Communication and Culture
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
This course explores the dynamic relationship between communication practices and cultural contexts, examining how culture shapes the ways individuals and groups share, interpret, and negotiate meaning. Students will study theoretical frameworks and case studies to understand verbal and nonverbal communication across cultures, the role of media in cultural representation, and the impact of globalization on communicative exchanges. The course encourages critical analysis of intercultural communication challenges and the development of skills necessary for effective and respectful interaction in diverse social and professional environments.
Recommended Textbook
Intercultural Communication A Contextual Approach 6th Edition by James W. Neuliep
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction: Evolution and Themes of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) After several weeks you notice that the plants in high light are larger (grew more)and there are more air bubbles in the tank than in the low light tank. The most logical conclusion is that
A)more air in the tank has helped the plants to grow.
B)the difference in light must have an influence on growth.
C)you didn't do the study properly and put larger plants in one tank.
D)something in the low light tank must be stopping growth.
E)you need to do more research to fully understand what could be happening.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of these individuals is likely to be most successful in an evolutionary sense?
A)a reproductively sterile individual who never falls ill
B)an organism that dies after five days of life but leaves 10 offspring, all of whom survive to reproduce
C)a male who mates with 20 females and fathers one offspring
D)an organism that lives 100 years and leaves two offspring, both of whom survive to reproduce
E)a female who mates with 20 males and produces one offspring that lives to reproduce
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the figure above, how many unpaired electrons does phosphorus have in its valence shell?
A)15
B)2
C)3
D)7
E)5
Answer: C
Q2) Which drawing in the figure above depicts the electron configuration of an element with chemical properties most similar to Helium (2He)?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: Water and Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Buffers are substances that help resist shifts in pH by
A)releasing H to a solution when acids are added.
B)donating H to a solution when bases are added.
C)releasing OH to a solution when bases are added.
D)accepting H from a solution when acids are added.
E)both donating H to a solution when bases are added, and accepting H when acids are added.
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following is a hydrophobic material?
A)paper
B)table salt
C)wax
D)sugar
E)pasta
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
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Q1) Which of the structures illustrated above cannot form hydrogen bonds with water molecules?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q2) Of the biologically important functional groups listed below, which is not reactive but serves as a tag or marker?
A)hydroxyl B)carboxyl C)amino
D)sulfhydryl E)methyl
Q3) Which functional group shown above is characteristic of alcohols?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
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Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following polymers contain nitrogen?
A)starch
B)glycogen
C)cellulose
D)chitin
E)amylopectin
Q2) Upon chemical analysis, a particular polypeptide was found to contain 100 amino acids. How many peptide bonds are present in this protein?
A)101
B)100
C)99
D)98
E)97
Q3) Which of the following molecules contains a glycosidic linkage type of covalent bond?
A)4
B)6
C)12
D)13
E)15
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Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Signals between the ECM and the cytoskeleton may be transmitted by A)fibronectin.
B)proteoglycans.
C)integrins.
D)collagen.
E)middle lamella.
Q2) The smallest cell structure that would most likely be visible with a standard (not super-resolution)research-grade light microscope is
A)a mitochondrion.
B)a microtubule.
C)a ribosome.
D)a microfilament.
E)a nuclear pore.
Q3) The advantage of light microscopy over electron microscopy is that
A)light microscopy provides for higher magnification than electron microscopy.
B)light microscopy provides for higher resolving power than electron microscopy.
C)light microscopy allows one to view dynamic processes in living cells.
D)light microscopy provides higher contrast than electron microscopy.
E)specimen preparation for light microcopy does not produce artifacts.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
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Q1) Which of the following statements correctly describes the normal tonicity conditions for typical plant and animal cells?
A)The animal cell is in a hypotonic solution, and the plant cell is in an isotonic solution.
B)The animal cell is in an isotonic solution, and the plant cell is in a hypertonic solution.
C)The animal cell is in a hypertonic solution, and the plant cell is in an isotonic solution.
D)The animal cell is in an isotonic solution, and the plant cell is in a hypotonic solution.
E)The animal cell is in a hypertonic solution, and the plant cell is in a hypotonic solution.
Q2) Which line in the graph represents the bag that contained a solution isotonic to the 0.6 M solution at the beginning of the experiment?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) For the enzyme-catalyzed reaction shown in the figure, which of these treatments will cause the greatest increase in the rate of the reaction, if the initial reactant concentration is 1.0 micromolar?
