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Communication Skills is designed to equip students with the essential verbal, non-verbal, and written communication abilities necessary for academic, professional, and personal success. The course focuses on the principles of effective communication, emphasizing active listening, clear expression, and constructive feedback. Through interactive activities, practical exercises, and real-world scenarios, students will develop confidence in public speaking, group discussions, and interpersonal interactions. Additional topics include digital communication, cross-cultural considerations, and strategies for overcoming barriers to effective communication. By the end of the course, students will be able to communicate clearly, confidently, and appropriately in a variety of contexts.
Recommended Textbook
The Basics of Communication A Relational Perspective 2nd Edition by Steve
Available Study Resources on Quizplus 15 Chapters
567 Verified Questions
567 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Language is symbolic because:
A) It is difficult to understand
B) Words have different pronunciations in different regions
C) Language is iconic
D) Language uses words to represent objects and ideas.
Answer: D
Q2) Relationships affect communication by:
A) Preventing expectations from affecting the meaning of a message
B) Minimizing the effective interpretation of a message
C) Establishing time frames for the interpretation of a message
D) Establishing expectations for the interpretation of a message
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is true of symbols and communication:
A) Symbols have the potential for only one meaning
B) Symbols are used to deflect meaning
C) The meaning applied to symbols may change
D) Symbols preclude meaning
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) We often define concepts by negation, or by explaining what something is not.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following would not constitute an account of one's communication?:
A) Lying
B) Justification
C) Excuse
D) Explanation
Answer: A
Q3) The instrumental function that talk serves in relationships means that talk can make things happen.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) In casual relationships, we are more likely to use formal, grammatically correct language.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) NVC can sometimes contradict verbal communication within the same message.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) NVC is not symbolic and guided by rules.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q3) If you like to sit in the same seat in class every day and get upset if someone takes your spot, you are experiencing:
A) Primary territoriality
B) Secondary territoriality
C) Public territoriality
D) Tertiary territoriality
Answer: B
Q4) NVC can help to begin, to regulate, or to terminate communicative interactions.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) Relational listening is best characterized as the ability to:
A) Accurately paraphrase a message
B) Understand how communication affects the relationship
C) Receive sensory stimuli
D) Perceive and focus on sensory stimuli
Q2) Give a definition of critical listening.
Q3) Identify the difference between hearing and listening.
Q4) Define one context in which listening is important in your life, and explain why it is important.
Q5) Noise in a cell phone connection, problems with audio in a teleconference, or internet difficulties with an online videoconference are typical of:
A) Environmental listening distractions
B) Medium distractions
C) Source distractions
D) Semantic diversion
Q6) Red herring describes the use of another issue to divert attention away from the real issue.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) George Herbert Mead's idea of the 'attitude of reflection' refers to our ability to see ourselves as others see us and the impact this has on our behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Direct challenges to another person's competence, face, or identity are usually offensive.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The term self-description is limited to revelation of private, sensitive, and confidential information relevant to identity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Embarrassment, according to Cupach and Metts, occurs when:
A) You select the wrong identity (face)
B) You perform an identity (face) correctly
C) You perform an identity (face) incorrectly
D) You fail to perform an identity (face)
Q5) Explain the concept of identity as the 'symbolic self.'
Q6) Explain the relationship between culture and identity formation.
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Q1) If you are considering breaking up with a romantic partner but have not discussed it out loud with anyone, Duck suggests you are in this phase of relational dissolution:
A) Intrapsychic
B) Interpsychic
C) Dyadic
D) Social process
Q2) Robert Weiss (1974) identified six specific areas where relationships provide us with something special, needed, or valued. Identify these six provisions of relationships.
Q3) When you tell other people in the network about the relationship problem, seeking either their help to keep the relationship together or their support for your version of why it has come apart, you are experiencing which process of breakup?
A) Dyadic
B) Social
C) Intrapsychic
D) Grave-Dressing
Q4) Explain the role of physical appearance in Duck's Relationship Filtering Model.
Q5) Explain how relationships influence the distribution of information.
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Q1) You listen to your professor, follow the schedule on the syllabus, and submit your assignments on the due date, because your professor has __________ power.
A) Coercive
B) Referent
C) Legitimate
D) Expert
Q2) Power in groups is:
A) Always held by the designated leader
B) Sometimes based on communication competence
C) Based only on roles
D) Decided by majority rule.
Q3) A leader who pays attention to members' feelings, comfort, and satisfaction with outcomes is identified as:
A) A socioemotional leader
B) A team leader
C) A task leader
D) A motivational leader
Q4) Explain the concept of group cohesiveness.
Q5) Identify Fisher's Model of Group Progression.
