric client will the community health nurse assess first?
A) A 6-year-old who is wheezing and short of breath.
B) A 2-year-old who has been pulling at his ear.
C) A 2-month-old with a 2-day history of diarrhea.
D) A 10-year-old with a sore throat and low-grade fever.
Page 39
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Chapter 38: Nursing Considerations for the Child and
Family With a Chronic Condition
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The school nurse is reviewing the records of all incoming kindergarten students. Which students will require an individualized education plan (IEP)?
A) The child with diabetes controlled with insulin
B) The child with a casted arm due to a fracture
C) The child with a hearing deficit
D) The child with autism spectrum disorder
E) The child with an IQ of 60
Q2) The nurse is providing care to a pediatric client who is newly diagnosed with a chronic condition. The parents ask, "When will our child be able to assume more responsibility for managing the disease?" Which age group will the nurse include in the response to the parents?
A) Preschooler
B) School-age
C) Adolescent
D) Toddler
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Chapter 39: Nursing Considerations for the Hospitalized Child
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70692
Sample Questions
Q1) A preschool-age child is admitted to the pediatric unit for surgery. The parents request to stay with their child. Which is the best response by the nurse?
A) Tell the parents they can stay in the hospital but not on the unit.
B) Read the rules and regulations of rooming in with the child.
C) Let the parents know they are allowed to stay with the child.
D) Explain to the parents why they cannot stay with the child.
Q2) Which nursing actions are important when providing care to a pediatric client who is on contact precautions due to a communicable disease? Select all that apply.
A) Encouraging frequent family visits
B) Scheduling physical therapy (PT) for the child
C) Providing age-appropriate stimulation and activities
D) Allowing the parents to have physical contact with the child
E) Educating the family about personal protective equipment (PPE)
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Chapter 40: Pain Assessment and Management in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is planning care for a preschool-age child who is intellectually disabled and is scheduled for surgery the next day. Which should the nurse consider when choosing a pain assessment tool? Select all that apply.
A) The child's language skills
B) The child's ability to understand the concept of more and less
C) The child's ability to sit for a 10-minute evaluation
D) The child's ability to perceive pain
E) The child's ability to understand pain
Q2) Which pediatric diagnoses require the nurse to include interventions to treat chronic pediatric client pain in the plan of care? Select all that apply.
A) Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
B) Sickle cell disease
C) Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
D) Cancer
E) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
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Chapter 41: The Child With a Life-Threatening Condition and
End-Of-Life Care
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70694
Sample Questions
Q1) The parents of a 2-year-old child who sustained severe head trauma from falling out of a second-story window are arguing in the pediatric intensive care unit (PICU), and are blaming each other for the child's accident. Which is the best nursing diagnosis for this family?
A) Impaired Parenting related to protecting the child
B) Anxiety related to the critical care unit environment
C) Hopelessness related to the child's deteriorating condition
D) Compromised Family Coping related to the child's critical injury
Q2) A school-age child is admitted to the hospital with a fractured femur and head trauma. The child was not wearing a helmet while riding a new bicycle on the highway, and collided with a car. Which nursing diagnoses should the nurse include in the plan of care with regard to the child's parents? Select all that apply.
A) Compromised Family Coping related to the critical injury of the child
B) Parental Role Conflict related to child's injuries and pediatric intensive care unit (PICU) policies
C) Guilt related to lack of child supervision and safety precautions
D) Knowledge Deficit related to home care of fractured femur
E) Anger related to feelings of helplessness
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Chapter 42: Social and Environmental Influences on the Child
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26 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70695
Sample Questions
Q1) A child is admitted to the hospital unit for physical injuries. The mother's boyfriend is suspected of child abuse. Which is the primary role of the nurse in addition to reporting the information to the proper authorities?
A) Gathering information about how the injuries occurred.
B) Collecting evidence against the suspected abuser.
C) Encouraging the child to talk about his experience.
D) Protecting the child from further injury.
Q2) While taking the history of a 10-year-old child, the parents admit to owning firearms. Which should the nurse suggest to enhance the child's safety based on this information?