A)doubling the activation energy needed
B)cooling the reaction by 10°C
C)doubling the concentration of the reactants to 2.0 micromolar
D)doubling the enzyme concentration
E)increasing the concentration of reactants to 10.0 micromolar, while reducing the concentration of enzyme by 1/2
Q2) Which of the following is a statement of the first law of thermodynamics?
A)Energy cannot be created or destroyed.
B)The entropy of the universe is decreasing.
C)The entropy of the universe is constant.
D)Kinetic energy is stored energy that results from the specific arrangement of matter.
E)Energy cannot be transferred or transformed.
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10
Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately how many molecules of ATP are produced from the complete oxidation of two molecules of glucose (C H O)in aerobic cellular respiration?
A)2
B)4
C)15
D)30-32
E)60-64
Q2) In which step in the figure above is an inorganic phosphate added to the reactant?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q3) Which step in the figure above is a redox reaction?
A)A
B)B C)C D)D
E)E
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the relationship between wavelength of light and the quantity of energy per photon?
A)They have a direct, linear relationship.
B)They are inversely related.
C)They are logarithmically related.
D)They are separate phenomena.
E)They are only related in certain parts of the spectrum.
Q2) An outcome of this experiment was to help determine
A)the relationship between heterotrophic and autotrophic organisms.
B)the relationship between wavelengths of light and the rate of aerobic respiration.
C)the relationship between wavelengths of light and the amount of heat released.
D)the relationship between wavelengths of light and the rate of photosynthesis.
E)the relationship between the concentration of carbon dioxide and the rate of photosynthesis.
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Chapter 11: Cell Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Apoptosis protects healthy "neighbours" from a dying cell by preventing A)cell death spreading from one cell to the next via paracrine signals.
B)lysosomal enzymes exiting the dying cell that would damage surrounding cells.
C)release of cellular energy that would interfere with the neighbours' energy budget.
D)bits of membrane from the dying cell merging with neighbours and bringing in foreign receptors.
E)neighbouring cells activating immunological responses.
Q2) Lipid-soluble signalling molecules, such as testosterone, cross the membranes of all cells but affect only target cells because
A)only target cells retain the appropriate DNA segments.
B)intracellular receptors are present only in target cells.
C)most cells lack the Y chromosome required.
D)only target cells possess the cytosolic enzymes that transduce the testosterone.
E)only in target cells is testosterone able to initiate the phosphorylation cascade leading to activated transcription factor.
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13
Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) For a newly evolving protist, what would be the advantage of using eukaryote-like cell division rather than prokaryotic binary fission?
A)Binary fission would not allow for the formation of new organisms.
B)Cell division would allow for the orderly and efficient segregation of multiple linear chromosomes.
C)Cell division would be faster than binary fission.
D)Cell division allows for lower rates of error per chromosome replication.
E)Binary fission would not allow the organism to have complex cells.
Q2) If there are 20 centromeres in a cell at anaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each daughter cell following cytokinesis?
A)10
B)20
C)30
D)40
E)80
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Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autosomes are chromosomes, which are
A)involved in sexual identity.
B)capable of reproducing themselves.
C)involved in the autoimmune responses.
D)all chromosomes, except sex chromosomes.
E)the only chromosomes that are inherited.
Q2) The karyotype of one species of primate has 48 chromosomes. In a particular female, cell division goes awry and she produces one of her eggs with an extra chromosome (25). The most probable source of this error would be a mistake in which of the following?
A)mitosis in her ovary
B)metaphase I of one meiotic event
C)telophase II of one meiotic event
D)telophase I of one meiotic event
E)either anaphase I or II
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15
Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
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Q1) When crossing an organism that is homozygous recessive for a single trait with a heterozygote, what is the chance of producing an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype?
A)0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
E)100%
Q2) If doubly heterozygous SsNn cacti were allowed to self-pollinate, the F would segregate in which of the following ratios?
A)3 sharp-spined:1 spineless
B)1 sharp-spined:2 dull-spined:1 spineless
C)1 sharp-spined:1 dull-spined:1 spineless
D)1 sharp-spined:1 dull-spined
E)9 sharp-spined:3 dull-spined:4 spineless
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Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calico cats are female because
A)the males die during embryonic development.