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Q1) In an organizational setting, a low-context culture would emphasize:
A) Commitment to people
B) Adhering to set plans
C) Concern for relationships
D) Open friendliness over privacy
Q2) High-context societies are more likely to:
A) Emphasize the actual words of the message rather than the context
B) Consider relationships as important as, if not more important than, the actual message
C) Separate the relationships from the message
D) Focus on the details and the logic of the message
Q3) According to Gerry Philipsen's research in Teamsterville, a man demonstrates power by punching someone rather than arguing about a problem.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Individualist cultures are generally known to:
A) Emphasize the importance of one's place in the system
B) Stress group benefit
C) Emphasize acting for the common good
D) Focus on personal goals and achievements
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Q1) Online interactions, which can be close to happening in real time but still have some delay in message sending/receiving, are referred to as being:
A) Synchronous
B) Nonsynchronous
C) Asynchronous
D) Monosynchronous
Q2) The use of relational technologies, such as cell phones, is universally consistent across cultural and co-cultural boundaries.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The appropriate use of technology is often determined by location and occasion as well as content.
A)True
B)False
Q4) People using screen names on the Internet are not necessarily accurately represented by their screen names.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain Reeves and Nass's concept of the 'media equation.'
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Q1) According to uses and gratifications theory, if you watch a TV program on the Discovery Channel to gain more insight into and knowledge about Mayan ruins in Guatemala, you are using media for the following reason:
A) Escapism
B) Reality exploration
C) Character reference
D) Incidental reasons
Q2) According to Cohen and Metzger, when it comes to our needs for control, these needs seem to be better fulfilled by:
A) Personal relationships
B) The media
C) Both personal relationships and the media
D) Neither one
Q3) When parents comment out loud about the messages or characters they see in a television program, they are enacting:
A) Indirect rules for children's interpretation of television
B) Direct rules for children's interpretation of television
C) Indirect parental influence on children's interpretation of television
D) Direct parental influence on children's interpretation of television
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best strategy for deciding on the sources of evidence to use in a presentation is:
A) Use biased sources to establish a definite opinion on your topic
B) Use sources written by people you know
C) Use sources that have expertise on your topic
D) Use only Internet sources
Q2) A speaker who knows that the audience has expertise on his/her topic will need to
A) Explain basic language and terminology
B) Use less support material in the presentation
C) Use less depth and detail in the presentation
D) None of the above
Q3) Identify demographic characteristics.
Q4) Prior relationships between a speaker and audience can affect a presentation because:
A) The audience will have no expectations of the speaker
B) The audience will have expectations of the speaker
C) The audience will be less receptive to the speaker
D) The audience will be neutral towards the speaker
Q5) Identify what a speaker should do in selecting a topic for a presentation.
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Q1) A clincher statement is a phrase that that allows you to end your speech strongly and smoothly.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Argumentation is not the same as disagreement.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Speakers should establish their expertise or personal experience on their subject in the introduction in order to:
A) Boast about credentials
B) Limit expertise
C) Establish credibility
D) Decrease trust
Q4) Identify six components of conclusions.
Q5) In selecting an organizational pattern for a presentation, a speaker should:
A) Use the pattern he/she knows best
B) Consider topic, purpose, and audience
C) Use the pattern the audience knows best
D) Consider avoiding unity principle
Q6) Explain the use of the unity principle in developing the body of a speech.
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Q1) When you make a speech on "a claim of policy," you have to support this policy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The purpose of a persuasive presentation is to avoid having an impact on the attitudes, belief, or behavior of the audience.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In applying social judgment theory to a persuasive presentation, a speaker must:
A) Be extremely vague about his/her goals
B) Be extremely vague about his/her position
C) Be very specific about his/her goals and position
D) Be very specific about the audience
Q4) Which of the following would be indicative of inductive reasoning:
A) Moving from the specific to the specific
B) Moving from the specific to the general
C) Moving from the general to the general
D) Moving from the general to the specific
Q5) Identify "Strategies for Successful Informative Presentations."
Q7) Compare and contrast inductive and deductive reasoning. Page 15
Q6) Explain the difference between concrete and abstract language.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Communication apprehension is experienced by very few people.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In building relationships with our audience, we often:
A) Fail to adjust our rate of speech, accents, or body movements to match our audience
B) Adjust our rate of speech, accents, or body movements to match our audience
C) Imitate the rate of speech, accents, or body movements of our audience
D) Ignore the rate of speech, accents, or body movements of our audience
Q3) To avoid using nonfluencies such as um, uh, like, or you know, a speaker should:
A) Pinch himself/herself whenever one is used
B) Admit to the audience that he/she is not a good speaker
C) Ask the audience to count the nonfluencies out loud
D) Pause rather than use one of these nonfluencies
Q4) Communication apprehension is usually highest for a speaker at this time:
A) When the speech is assigned
B) When the speech is discussed in class
C) Immediately after the presentation is over
D) Immediately before the presentation begins
Q5) Discuss the role of dynamism/extroversion in establishing speaker credibility.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the 3 types of interview question sequences discussed in the chapter and provide an example of when each type would be effectively used in an interview.
Q2) Which type of interview are you least likely to find in a typical workplace?
A) Performance interviews
B) Exit interviews
C) Helping interviews
D) Employment interviews
Q3) Which question pattern sequence begins with broad and open questions and moves toward more closed and narrow questions?
A) Funnel sequence
B) Inverted Funnel sequence
C) Tunnel sequence
D) Tangent sequence
Q4) Successful interviewees do which of the following?
A) speak loudly and confidently
B) use vocal variety
C) avoid nonfluencies
D) all of the above
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