Communication and Culture Practice Exam
Course Introduction
This course explores the intricate relationship between communication and culture, examining how cultural contexts shape the way we create, interpret, and respond to messages. Through an interdisciplinary lens, students will analyze theories of intercultural communication, cultural identity, language, and power dynamics, as well as the influence of globalization and media on cultural exchanges. The course also engages students in practical activities to develop intercultural competence and critical awareness of diversity in various communicative contexts, preparing them to navigate and communicate effectively in a multicultural world.
Recommended Textbook
Intercultural Communication A Contextual Approach 6th Edition by James W. Neuliep
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction: Evolution and Themes of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research into evolutionary adaptation considers the following theme(s)
A)organisms interact with other organisms and the physical environment.
B)structure and function are correlated at all levels of biological organization.
C)the continuity of life is based on heritable information in the form of DNA.
D)All of the above are considered in this form of research.
E)None of the above apply to evolution.
Answer: D
Q2) Which theme(s)is/are best illustrated by an experiment in which a biologist seeks a medication that will inhibit pain responses in a cancer patient?
A)II
B)VII
C)III and V
D)V and VIII
E)VI and VII
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
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Q1) Which drawing in the figure above depicts the most electronegative atom?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Answer: D
Q2) Which drawing in the figure above depicts an atom with a valence of 2?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Water and Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the pH of a 1 millimolar NaOH solution?
A)pH 3
B)pH 8
C)pH 9
D)pH 10
E)pH 11
Answer: E
Q2) How many grams of acetic acid (C H O )would you use to make 10 L of a 0.1 M aqueous solution of acetic acid? (Note: The atomic masses, in daltons, are approximately 12 for carbon, 1 for hydrogen, and 16 for oxygen.)
A)10 g
B)0.1 g
C)6.0 g
D)60 g
E)0.6 g
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
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Q1) A compound contains hydroxyl groups as its predominant functional group. Which of the following statements is true concerning this compound?
A)It lacks an asymmetric carbon, and it is probably a fat or lipid.
B)It should dissolve in water.
C)It should dissolve in a nonpolar solvent.
D)It won't form hydrogen bonds with water.
E)It is hydrophobic.
Q2) Identify the asymmetric carbon in this molecule.
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q3) What is the name of the functional group shown in the figure above?
A)carbonyl
B)ketone
C)aldehyde
D)carboxyl
E)hydroxyl
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Page 6
Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
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Q1) The enzyme amylase can break glycosidic linkages between glucose monomers only if the monomers are in the form. Which of the following could amylase break down?
A)glycogen, starch, and amylopectin
B)glycogen and cellulose
C)cellulose and chitin
D)starch and chitin
E)starch, amylopectin, and cellulose
Q2) What is the chemical reaction mechanism by which cells make polymers from monomers?
A)phosphodiester linkages
B)hydrolysis
C)dehydration reactions
D)ionic bonding of monomers
E)the formation of disulphide bridges between monomers
Q3) Among these biological polymers, which has the least structural variety?
A)polysaccharides
B)proteins
C)DNA
D)RNA
Page 7
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Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) A cell with a predominance of free ribosomes is most likely
A)producing primarily proteins for secretion.
B)producing primarily cytoplasmic proteins.
C)constructing an extensive cell wall or extracellular matrix.
D)digesting large food particles.
E)enlarging its vacuole.
Q2) Which organelle is the primary site of ATP synthesis in eukaryotic cells?
A)lysosome
B)vacuole
C)mitochondrion
D)Golgi apparatus
E)peroxisome
Q3) The structure labelled D functions in
A)lipid synthesis.
B)membrane production.
C)cytosolic protein production.
D)modification of proteins for transport.
E)package of proteins.
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8
Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
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Q1) White blood cells engulf bacteria through what process?
A)exocytosis
B)phagocytosis
C)pinocytosis
D)osmosis
E)receptor-mediated exocytosis
Q2) Celery stalks that are immersed in fresh water for several hours become stiff and hard. Similar stalks left in a 0.15 M salt solution become limp and soft. From this we can deduce that the cells of the celery stalks are
A)hypotonic to both fresh water and the salt solution.
B)hypertonic to both fresh water and the salt solution.
C)hypertonic to fresh water but hypotonic to the salt solution.
D)hypotonic to fresh water but hypertonic to the salt solution.
E)isotonic with fresh water but hypotonic to the salt solution.
Q3) Which component is the peripheral protein?
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
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Q1) Organisms can increase their order, seemingly defying the second law of thermodynamics. This can only be accomplished if they
A)are a closed system.
B)constantly take energy from their surroundings and thus increase disorder in the environment.
C)constantly take energy from their surroundings and thus decrease disorder in the environment.
D)generate heat and increase disorder in the universe.