B)a male inherits only one of the two X-linked genes controlling hair colour.
C)the Y chromosome has a gene blocking orange colouration.
D)only females can have Barr bodies.
E)multiple crossovers on the Y chromosome prevent orange pigment production.
Q2) Cinnabar eyes is a sex-linked recessive characteristic in fruit flies. If a female having cinnabar eyes is crossed with a wild-type male, what percentage of the F males will have cinnabar eyes?
A)0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
E)100%
Q3) What is the reason that linked genes are inherited together?
A)They are located close together on the same chromosome.
B)The number of genes in a cell is greater than the number of chromosomes.
C)Chromosomes are unbreakable.
D)Alleles are paired together during meiosis.
E)Genes align that way during metaphase I of meiosis.
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Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) In his transformation experiments, what did Griffith observe?
A)Mutant mice were resistant to bacterial infections.
B)Mixing a heat-killed pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living nonpathogenic strain can convert some of the living cells into the pathogenic form.
C)Mixing a heat-killed nonpathogenic strain of bacteria with a living pathogenic strain makes the pathogenic strain nonpathogenic.
D)Infecting mice with nonpathogenic strains of bacteria makes them resistant to pathogenic strains.
E)Mice infected with a pathogenic strain of bacteria can spread the infection to other mice.
Q2) Why do histones bind tightly to DNA?
A)Histones are positively charged, and DNA is negatively charged.
B)Histones are negatively charged, and DNA is positively charged.
C)Both histones and DNA are strongly hydrophobic.
D)Histones are covalently linked to the DNA.
E)Histones are highly hydrophobic, and DNA is hydrophilic.
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18
Chapter 17: From Gene to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of mutation, resulting in an error in the mRNA just after the AUG start of translation, is likely to have the most serious effect on the polypeptide product?
A)a deletion of a codon
B)a deletion of two nucleotides
C)a substitution of the third nucleotide in an ACC codon
D)a substitution of the first nucleotide of a GGG codon
E)an insertion of a codon
Q2) Which of the following is a function of a signal peptide?
A)to direct an mRNA molecule into the cisternal space of the ER
B)to bind RNA polymerase to DNA and initiate transcription
C)to terminate translation of the messenger RNA
D)to translocate polypeptides across the ER membrane
E)to signal the initiation of transcription
Q3) A frameshift mutation could result from
A)a base insertion only.
B)a base deletion only.
C)a base substitution only.
D)deletion of three consecutive bases.
E)either an insertion or a deletion of a base.
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Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) For a repressible operon to be transcribed, which of the following must occur?
A)A corepressor must be present.
B)RNA polymerase and the active repressor must be present.
C)RNA polymerase must bind to the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive.
D)RNA polymerase cannot be present, and the repressor must be inactive.
E)RNA polymerase must not occupy the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive.
Q2) Forms of the Ras protein found in tumours usually cause which of the following?
A)DNA replication to stop
B)DNA replication to be hyperactive
C)cell-to-cell adhesion to be nonfunctional
D)cell division to cease
E)growth factor signalling to be hyperactive
Q3) Given the damage caused by UV, the kind of gene affected in those with XP is one whose product is involved with
A)mending of double-strand breaks in the DNA backbone.
B)breakage of cross-strand covalent bonds.
C)the ability to excise single-strand damage and replace it.
D)the removal of double-strand damaged areas.
E)causing affected skin cells to undergo apoptosis.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Viruses
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Q1) Which of the three types of viruses shown above would you expect to include a capsid(s)?
A)I only
B)II only
C)III only
D)I and II only
E)all three
Q2) H1N1 was declared ________ in June 2009.
A)an epidemic
B)a pandemic
C)cured
D)under control
E)non-life-threatening
Q3) In the figure, at the arrow marked II, what enzyme(s)are being utilized?
A)reverse transcriptase
B)viral DNA polymerase
C)host cell DNA polymerase
D)host cell RNA polymerase
E)host cell DNA and RNA polymerases
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Dna Tools and Biotechnology
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Q1) Why might they be conducting such an experiment?
A)to find the location of this gene in the human genome
B)to prepare to isolate the chromosome on which the gene of interest is found
C)to find which of the students has which alleles
D)to collect population data that can be used to assess natural selection
E)to collect population data that can be used to study genetic drift
Q2) Researchers have successfully inserted this gene into goats. These "spidergoats" live a normal life. The silk protein is expressed and extracted from their milk. This is quite controversial; why not manufacture the silk from E.coli?