A) Keeping all the guns put away and out of the child's reach
B) Taking the child to a shooting range for lessons on how to use a gun properly
C) Storing the guns and ammunition in the same place
D) Using a gun lock on all firearms in the house
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Chapter 43: Immunizations and Communicable Diseases
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70696
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse prepares a DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus toxoid, and acellular pertussis) immunization for a 6-month-old infant. Which nursing action is accurate to safely administer this vaccine to the infant?
A) Administering the vaccine by ID (intradermal) injection
B) Administering the vaccine by SQ (subcutaneous) injection
C) Administering the vaccine by IM (intramuscular) injection
D) Administering the vaccine via a nasal spray
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer a vaccine to a 14-month-old toddler. Which assessment factor would warrant a delay in the scheduled vaccination during the well-child visit?
A) The child is allergic to a substance in the vaccine.
B) The child has a low-grade fever and a runny nose.
C) The child received a dose of immune globulin 2 months ago.
D) The child is on antibiotics.
Q3) Which should the nurse use when reconstituting vaccines?
A) The diluents provided
B) Normal saline
C) Any solution available
D) Sterile water
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Page 45
Chapter 44: The Child With Alterations in Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acidbase Balance
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 6-year-old child is hypokalemic. Which menu choice should the nurse encourage for this child?
A) Pizza with a fruit plate
B) Chicken strips with chips
C) Fajita with rice
D) A hamburger with French fries
Q2) As a result of opioid administration, a child's respirations are slow and shallow. Which should the nurse anticipate when assessing the child's arterial blood gas?
A) Increased PCO<sub>2 </sub>and respiratory acidosis
B) Decreased PCO<sub>2</sub> and respiratory alkalosis
C) Low pH and low PCO<sub>2</sub>
D) High pH and high PCO<sub>2</sub>
Q3) The nurse is caring for a child on bed rest who has severe edema in a left lower extremity due to blocked lymphatic drainage. Which nursing diagnosis would take priority?
A) Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity
B) Risk for Altered Body Image
C) Risk for Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements
D) Risk for Activity Intolerance
Page 46
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Chapter 45: The Child With Alterations in Eye, Ear, Nose, and Throat Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an appropriate nursing intervention for a child who experiences epistaxis?
A) Laying the child down and applying a warm pack.
B) Tilting the child's head back, squeezing the bridge of the nose, and applying a warm moist pack to the nose.
C) Tilting the child's head forward, squeezing the nares below the nasal bone, and applying ice to the nose.
D) Immediately packing the nares with a cotton ball soaked with phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine).
Q2) Which parental statements indicate correct understanding of the care that is needed for a pediatric client after the insertion of tympanostomy tubes? Select all that apply.
A) "It is important to limit my child's diet after surgery and only allow soft, bland foods."
B) "I should restrict my child to quiet activities after surgery."
C) "I should plan to administer a decongestant to my child for 1 to 2 weeks following surgery."
D) "It is important for my child to drink plenty of fluids after the procedure."
E) "I will remind my child to use ear plugs prior to showering and swimming."
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Page 47
Chapter 46: The Child With Alterations in Respiratory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing actions are appropriate when providing care to a pediatric client who has sustained a smoke-inhalation injury? Select all that apply.
A) Assessing for respiratory distress
B) Auscultating the lungs for wheezing
C) Prescribing oxygen for low saturations
D) Administering prescribed prophylactic antibiotic therapy
E) Providing support to the family
Q2) The nurse receives a phone call from the parent of a child who is prescribed rifampin (Rimactane) for treatment of tuberculosis because she saw that the child's urine was orange. Which response by the nurse is accurate?
A) "Encourage your child to drink cranberry juice."
B) "An orange discoloration of urine is expected while your child is on this medication."
C) "Bring your child to the clinic for a urinalysis."
D) "Bring your child to the clinic for a radiograph of the kidneys."
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Chapter 47: The Child With Alterations in Cardiovascular Function
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70700
Sample Questions
Q1) Which parental statement indicates correct understanding for the reason a cardiac catheterization is needed for a child who is diagnosed with a congenital heart defect?