E)have a negative Gibbs free energy value.
Q2) Which of the following represents the difference between the free-energy content of the reaction and the free-energy content of the products in the figure above?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
E)e
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) Why does the oxidation of organic compounds by molecular oxygen to produce CO and water release free energy?
A)The covalent bonds in organic molecules and molecular oxygen have more kinetic energy than the covalent bonds in water and carbon dioxide.
B)Electrons are being moved from atoms that have a lower affinity for electrons (such as C)to atoms with a higher affinity for electrons (such as O).
C)The oxidation of organic compounds can be used to make ATP.
D)The electrons have a higher potential energy when associated with water and CO than they do in organic compounds.
E)The covalent bond in O2 is unstable and easily broken by electrons from organic molecules.
Q2) ________ is the process whereby hydrogen is removed from sugars and fats and transferred to oxygen.
A)Photosynthesis
B)Respiration
C)Fermentation
D)Glycolysis
E)Chemiosmosis
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) In mitochondria, chemiosmosis translocates protons from the matrix into the intermembrane space, whereas in chloroplasts, chemiosmosis translocates protons from
A)the stroma to the photosystem II.
B)the matrix to the stroma.
C)the stroma to the thylakoid space.
D)the intermembrane space to the matrix.
E)the thylakoid space to the stroma.
Q2) In thylakoids, protons travel through ATP synthase from the thylakoid space to the stroma. Therefore, the catalytic "knobs" of ATP synthase would be located
A)on the side facing the thylakoid space.
B)on the ATP molecules themselves.
C)on the pigment molecules of photosystem I and photosystem II.
D)on the stromal side of the membrane.
E)built into the centre of the thylakoid stack (granum).
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Chapter 11: Cell Communication
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Q1) Using the yeast signal transduction pathways, both types of mating cells release the mating factors. These factors bind to specific receptors on the correct cells
A)which induce changes in the cells that lead to cell fusion.
B)which produce more of the a factor in a positive feedback.
C)then one cell nucleus binds the mating factors and produces a new nucleus in the opposite cell.
D)stimulating cell membrane disintegration, releasing the mating factors that lead to new yeast cells.
E)which in turn releases a growth factor that stimulates mitosis in both cells.
Q2) The toxin of Vibrio cholerae causes profuse diarrhea because it
A)modifies a G protein involved in regulating salt and water secretion.
B)decreases the cytosolic concentration of calcium ions, making the cells hypotonic.
C)binds with adenylyl cyclase and triggers the formation of cAMP.
D)signals IP to act as a second messenger for the release of calcium.
E)modifies calmodulin and activates a cascade of protein kinases.
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Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. How many picograms would be found at the end of S and the end of G ?
A)8; 8
B)8; 16
C)16; 8
D)16; 16
E)12; 16
Q2) What is the correct chromosomal condition for one daughter nucleus at telophase of mitosis?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
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Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
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Q1) The human X and Y chromosomes
A)are both present in every somatic cell of males and females alike.
B)are of approximately equal size and number of genes.
C)are almost entirely homologous, despite their different names.
D)include genes that determine an individual's sex.
E)include only genes that govern sex determination.
Q2) In sexual reproduction, the reduction division stage is known as A)fertilization.
B)anaphase.
C)meiosis II.
D)meiosis I.
E)G .
Q3) Independent assortment of chromosomes occurs.
A)The statement is true for mitosis only.
B)The statement is true for meiosis I only.
C)The statement is true for meiosis II only.
D)The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I.
E)The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.
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15
Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
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Q1) Given the parents AABBCc × AabbCc, assume simple dominance for each trait and independent assortment. What proportion of the progeny will be expected to phenotypically resemble the first parent?
A)1/4
B)1/8
C)3/4
D)3/8
E)1
Q2) Which of the boxes correspond to plants with a heterozygous genotype?
A)1
B)1 and 2
C)1, 2, and 3
D)2 and 3
E)2, 3, and 4
Q3) Which of the following describes the ability of a single gene to have multiple phenotypic effects?
A)incomplete dominance
B)multiple alleles
C)pleiotropy
D)epistasis
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Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) A certain kind of snail can have a right-handed direction of shell coiling (D)or left-handed coiling (d). If direction of coiling is due to a protein deposited by the mother in the egg cytoplasm, then a Dd egg-producing snail and a dd sperm-producing snail will have offspring of which genotype(s)and phenotype(s)?
A)1/2 Dd:1/2 dd; all right coiling
B)all Dd; all right coiling
C)1/2 Dd:1/2 dd; half right and half left coiling
D)all Dd; all left coiling
E)all Dd; half right and half left coiling
Q2) The phenotype most commonly observed in a natural population is the A)wild type.
B)parental type.
C)recombinant type.