A)E.coli cannot be transformed.
B)Spiders are eukaryotic and their genes must be inserted into another eukaryote.
C)The silk protein would be mixed with other protein products in E.coli.
D)The sheer volume of protein extracted from milk makes it more economical.
E)Goats are more closely related to spiders than bacteria.
Q3) In recombinant DNA methods, the term vector can refer to
A)the enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction fragments.
B)the sticky end of a DNA fragment.
C)a SNP marker.
D)a plasmid used to transfer DNA into a living cell.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following studies would not likely be characterized as evo-devo?
A)the study of a particular species to see whether or not it has developmental regulation
B)a study of the assortment of homeotic genes in the zebra
C)a comparison of the functions of a particular homeotic gene among four species of reptiles
D)a study of the environmental pressures on developmental stages such as the tadpole
E)a fossil comparison of organisms from the Devonian era
Q2) Several of the different globin genes are expressed in humans, but at different times in development. What mechanism could allow for this?
A)exon shuffling
B)intron activation
C)pseudogene activation
D)differential translation of mRNAs
E)differential gene regulation over time
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Chapter 22: Descent With Modification: a Darwinian View of Life
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Q1) Members of two different species possess a similar-looking structure that they use in a similar fashion to perform the same function. Which information would best help distinguish between an explanation based on homology versus one based on convergent evolution?
A)The two species live at great distance from each other.
B)The two species share many proteins in common, and the nucleotide sequences that code for these proteins are almost identical.
C)The sizes of the structures in adult members of both species are similar in size.
D)Both species are well adapted to their particular environments.
Q2) Which of the following pieces of evidence most strongly supports the common origin of all life on Earth?
A)All organisms require energy.
B)All organisms use essentially the same genetic code.
C)All organisms reproduce.
D)All organisms show heritable variation.
E)All organisms have undergone evolution.
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Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
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Q1) A trend toward the decrease in the size of plants on the slopes of mountains as altitudes increase is an example of
A)a cline.
B)a bottleneck.
C)relative fitness.
D)genetic drift.
E)geographic variation.
Q2) Every HIV particle contains two RNA molecules. If two genes from one RNA molecule become detached and then, as a unit, get attached to one end of the other RNA molecule within a single HIV particle, which of these is true?
A)There are now fewer genes within the viral particle.
B)There are now more genes within the viral particle.
C)A point substitution mutation has occurred in the retroviral genome.
D)The retroviral equivalent of crossing over has occurred, no doubt resulting in a heightened positive effect.
E)One of the RNA molecules has experienced gene duplication as the result of translocation.
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25
Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
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Q1) Which species is least expected to have a good record of transitional fossils; in other words, which species' fossils, if present at all, are expected only in relatively superficial (i.e., shallow)strata?
A)V
B)W
C)X
D)Y
E)Z
Q2) Two species of frogs belonging to the same genus occasionally mate, but the offspring fail to develop and hatch. What is the mechanism for keeping the two frog species separate?
A)the postzygotic barrier called hybrid inviability
B)the postzygotic barrier called hybrid breakdown
C)the prezygotic barrier called hybrid sterility
D)gametic isolation
Q3) Which species is most closely related to species W?
A)V is most closely related to species W.
B)X is most closely related to species W.
C)Y and Z are equally closely related to W.
D)It is not possible to say from this tree.
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Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
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Q1) Fly species W, found in a certain part of the island, produces fertile offspring with species Y. Species W does not produce fertile offspring with species X or Z. If no other species can hybridize, then species W and Y
A)have genomes that are still similar enough for successful meiosis to occur in hybrid flies.
B)have more genetic similarity with each other than either did with the other two species.
C)may fuse into a single species if their hybrids remain fertile over the course of many generations.
D)Three of the above statements are correct.
E)Two of the statements above are correct.
Q2) Which organisms would you expect to be most poorly represented in the fossil record?
A)common, soft-bodied slugs
B)rare, soft-bodied worms
C)bony fish
D)marine crabs
E)flightless birds
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Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
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Q1) To apply parsimony to constructing a phylogenetic tree
A)choose the tree that assumes all evolutionary changes are equally probable.
B)choose the tree in which the branch points are based on as many shared derived characters as possible.