A) "This procedure will keep the ductus arteriosus open and oxygenated and unoxygenated blood mixed."
B) "This procedure is used to close the ductus arteriosus to prevent mixing of arterial and venous blood."
C) "This procedure will redirect the blood so that blood bypasses the right ventricle."
D) "This procedure connects the ventricle to the atrium."
Q2) Which cardiovascular manifestations should the nurse anticipate for a pediatric client diagnosed with early compensated hypovolemic shock? Select all that apply.
A) Tachycardia
B) Weak distal pulses
C) Thready distal pulses
D) Normal blood pressure
E) Decrease in systolic blood pressure
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Chapter 48: The Child With Alterations in Immune Function
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23 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70701
Sample Questions
Q1) An adolescent female client is diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which action by the client indicates acceptance of the body changes that occur because of SLE?
A) Attends school but does not stay for after-school activities
B) Discusses the body changes with healthcare providers only
C) Discusses the body changes with her best friend
D) Only attends small parties at friends' homes
Q2) The nurse is planning care for a child with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which vaccines should be avoided in the child with AIDS?
A) Inactivated polio vaccine
B) Tetanus toxoid vaccination
C) Varicella vaccine
D) Acellular pertussis vaccine
Q3) Which is the priority nursing action when providing care to a pediatric client who has documented allergies to cow's milk, peanuts, and latex?
A) Evaluating the hospital room for equipment containing latex
B) Ordering an EpiPen for the child
C) Notifying dietary of the milk and peanut allergy
D) Placing a sign on the door which identifies all allergies
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Page 50
Chapter 49: The Child With Alterations in Hematologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is administering packed red blood cells to a child with sickle-cell disease (SCD). When should the nurse monitor the child closely due to the risk of reaction?
A) Six hours after the transfusion is given.
B) At the end of the administration of the transfusion.
C) The first 20 mL of blood administered.
D) Never; children with SCD do not have reactions.
Q2) Which is the priority teaching point for the nurse to include in the discharge instructions for the parents of a child who was admitted in a sickle-cell crisis?
A) Rapid weaning of pain medications
B) A diet high in protein
C) Adequate hydration
D) Restriction of activities
Q3) Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for the child diagnosed with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)?
A) Ineffective Breathing Pattern
B) Nausea
C) Fluid Volume Deficit
D) Risk for Injury
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Chapter 50: The Child With Cancer
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70703
Sample Questions
Q1) Which pediatric cancer diagnoses necessitate priority assessment by the nurses for clinical manifestations associated with emergencies related to space-occupying lesions? Select all that apply.
A) Hodgkin disease
B) Leukemia
C) Neuroblastoma
D) Melanoma
E) Lymphoma
Q2) Which nursing intervention is contraindicated for a pediatric client who is experiencing thrombocytopenia secondary to chemotherapy treatments?
A) Administering intramuscular injections
B) Monitoring intake and output
C) Palpating during the assessment
D) Providing oral hygiene
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Chapter 51: The Child With Alterations in Gastrointestinal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nasogastric tube to suction is ordered for a neonate diagnosed with a diaphragmatic hernia. Which complication related to gastric drainage is the priority when planning care for this neonate?
A) Weight loss
B) Metabolic alkalosis
C) Dehydration
D) Hyperbilirubinemia
Q2) The nurse is providing care to a pediatric client, diagnosed with inflammatory bowel disease, who is prescribed daily prednisone. Which parental statement regarding administration of this drug indicates correct understanding of the teaching provided by the nurse?
A) "I will administer this medication between meals."
B) "I will administer this medication at bedtime."
C) "I will administer this medication one hour before meals."
D) "I will administer this medication with meals."
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Chapter 52: The Child With Alterations in Genitourinary Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which assessment finding would necessitate action by the nurse for a 10-month-old child who is 4 hours postoperative for the placement of a urethral stent?
A) Bloody urine
B) One void since returning from surgery
C) Bladder spasms responding to pharmacologic intervention
D) Double diapering from the previous shift
Q2) Which assessment questions should the nurse include in the psychosocial assessment to determine the effects of chronic renal failure treatments on the growth and development of a school-age child? Select all that apply.