D)Z-W system.
E)F1.
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17
Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) The leading and the lagging strands differ in that
A)the leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction.
B)the leading strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing strand, and the lagging strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 5' end.
C)the lagging strand is synthesized continuously, whereas the leading strand is synthesized in short fragments that are ultimately stitched together.
D)the leading strand is synthesized at twice the rate of the lagging strand.
Q2) What is the function of DNA polymerase III?
A)to unwind the DNA helix during replication
B)to seal together the broken ends of DNA strands
C)to add nucleotides to the 3' end of a growing DNA strand
D)to degrade damaged DNA molecules
E)to rejoin the two DNA strands (one new and one old)after replication
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18
Chapter 17: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) If a protein is coded for by a single gene and this protein has six clearly defined domains, which number of exons below is the gene likely to have? A)1 B)5
C)8
D)12
E)14
Q2) What amino acid sequence will be generated, based on the following mRNA codon sequence? 5' AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG 3'
A)met-arg-glu-arg-glu-arg
B)met-glu-arg-arg-glu-leu
C)met-ser-leu-ser-leu-ser
D)met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu
E)met-leu-phe-arg-glu-glu
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19
Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) If a particular operon encodes enzymes for making an essential amino acid and is regulated like the trp operon, then
A)the amino acid inactivates the repressor.
B)the enzymes produced are called inducible enzymes.
C)the repressor is active in the absence of the amino acid.
D)the amino acid acts as a corepressor.
E)the amino acid turns on transcription of the operon.
Q2) The term epigenetics refers to
A)inheritance of traits by mechanisms not involving changes in nucleotide sequence.
B)inheritance of traits which involve changes in nucleotide sequence.
C)phenotypic expression as a result of changes in nucleotide sequence.
D)phenotypic expression in the next generation as a result of mutations in the parent.
E)the silencing of genes through miRNA function.
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Chapter 19: Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following is characteristic of the lytic cycle?
A)Many bacterial cells containing viral DNA are produced.
B)Viral DNA is incorporated into the host genome.
C)The viral genome replicates without destroying the host.
D)A large number of phages are released at a time.
E)The virus-host relationship usually lasts for generations.
Q2) If this virus has a positive RNA strand as its genome, it begins the infection by using this strand as mRNA. Therefore, which of the following do you expect to be able to measure?
A)replication rate
B)transcription rate
C)translation rate
D)accumulation of new ribosomes
E)formation of new transcription factors
Q3) H1N1 was declared ________ in June 2009.
A)an epidemic
B)a pandemic
C)cured
D)under control
E)non-life-threatening
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Chapter 20: Dna Tools and Biotechnology
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Q1) Silencing of selected genes is often done using RNA interference (RNAi). Which of the following questions would not be answered with this process?
A)What is the function of gene 432 in this species of annelid?
B)What will happen in this insect's digestion if gene 173 is not able to be translated?
C)Is gene HA292 responsible for this disorder in humans?
D)Will the disabling of this gene in Drosophila and in a mouse cause similar results?
E)Is the gene on Drosophila chromosome 2L at this locus responsible for part of its production of nitrogen waste?
Q2) Which of the following modifications is least likely to alter the rate at which a DNA fragment moves through a gel during electrophoresis?
A)altering the nucleotide sequence of the DNA fragment
B)methylating the cytosine bases within the DNA fragment
C)increasing the length of the DNA fragment
D)decreasing the length of the DNA fragment
E)neutralizing the negative charges within the DNA fragment
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22
Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
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Q1) Homeotic genes
A)encode transcription factors that control the expression of genes responsible for specific anatomical structures.
B)are found only in Drosophila and other arthropods.
C)are the only genes that contain the homeobox domain.
D)encode proteins that form anatomical structures in the fly.
E)are responsible for patterning during plant development.
Q2) What characteristic of short tandem repeat DNA makes it useful for studying evolution?
A)The number of repeats varies widely from person to person or animal to animal.
B)The sequence of DNA that is repeated varies significantly from individual to individual.
C)The sequence variation is acted upon differently by natural selection in different environments.
D)Every racial and ethnic group has inherited different short tandem repeats.
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Chapter 22: Descent With Modification: a Darwinian View of Life
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Q1) Evolutionary trees such as this are properly understood by scientists to be A)theories.
B)hypotheses.
C)guesses.
D)dogmas.
E)facts.
Q2) Which of the following is not an observation or inference on which natural selection is based?
A)There is heritable variation among individuals.
B)Poorly adapted individuals never produce offspring.
C)Species produce more offspring than the environment can support.
D)Individuals whose characteristics are best suited to the environment generally leave more offspring than those whose characteristics are less well suited.
E)Only a fraction of an individual's offspring may survive.
Q3) Which of the following statements best describes theories?