C)base phylogenetic trees only on the fossil record, as this provides the simplest explanation for evolution.
D)choose the tree that represents the fewest evolutionary changes, either in DNA sequences or morphology.
E)choose the tree with the fewest branch points.
Q2) Regarding these sequence homology data, the principle of maximum parsimony would be applicable in
A)distinguishing introns from exons.
B)determining degree of sequence homology.
C)selecting appropriate genes for comparison among species.
D)inferring evolutionary relatedness from the number of sequence differences.
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Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Members of Bacteria and Archaea benefit humans in all the following ways, with the exception of
A)convert milk to yogurt.
B)synthesize PHA that is used to make biodegradable plastic.
C)antibiotic resistance.
D)decompose organic matter in sewage.
E)produce vitamins and antibiotics.
Q2) If new genetic variation in the experimental populations arose solely by spontaneous mutations, then the most effective process for subsequently increasing the prevalence of the beneficial mutations in the population over the course of generations is
A)transduction.
B)binary fission.
C)conjugation.
D)transformation.
E)meiosis.
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Chapter 28: Protists
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Q1) According to the endosymbiotic theory of the origin of eukaryotic cells, how did mitochondria originate?
A)from infoldings of the plasma membrane, coupled with mutations of genes for proteins in energy-transfer reactions
B)from engulfed, originally free-living proteobacteria
C)by secondary endosymbiosis
D)from the nuclear envelope folding outward and forming mitochondrial membranes
E)when a protoeukaryote engaged in a symbiotic relationship with a protocell
Q2) The motility that permits P. bursaria to move toward a light source is provided by A)pseudopods.
B)a single flagellum composed of the protein, flagellin.
C)a single flagellum featuring the 9 + 2 pattern.
D)many cilia.
E)contractile vacuoles.
Q3) The cysts of Giardia are most analogous to the A)mitochondria of ancestral diplomonads.
B)nuclei of archaeans.
C)endospores of bacteria.
D)capsids of viruses.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
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Q1) A botanist discovers a new species of plant in a tropical rain forest. After observing its anatomy and life cycle, he notes the following characteristics: flagellated sperm, xylem with tracheids, separate gametophyte and sporophyte generations with the sporophyte dominant, and no seeds. This plant is probably most closely related to A)mosses.
B)charophytes. C)ferns.
D)gymnosperms.
E)flowering plants.
Q2) In terms of evolutionary time, which phyla are the oldest and which are the most recent (respectively)?
A)Phylum Hepatophyta, Phylum Anthophyta
B)Phylum Ginkgophyta, Phylum Pterophyta
C)Phylum Cycadophyta, Phylum Lycophyta
D)Phylum Lycophyta, Phylum Bryophyta
E)Phylum Gnetophyta, Phylum Anthocerophyta
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Chapter 30: Plant Diversity Ii: the Evolution of Seed Plants
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Q1) The seeds of orchids are among the smallest known, with virtually no endosperm and with miniscule seed leaves. Consequently, what should one expect to be true of such seeds?
A)They require extensive periods of dormancy during which the embryo develops.
B)They are surrounded by brightly coloured, sweet fruit.
C)They germinate very soon after being released from the ovary.
D)The developing embryo within is dependent upon the gametophyte for nutrition.
E)The sporophytes that produce such seeds are wind-pollinated.
Q2) Where in an angiosperm would you find a megasporangium?
A)in the style of a flower
B)inside the tip of a pollen tube
C)enclosed in the stigma of a flower
D)within an ovule contained within an ovary of a flower
E)packed into pollen sacs within the anthers found on a stamen
Q3) How many chromosomes should be in a generative cell nucleus?
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Lichens are older than plants. Is it possible that lichens were an important component in aiding the colonization of land by plants?
A)Yes; lichens could have floated in oceans and accidentally been washed up on land.
B)Yes; lichens could have modified the rocks and soil in a similar way that they do today when they colonize areas disturbed by volcanic explosions and fires.
C)No, because fungus and algae colonized land at different times.
D)No, because the fungus component of lichens is not as old as algae.
E)More experiments need to be done before we are sure.
Q2) Which process occurs in fungi and has the opposite effect on a cell's chromosome number than does meiosis I?