A) "How does it make you feel to have to follow a special diet?"
B) "Do you take your medications every day?"
C) "How does it make you feel to undergo dialysis treatments?"
D) "Do you attend school each day?"
E) "How does it make you feel when your parents come home late from work?"
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Chapter 53: The Child With Alterations in Endocrine Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which action related to insulin administration should the nurse include in the teaching plan for an adolescent client who has been newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus to avoid the development of lipoatrophy?
A) Rotating injection sites
B) Checking blood sugars at mealtime and bedtime
C) Using a sliding scale for additional coverage
D) Administration of insulin via insulin pump
Q2) Which diagnostic tests should the nurse include in the plan of care for a pediatric client who is at risk for short stature? Select all that apply.
A) Thyroid function studies
B) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and cortisol levels
C) Complete blood count
D) Blood culture
E) Urine creatinine
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Chapter 54: The Child With Alterations in Neurologic Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70707
Sample Questions
Q1) Which side effect should the nurse include in the parent teaching for a child who is prescribed a baclofen pump for cerebral palsy?
A) Diarrhea
B) Hypertonia
C) Hypotonia
D) Restlessness
Q2) Which preventative strategies should the nurse include in a teaching session for a mother whose infant is at risk for febrile seizures? Select all that apply.
A) Increasing oral intake of fluids
B) Administering dose-appropriate aspirin
C) Providing a sponge bath with cold water
D) Decreasing oral fluid intake
E) Patting the child dry after a tepid bath
Q3) Which assessment finding for a 4-month-old infant would require further action by the nurse?
A) The posterior fontanel is open.
B) The infant has good head control when held upright.
C) The infant is able to roll only from abdomen to back.
D) The anterior fontanel is open and soft.
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Chapter 55: The Child With Alterations in Mental Health and Cognitive Function
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70708
Sample Questions
Q1) Which factor, noted by the nurse during the pediatric health history portion of the assessment process, would indicate the child is at risk for attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
A) Measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine
B) Advanced parental age
C) Prenatal exposure to smoke
D) Immune response
Q2) Which statements should the nurse include in the definition of mental health during a health maintenance fair for pediatric clients? Select all that apply.
A) Mental health is the change in thought that occurs during childhood.
B) Mental health is foundational to a sense of personal well-being.
C) Mental health does not impact physical health.
D) Mental health involves successful engagement in activities.
E) Mental health changes over time.
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Chapter 56: The Child With Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70709
Sample Questions
Q1) Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect when assessing a pediatric client who is diagnosed with Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease? Select all that apply.
A) Limited abduction of the affected hip
B) Asymmetry of thigh fat folds
C) Telescoping of the thigh
D) Muscle weakness
E) Atrophy of the muscles
Q2) Which clinical data noted by the nurse during the shift assessment indicate the pediatric client may be experiencing compartment syndrome? Select all that apply.
A) Pink, warm extremity
B) Dorsalis pedis pulse present
C) Prolonged capillary refill time
D) Pain not relieved by pain medication
E) Paresthesia of the leg
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Chapter 57: The Child With Alterations in Skin Integrity
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70710
Sample Questions
Q1) Which finding noted by the school nurse while conducting pediculosis capitis (head lice) checks would indicate the need for treatment?
A) White, flaky particles throughout the entire scalp region
B) Lesions on the scalp that extend to the hairline or neck
C) Maculopapular lesions behind the ears
D) Silver/white sacs attached to the hair shafts in the occipital area
Q2) Which is the priority nursing diagnosis during the acute phase of a third-degree circumferential burn of the right arm for a pediatric client?
A) Altered Tissue Perfusion, Risk for
B) Infection, Risk for
C) Impaired Physical Mobility
D) Altered Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements, Risk for
Q3) Which is the priority nursing action when providing care to a child who is bitten by a snake?
A) Measuring the circumference of the extremity twice per hour
B) Monitoring respiratory status
C) Assessing vital signs
D) Evaluating response to pain medication
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