A)They are nearly the same things as hypotheses.
B)They are supported by, and make sense of, many observations.
C)They cannot be tested because the described events occurred only once.
D)They are predictions of future events.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
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Q1) A trend toward the decrease in the size of plants on the slopes of mountains as altitudes increase is an example of
A)a cline.
B)a bottleneck.
C)relative fitness.
D)genetic drift.
E)geographic variation.
Q2) Most invertebrates have a cluster of ten similar Hox genes, all located on the same chromosome. Most vertebrates have four such clusters of Hox genes, located on four nonhomologous chromosomes. The process that could have potentially contributed to the cluster's presence on more than one chromosome was
A)binary fission.
B)translation.
C)gene duplication.
D)nondisjunction.
E)transcription.
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25
Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
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Q1) In order for speciation to occur, what must be true?
A)The number of chromosomes in the gene pool must change.
B)Changes to centromere location or chromosome size must occur within the gene pool.
C)Large numbers of genes that affect a single phenotypic trait must change.
D)Large numbers of genes that affect numerous phenotypic traits must change.
E)At least one gene, affecting at least one phenotypic trait, must change.
Q2) Dogs (Canis lupus familiaris)and gray wolves (Canis lupus)can interbreed to produce viable, fertile offspring. These species shared a common ancestor recently (in geologic time)and have a high degree of genetic similarity, although their anatomies vary widely. Judging from this evidence, which two species concepts are most likely to place dogs and wolves together into a single species?
A)ecological and morphological
B)ecological and phylogenetic
C)morphological and phylogenetic
D)biological and morphological
E)biological and phylogenetic
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Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
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Q1) Larval flies (maggots)express the Ubx gene in all of their segments, and thereby lack appendages. If this same gene continued to be expressed throughout subsequent developmental stages, except in the head region, and if the result was a fit, sexually mature organism that still strongly resembled a maggot, this would be an example of A)paedomorphosis.
B)homochrony.
C)heterochrony.
D)Two of the responses above are correct.
Q2) Which organisms would you expect to be most poorly represented in the fossil record?
A)common, soft-bodied slugs
B)rare, soft-bodied worms
C)bony fish
D)marine crabs
E)flightless birds
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Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
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Q1) If the above figure is an accurate depiction of relatedness, then which of the following should be correct? 1. The entire tree is based on maximum parsimony.
2. If all species depicted here make up a taxon, this taxon is monophyletic.
3. The last common ancestor of species B and C occurred more recently than the last common ancestor of species D and E.
4. Species A is the direct ancestor of both species B and species C.
5. The species present at position 3 is ancestral to C, D, and E.
A)1 and 3
B)3 and 4
C)2, 3, and 4
D)1, 2, and 3
Q2) Which individual would make the worst systematist? One who is uncomfortable with the
A)Linnaean system of classification.
B)notion of hypothetical phylogenies.
C)PhyloCode method of classification.
D)notion of permanent polytomies.
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Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Carl Woese and collaborators identified two major branches of prokaryotic evolution. What was the basis for dividing prokaryotes into two domains?
A)microscopic examination of staining characteristics of the cell wall
B)metabolic characteristics such as the production of methane gas
C)metabolic characteristics such as chemoautotrophy and photosynthesis
D)genetic characteristics such as ribosomal RNA sequences
E)ecological characteristics such as the ability to survive in extreme environments
Q2) This bacterium derives nutrition by digesting human intestinal contents (in other words, food). Thus, this bacterium should be an
A)aerobic chemoheterotroph.
B)aerobic chemoautotroph.
C)anaerobic chemoheterotroph.
D)anaerobic chemoautotroph.
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Chapter 28: Protists
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Q1) Given its mode of reproduction and internal structures, which of the following should be expected to occur in Giardia at some stage of its life cycle? 1. separation (segregation)of daughter chromosomes
2. crossing over
3. meiosis
A)1 only
B)3 only
C)1 and 2
D)1 and 3
E)2 and 3
Q2) Which of the following characteristics does not apply to the organism in test tube 5?
A)conjugation produces genetic variation
B)cells are reinforced by cellulose plates
C)use cilia for locomotion
D)asexual reproduction is by binary fission
E)cilia are used for feeding
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Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
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Q1) A dissection of the interior of this organism's stem should reveal
A)lignified vascular tissues.
B)cuticle.
C)gametangia.
D)that it is composed of only a single, long cell.
E)a relatively high proportion of dead, water-filled cells.
Q2) What is a key difference between spores and seeds?
A)Spores are single-celled reproductive structures; seeds are multicellular embryos.
B)Spores are multicellular reproductive structures; seeds are unicellular embryos.
C)Spores have stored nutrients; seeds do not.
D)Spores disperse far distances; seeds are larger and disperse shorter distances.