A)mitosis
B)plasmogamy
C)crossing over
D)binary fission
E)karyogamy
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Chapter 32: An Overview of Animal Diversity
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Q1) Which phylogeny has been created by emphasizing a protein found in placozoans?
A)I
B)II
C)III
Q2) On the basis of information in the previous paragraph, which of these should be able to be observed in Tp?
A)the act of fertilization
B)the process of gastrulation
C)eggs
D)All three of the responses above are correct.
E)Two of the responses above are correct.
Q3) Which of the following genetic processes may be most helpful in accounting for the Cambrian explosion?
A)binary fission
B)mitosis
C)random segregation
D)gene duplication
E)chromosomal condensation
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34
Chapter 33: An Introduction to Invertebrates
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Q1) One should expect to find the "9 + 2 pattern" of microtubules in association with the feeding apparatus of which of the following?
A)annelids
B)coral animals
C)tapeworms
D)sponges
E)terrestrial insects
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of adult echinoderms?
A)bilateral symmetry
B)spiral cleavage
C)gastrovascular cavity
D)exoskeleton
E)lophophore
Q3) Which structure do sea slugs use to feed on their prey?
A)nematocysts
B)a sharp beak
C)an incurrent siphon
D)a radula
E)a mantle cavity
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Page 35
Chapter 34: The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates
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Q1) Which of the following is the most specific group that includes both the Old World monkeys and the New World monkeys?
A)apes
B)Homo
C)anthropoids
D)hominins
E)primates
Q2) At the end of which era did most dinosaurs and pterosaurs become extinct?
A)Cretaceous
B)Permian
C)Devonian
D)Ordovician
E)Triassic
Q3) The swim bladder of ray-finned fishes
A)was probably modified from simple lungs of chondrichthyans.
B)developed into lungs in saltwater fishes.
C)first appeared in sharks.
D)provides for regulation of buoyancy.
E)Two of the options listed are correct.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Plant Structure, Growth, and Development
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Q1) Which of the following cells or tissues arise from lateral meristem activity?
A)secondary xylem
B)leaves
C)trichomes
D)tubers
E)cortex
Q2) Which of the following is derived from the ground tissue system?
A)root hair
B)cuticle
C)periderm
D)pith
E)phloem
Q3) Before differentiation can begin during the processes of plant cell and tissue culture, parenchyma cells from the source tissue must
A)differentiate into procambium.
B)undergo dedifferentiation.
C)increase the number of chromosomes in their nuclei.
D)enzymatically digest their primary cell walls.
E)establish a new polarity in their cytoplasm.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants
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Q1) Guard cells do which of the following?
A)protect the endodermis
B)accumulate K and close the stomata
C)contain chloroplasts that import K directly into the cells
D)guard against mineral loss through the stomata
E)help balance the photosynthesis-transpiration compromise
Q2) Which of the following best explains why very few CAM plants are tall?
A)They have difficulty moving water and minerals to the top of the plant during the day.
B)They would be unable to supply sufficient sucrose for active transport of minerals into the roots during the day or night.
C)Transpiration occurs only at night, and this would cause a highly negative in the roots of a tall plant during the day.
D)Since the stomata are closed in the leaves, the Casparian strip is closed in the endodermis of the root.
E)With the stomata open at night, the transpiration rate would limit plant height.
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Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
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Q1) A farming commitment that embraces a variety of methods that are conservation-minded, environmentally safe, and profitable is called
A)hydroponics.
B)nitrogen fixation.
C)responsible irrigation.
D)genetic engineering.
E)sustainable agriculture.
Q2) A corn (Zea mays)mutant is developed that is deficient in magnesium uptake. The most likely phenotypic expression would be
A)chlorosis, especially in the older leaves.
B)a purple tinge to actively growing shoots.
C)severely stunted root growth and branching.
D)a reduction in leaf surface area.
E)a delay in flowering.
Q3) How do macronutrients differ from micronutrients?
A)They differ in whether they are essential for plant growth and survival.
B)They differ in their availability in soil.
C)They differ in how much nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium are present.
D)They differ in the amount of the nutrient that plants require.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
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Q1) Biofuels are mainly produced by
A)the breakdown of cell wall biopolymers into sugars that can be fermented.
B)plants that convert hemicellulose into gasoline.
C)the genetic engineering of ethanol-generating genes into plants.
D)transgenic crops that have cell walls containing ethylene.
E)plants that are easy to grow in arid environments.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true for a species that produces seeds by apomixis?
A)The seed coat is made of diploid cells derived from the ovule of a flower.
B)The embryo consists of diploid cells derived from fertilization of a haploid egg by a haploid sperm.
C)The scutellum is the primary food storage tissue of the embryo.
D)A haploid embryo is contained within the seed.
E)The embryo of the seed is genetically distinct from the parent plant.
Q3) What is the first step in the germination of a seed?
A)pollination
B)fertilization
C)imbibition
D)hydrolysis of starch and other food reserves
E)emergence of the radicle
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Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External Signals
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Q1) When an arborist prunes a limb off a valuable tree, he or she usually paints the cut surface. The primary purpose of the paint is to
A)minimize water loss by evaporation from the cut surface.
B)improve the appearance of the cut surface.
C)stimulate growth of the cork cambium to "heal" the wound.
D)block entry of pathogens through the wound.
E)induce the production of phytoalexins.
Q2) Plant hormones can have different effects at different concentrations. This explains how
A)some plants are long-day plants and others are short-day plants.
B)signal transduction pathways in plants are different from those in animals.
C)plant genes recognize pathogen genes.
D)auxin can stimulate cell elongation in apical meristems, yet will inhibit the growth of axillary buds.
E)gibberellin concentration can both induce and break dormancy.
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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
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Q1) Endothermy
A)is a characteristic of most animals found in tropical zones.
B)is a characteristic of animals that have a fairly constant body temperature.
C)is a term equivalent to cold-blooded.
D)is a characteristic of mammals but not of birds.
E)is seen only in insects and in certain predatory fishes.
Q2) Which of the following processes is the lizard utilizing to reduce heat loss to the environment? I. conduction
II. evaporation
III. radiation
A)I only
B)II only
C)I and II
D)I and III
E)II and III
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Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
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Q1) For a nondiabetic person, the glucose concentration in this part of the vasculature varies more than in any other part.
A)abdominal artery
B)coronary arteries
C)pulmonary veins
D)hepatic portal vessel
E)jugular vein
Q2) If the ob gene, which is responsible for the production of leptin, is down-regulated, the result would be
A)an increased appetite and an increased body mass.
B)a decreased appetite and a decreased body mass.
C)an increased appetite and a decreased body mass.
D)a decreased appetite and an increased body mass.
E)an unchanged appetite and normal body weight.
Q3) Among mammals, it is generally true that
A)all types of foods begin their enzymatic digestion in the mouth.
B)after leaving the oral cavity, the bolus enters the larynx.
C)the epiglottis prevents swallowed food from entering the trachea.
D)the esophagus is a key source of digestive enzymes.
E)the trachea leads to the esophagus and then to the stomach.
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Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Q1) The fluid that moves around in the circulatory system of a typical arthropod is
A)the digestive juices.
B)the intracellular fluid.
C)the blood plasma.
D)the cytosol.
E)the interstitial fluid.
Q2) Hemoglobin and hemocyanin
A)are both found within blood cells.
B)are both red in colour.
C)are both freely dissolved in the plasma.
D)both transport oxygen.
E)are both found in mammals.
Q3) As a person goes from rest to full-effort exercise, there is an increase in the A)tidal volume.
B)vital capacity.
C)residual volume.
D)total lung capacity.
E)All of the above would be different.
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44
Chapter 43: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A booster shot of the tetanus vaccine is required every 10 years because
A)secondary exposure is necessary for immunological memory.
B)memory cells are apoptotic following infection.
C)the primary immune response is slow.
D)memory cells specific for the tetanus toxin do not last longer than a decade.
E)the tetanus toxin has grown resistant to previous vaccines.
Q2) Study the table. The mother could exhibit an anti-Rh-factor reaction to the developing fetus in
A)Case 1 only.
B)Case 3 only.
C)Cases 1 and 2 only.
D)Cases 1, 2, and 3.
E)It cannot be determined from the data given.
Q3) Which of the following cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity and also respond to class I MHC molecule-antigen complexes?
A)cytotoxic T cells
B)natural killer cells
C)helper T cells
D)macrophages
E)B cells
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Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Q1) The osmoregulatory process called secretion refers to the A)formation of filtrate at an excretory structure.
B)reabsorption of nutrients from a filtrate.
C)selective elimination of excess ions and toxins from body fluids.