E)Spores are adapted to mild climates; seeds can withstand dry and cold conditions.
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Chapter 30: Plant Diversity Ii: the Evolution of Seed Plants
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Q1) The three key reproductive adaptations of seed plant evolution include
A)dominant sporophyte, cones, ovules.
B)dominant gametophyte, spores, seeds.
C)dominant sporophyte, seeds, pollen.
D)sporophylls, strobili, cones.
E)homospory, spores, cones.
Q2) Which of the following sex and generation combinations most directly produces the fruit?
A)male gametophyte
B)female gametophyte
C)male sporophyte
D)female sporophyte
Q3) Hypothetically, one of the major benefits of double fertilization in angiosperms is to
A)decrease the potential for mutation by insulating the embryo with other cells.
B)increase the number of fertilization events and offspring produced.
C)promote diversity in flower shape and colour.
D)coordinate developmental timing between the embryo and its food stores.
E)emphasize embryonic survival by increasing embryo size.
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32
Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) At which location should one find the lowest concentration of fungal enzymes, assuming that the enzymes do not diffuse far from their source, and that no other fungi are present in this habitat?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
Q2) Lichens are older than plants. Is it possible that lichens were an important component in aiding the colonization of land by plants?
A)Yes; lichens could have floated in oceans and accidentally been washed up on land.
B)Yes; lichens could have modified the rocks and soil in a similar way that they do today when they colonize areas disturbed by volcanic explosions and fires.
C)No, because fungus and algae colonized land at different times.
D)No, because the fungus component of lichens is not as old as algae.
E)More experiments need to be done before we are sure.
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33
Chapter 32: An Overview of Animal Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) This embryo may potentially develop into a(n)
A)turtle.
B)earthworm.
C)sea star.
D)fish.
E)sea urchin.
Q2) According to the phylogenies depicted in the previous pair of figures, if one were to create a taxon called Radiata that included all animal species whose members have true radial symmetry, then such a taxon would be
A)paraphyletic.
B)polyphyletic.
C)monophyletic.
D)a clade.
E)More than one of these responses are correct.
Q3) Which phylogeny has been created by emphasizing a protein found in placozoans?
A)I
B)II
C)III
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34
Chapter 33: An Introduction to Invertebrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is an arthropod's exoskeleton well adapted for life on land?
A)provides protection
B)is impermeable to water, therefore prevents desiccation
C)allows for slow but steady movement
D)Two of the responses are correct.
E)All three responses are correct.
Q2) One day, little Tommy (a student in an undersupervised class of 40 fifth graders)got the urge to pet Nemo (the clownfish), who was swimming among the waving petals of a pretty underwater "flower" that had a big hole in the midst of the petals. Tommy giggled upon finding that these petals felt sticky. A few hours later, Tommy was in the nurse's office with nausea and cramps. Microscopic examination of his fingers would probably have revealed the presence of
A)teeth marks.
B)spines.
C)spicules.
D)nematocysts.
E)a radula.
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Chapter 34: The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates
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Q1) Which of the following statements about human evolution is a common misconception?
A)Bipedalism evolved early in hominin history.
B)Brains of hominins were small compared with those of Homo sapiens.
C)Early hominins evolved from chimpanzees.
D)Earliest hominins were small in size.
E)At certain times, several species of hominins coexisted.
Q2) Which of the following are the most abundant and diverse of the extant vertebrates?
A)ray-finned fishes
B)birds
C)amphibians
D)nonbird reptiles
E)mammals
Q3) In which vertebrates is fertilization exclusively internal?
A)chondrichthyans, osteichthyans, and mammals
B)amphibians, mammals, and reptiles
C)chondrichthyans, osteichthyans, and reptiles
D)reptiles and mammals
E)reptiles and amphibians
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Plant Structure, Growth, and Development
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Q1) The innermost layer of the root cortex is the A)core.
B)pericycle.
C)endodermis.
D)pith.
E)vascular cambium.
Q2) A leaf primordium is initiated as a small mound of tissue on the flank of a dome-shaped shoot apical meristem. The earliest physical evidence of the site of a newly forming leaf primordium would be
A)development of chloroplasts in a surface cell of the shoot apical meristem.
B)cell division in the shoot apical meristem with the newly forming walls perpendicular to the surface of the meristem.
C)preprophase bands parallel to the surface of the meristem in subsurface cells of the shoot apical meristem.
D)elongation of epidermal cells perpendicular to the surface of the shoot apical meristem.
E)formation of stomata in the epidermal layer of the shoot apical meristem.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants
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Q1) Plants do not have a circulatory system like that of some animals. If a water molecule did "circulate" (that is, go from one point in a plant to another and back in the same day), it would require the activity of
A)only the xylem.
B)only the phloem.
C)only the endodermis.
D)both the xylem and the endodermis.
E)both the xylem and the phloem.
Q2) Which of the following statements about xylem is incorrect?
A)It conducts material from root tips to leaves.
B)The conducting cells are part of the apoplast.
C)It transports mainly sugars and amino acids.
D)It typically has a lower water potential than is found in soil.
E)No energy input is required for transport.
Q3) A primary result for stomatal closure on a hot, dry day would be
A)release of K ions to the apoplast and subsidiary cells.
B)displacement of Ca ions from the thick inner walls of the guard cells.
C)disassembly of the microfibrils in the cell walls of the subsidiary cells.
D)upregulation of aquaporin synthesis.
E)downregulation of extension proteins.
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Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
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Q1) Carnivorous plants have evolved mechanisms that trap and digest small animals. The products of this digestion are used to supplement the plant's supply of A)energy.
B)carbohydrates.
C)lipids and steroids.
D)minerals.
E)water.
Q2) The best conclusion drawn from the data in the above figure is that the plant
A)grows best without air in the soil.
B)grows fastest in 5-10% air.
C)grows best at soil air levels above 15%.
D)does not respond differently to different levels of air in the soil.
E)would grow to 24 grams in 40% soil air.
Q3) In a root nodule, the gene coding for nitrogenase
A)is inactivated by leghemoglobin.
B)is absent in active bacteroids.
C)is found in the cells of the pericycle.
D)protects the nodule from nitrogen.
E)is part of the Rhizobium genome.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
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Q1) Recent research has shown that pollination requires that carpels recognize pollen grains as "self or nonself." For self-incompatibility, the system requires
A)the rejection of nonself cells.
B)the rejection of self cells.
C)carpel incompatibility with the egg cells.
D)that the flowers be incomplete.
E)the union of genetically identical sperm and egg cells.
Q2) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in a pollen sac?
A)sporangia meiosis two haploid cells meiosis two pollen grains per cell
B)pollen grain meiosis two generative cells two tube cells per pollen grain
C)two haploid cells meiosis generative cell tube cell-fertilization pollen grain
D)pollen grain mitosis microspores meiosis generative cell plus tube cell
E)microsporocyte meiosis microspores mitosis two haploid cells per pollen grain
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Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External
Signals
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Q1) A plant mutant that shows normal gravitropic bending but does not store starch in its plastids would require a reevaluation of the role of ________ in gravitropism.
A)auxin
B)calcium
C)statoliths
D)light
E)differential growth
Q2) Which of the following treatments would enhance the level of the Pfr form of phytochrome?
A)exposure to far-red light
B)exposure to red light
C)long dark period
D)inhibition of protein synthesis
E)synthesis of phosphorylating enzymes
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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
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Q1) Which of the following processes is the lizard utilizing to reduce heat loss to the environment? I. conduction
II. evaporation
III. radiation
A)I only
B)II only
C)I and II
D)I and III
E)II and III
Q2) Muscles are joined to bones by A)ligaments.
B)tendons.
C)loose connective tissue.
D)Haversian systems.
E)spindle fibres.
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Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
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Q1) The large surface area in the gut directly facilitates A)secretion.
B)absorption.
C)elimination.
D)filtration.
E)temperature regulation.
Q2) Digestive enzymes are not needed by which of the following?
A)bearded seal
B)daffodil
C)black Bear
D)caterpillar
E)rock python
Q3) Digestive secretions with a pH of 2 are characteristic of the A)small intestine.
B)stomach.
C)pancreas.
D)liver.
E)mouth.
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43
Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Q1) Small swollen areas in the neck, groin, and axillary region are associated with A)increased activity of the immune system.
B)a broken limb.
C)blood sugar that is abnormally high.
D)dehydration.
E)sodium depletion.
Q2) Which of the following develops the greatest pressure on the blood in the mammalian aorta?
A)systole of the left atrium
B)diastole of the right ventricle
C)systole of the left ventricle
D)diastole of the right atrium
E)diastole of the left atrium
Q3) After completing a race, a runner's heart rate begins to decelerate. Which of the following is responsible for this?
A)adrenaline
B)sympathetic nervous system
C)parasympathetic nervous system
D)epinephrine
E)norepinephrine
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Chapter 43: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) An epitope is
A)part of the interferons that penetrate foreign cells.
B)a protein protruding from the surface of B cells.
C)two structurally similar antibodies dissolved in the blood plasma.
D)that part of an antigen that actually binds to an antigen receptor.
E)a mirror image of an antigen.
Q2) Antihistamine treatment reduces
A)blood vessel dilation.
B)phagocytosis of antigens.
C)MHC presentation by macrophages.
D)the secondary immune response.
E)clonal selection by antigens.
Q3) The transfusion of type A blood to a person who has type O blood would result in
A)the recipient's B antigens reacting with the donated anti-B antibodies.
B)the recipient's anti-A antibodies clumping the donated red blood cells.
C)the recipient's anti-A and anti-O antibodies reacting with the donated red blood cells if the donor was a heterozygote (Ai)for blood type.
D)no reaction because type O is a universal donor.
E)no reaction because the O-type individual does not have antibodies.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) The porbeagle shark (Lamana nasus), found on the continental shelf between Newfoundland and Labrador and Gulf of Maine, excretes ________ which is produced in the ________.
A)urea, gall bladder
B)ammonia, kidney
C)urea, kidney
D)ammonia, liver
E)urea, liver
Q2) A human who has no access to fresh water but is forced to drink sea water instead A)will thrive under such conditions, as long as he has lived at the ocean most of his life. B)will excrete more water molecules than taken in, because of the high load of ion ingestion.
C)will develop structural changes in the kidneys to accommodate the salt overload. D)will find that drinking saltwater satiates his thirst.
E)will risk becoming overhydrated within 12 hours.
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Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Q1) The interrelationships between the endocrine and the nervous systems are especially apparent in
A)a neuron in the spinal cord.
B)a steroid-producing cell in the adrenal cortex.
C)a neurosecretory cell in the hypothalamus.
D)a brain cell in the cerebral cortex.
E)a cell in the pancreas that produces digestive enzymes.
Q2) An example of antagonistic hormones controlling homeostasis is
A)thyroxine and parathyroid hormone in calcium balance.
B)insulin and glucagon in glucose metabolism.
C)progestins and estrogens in sexual differentiation.
D)epinephrine and norepinephrine in fight-or-flight responses.
E)oxytocin and prolactin in milk production.
Q3) Based on their effects, which pair below would not be expected to be active at the same time and place?
A)prostaglandin and nitric oxide
B)growth hormone and insulin-like growth factors
C)endocrine and exocrine glands
D)hormones and target cells
E)neurosecretory cells and neurotransmitters
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Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following characterizes parthenogenesis?
A)An individual may change its sex during its lifetime.
B)Specialized groups of cells grow into new individuals.
C)An organism is first a male and then a female.
D)An egg develops without being fertilized.
E)Both mates have male and female reproductive organs.
Q2) At the time of fertilization, the complete maturation of each oogonium has resulted in
A)one secondary oocyte.
B)two primary oocytes.
C)four secondary oocytes.
D)four primary oocytes.
E)four zygotes.
Q3) Testosterone is synthesized primarily by the
A)sperm cells.
B)hypothalamus.
C)Leydig cells.
D)anterior pituitary gland.
E)seminiferous tubules.
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Animal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which specialized structures evolved for use in terrestrial embryote development? I. shelled eggs
II. motile sperm
III. uterus
A)I only
B)II only
C)I and II
D)I and III
E)II and III
Q2) Gases are exchanged in a mammalian embryo in the A)amnion.
B)hypoblast.
C)chorion.
D)trophoblast.
E)yolk sac.
Q3) Which of the following is a correct description of an anatomical relationship?
A)The mesoderm gives rise to the notochord.
B)The endoderm gives rise to the hair follicles.
C)The ectoderm gives rise to the liver.
D)The mesoderm gives rise to the lungs.
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Chapter 48: Neurons, Synapses, and Signalling
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Q1) Assume that a single IPSP has a negative magnitude of -0.5 mV at the axon hillock and that a single EPSP has a positive magnitude of +0.5 mV. For a neuron with an initial membrane potential of -70 mV, the net effect of the simultaneous arrival of six IPSPs and two EPSPs would be to move the membrane potential to
A)-72 mV.
B)-71 mV.
C)-70 mV.
D)-69 mV.
E)-68 mV.
Q2) The onset of these symptoms follows the loss of the myelin sheath, leading to
A)a loss in conduction speed of action potentials
B)an increase in conduction speed of action potentials.
C)consistent depolarization at the nodes of Ranvier.
D)increased saltatory conduction.
E)an increased diameter of the axon.
Q3) The fastest possible conduction velocity of action potentials is observed in
A)thin, non-myelinated neurons.
B)thin, myelinated neurons.
C)thick, non-myelinated neurons.
D)thick, myelinated neurons.
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Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
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Q1) The activation of the parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system is associated with
A)resting and digesting.
B)release of epinephrine into the blood.
C)increased metabolic rate.
D)fight-or-flight responses.
E)intensive aerobic exercise.
Q2) Cephalization, the clustering of neurons and interneurons in the anterior part of the animal, is apparent in
A)Hydra.
B)cnidarians.
C)Planaria.
D)sea stars.
E)invertebrate animals with radial symmetry.
Q3) The human knee-jerk reflex requires an intact
A)spinal cord.
B)hypothalamus.
C)corpus callosum.
D)cerebellum.
E)medulla.
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Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sensory-transducing cells that fire both graded potentials and action potentials are found in A)vision. B)gustation.
C)olfaction. D)audition.
Q2) Choose the correct sequence of the following events leading to the sensory processing of a stimulus. 1. transmission
2. transduction
3. integration
4. amplification
A)1 2 3 4
B)1 4 2 3
C)2 4 1 3
D)3 1 2 4
E)3 1 4 2
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Chapter 51: Animal Behaviour
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a field trip, an instructor touched a moth resting on a tree trunk. The moth raised its forewings to reveal large eyespots on its hind wings. The instructor asked why the moth lifted its wings. One student answered that sensory receptors had fired and triggered a neuronal reflex culminating in the contraction of certain muscles. A second student responded that the behaviour might frighten predators. Which statement best describes these explanations?
A)The first explanation is correct, but the second is incorrect.
B)The first explanation refers to proximate causation, whereas the second refers to ultimate causation.
C)The first explanation is biological, whereas the second is philosophical.
D)The first explanation is testable as a scientific hypothesis, whereas the second is not.
E)Both explanations are reasonable and simply represent a difference of opinion.
Q2) Which of the following is not a display of altrustic behaviour?
A)Richardson's ground squirrel emitting an alarm call to unaware neighbours
B)worker honeybee stinging an intruder and subsequently dying
C)non-reproductive naked mole rat protecting the queen from predation
D)vervet monkey alarm calling when spotting an eagle
E)green lacewing producing a hybrid courtship song
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Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Q1) Why is the climate drier on the leeward side of mountain ranges that are subjected to prevailing winds?
A)Deserts usually are found on the leeward side of mountain ranges.
B)The sun illuminates the leeward side of mountain ranges at a more direct angle, converting to heat energy, which evaporates most of the water present.
C)Pushed by the prevailing winds on the windward side, air is forced to rise, cool, condense, and drop its precipitation, leaving only dry air to descend the leeward side.
D)Air masses pushed by the prevailing winds are stopped by mountain ranges and the moisture is used up in the stagnant air masses on the leeward side.
E)More organisms live on the sheltered, leeward side of mountain ranges where their utilization of water lowers the amount available when compared to the windward side.
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Chapter 53: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which population(s)is (are)in the process of decreasing?
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)I and II
E)II and III
Q2) In July 2008, the United States had a population of approximately 302 000 000 people. How many Americans were there in July 2009, if the estimated 2008 growth rate was 0.88%?
A)2 700 000
B)5 500 000
C)303 000 000
D)304 000 000
E)2 710 800 000
Q3) Which curve best describes survivorship in a marine crustacean that moults?
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Chapter 54: Community Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A community's actual evapotranspiration is a reflection of
A)solar radiation, temperature, and water availability.
B)the number of plants and how much moisture they lose.
C)the depth of the water table.
D)wind speed and the frequency of wind gusts.
E)plant biomass and plant water content.
Q2) Why are food chains relatively short?
A)Top-level feeders tend to be more numerous than lower-trophic-level species.
B)Top-level feeders tend to be small but are capable of conserving more energy.
C)Longer chains are less stable and energy transfer between levels is inefficient.
D)There are only so many organisms that are adapted to feed on other types of organisms.
E)Food chain length is ultimately determined by the photosynthetic efficiency of producers.
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56
Chapter 55: Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Examine this food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem. Which species is most likely a decomposer on this food web?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q2) Which of these ecosystems has the lowest net primary production per square metre?
A)a salt marsh
B)an open ocean
C)a coral reef
D)a grassland
E)a tropical rain forest
Q3) How do the Taylor Glacier bacteria produce their energy?
A)photosynthesis
B)heterotrophism
C)chemoautotrophism
D)thermophobism
E)chemosynthesis
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Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Global Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most serious consequence of a decrease in global biodiversity would be the
A)increase in global warming and thinning of the ozone layer.
B)potential loss of ecosystem services on which people depend.
C)increase in the abundance and diversity of edge-adapted species.
D)loss of source of genetic diversity to preserve endangered species.
E)loss of species for "bioprospecting."
Q2) How might the extinction of some Pacific Island bats called "flying foxes" threaten the survival of over 75% of the tree species in those islands?
A)The bats eat the insects that harm competitor plants.
B)The bats consume the fruit including the seeds that would disrupt the trees' reproductive cycle.
C)The bats roost in the trees and fertilize soil around the trees with their nitrogen-rich droppings.
D)The bats pollinate the trees and disperse seeds.
E)The bats pierce the fruit, which allows the seeds to germinate.
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58