D)formation of an osmotic gradient along an excretory structure.
E)expulsion of urine from the body.
Q2) The nitrogenous waste that requires the most energy to produce is
A)ammonia.
B)ammonium.
C)urea.
D)uric acid.
Q3) The body fluids of an osmoconformer would be ________ with its ________ environment.
A)hyperosmotic; freshwater
B)isotonic; freshwater
C)hyperosmotic; saltwater
D)isoosmotic; saltwater
E)hypoosmotic; saltwater
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Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Q1) The steroid hormone that coordinates moulting in arthropods is
A)ecdysteroid.
B)glucagon.
C)thyroxine.
D)oxytocin.
E)growth hormone.
Q2) The drug Viagra (sildenafil citrate)is a local regulator and neurotransmitter used in the treatment of erectile dysfunction by prolonging the activity of the ________ response pathway.
A)vasopressin
B)testosterone
C)prostaglandin
D)nitric oxide
E)epinephrine
Q3) Which of the following has both endocrine and exocrine activity?
A)the pituitary gland
B)parathyroid glands
C)salivary glands
D)the pancreas
E)adrenal glands
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Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) Environmental cues that influence the timing of reproduction generally do so by
A)increasing the body temperature.
B)providing access to water for external fertilization.
C)increasing ambient temperature to that which is comfortable for sex.
D)direct effects on gonadal structures.
E)direct effects on hormonal control mechanisms.
Q2) For lactation to take place, the synthesis of breast milk and its release from the mammary gland, respectively, are caused by
A)testosterone and dihydrotestosterone.
B)estrogen and progesterone.
C)cortisol and testosterone.
D)prolactin and oxytocin.
E)luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone.
Q3) The moment of orgasm is characterized by
A)the ovulation of the oocyte from the ovary.
B)the release of sperm from the seminiferous tubules.
C)rhythmic contraction of many parts of the reproductive system.
D)increased synthesis and release of ovarian steroid hormones.
E)increased synthesis and release of testicular steroid hormones.
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Animal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The earliest developmental stage among these choices is A)germ layers.
B)morula.
C)blastopore.
D)gastrulation.
E)invagination.
Q2) In mammals, the nuclei resulting from the union of the sperm and the egg are first truly diploid at the end of the A)acrosomal reaction.
B)completion of spermatogenesis.
C)initial cleavage.
D)activation of the egg.
E)completion of gastrulation.
Q3) The ectoderm should give rise to tissues containing A)yellow and purple colours.
B)purple and green colours.
C)green and red colours.
D)red and blue colours.
E)red and yellow colours.
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Neurons, Synapses, and Signalling
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Q1) Assume that excessive consumption of ethanol increases the influx of negative chloride ions into "common sense" neurons whose action potentials are needed for you to act appropriately and not harm yourself or others. Thus, any resulting poor decisions associated with ethanol ingestion are likely due to
A)increased membrane depolarization of "common sense" neurons.
B)decreased membrane depolarization of "common sense" neurons.
C)more action potentials in your "common sense" neurons.
D)more EPSPs in your "common sense" neurons.
E)fewer IPSPs in your "common sense" neurons.
Q2) The somatic nervous system can alter the activities of its targets, the skeletal muscle fibres, because
A)it is electrically coupled by gap junctions to the muscles.
B)its signals bind to receptor proteins on the muscles.
C)its signals reach the muscles via the blood.
D)its light pulses activate contraction in the muscles.
E)it is connected to the internal neural network of the muscles.
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Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
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Q1) Early onset Alzheimer's is similar to early-onset Parkinson's in that both
A)result in amyloid plaques on neurons.
B)have a genetic basis.
C)activate the VTA.
D)involve the neurotransmitter glutamate.
E)inhibit the release of dopamine.
Q2) The cerebral cortex plays a major role in all of the following except A)short-term memory.
B)long-term memory.
C)circadian rhythm.
D)foot-tapping rhythm.
E)breath holding.
Q3) The system that modulates excitation and inhibition of smooth and cardiac muscles of the digestive, cardiovascular, and excretory systems is the
A)central nervous system.
B)peripheral nervous system.
C)autonomic nervous system.
D)parasympathetic nervous system.
E)sympathetic nervous system.
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Page 51
Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
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Q1) A given photon of light may trigger an action potential with thousands of times more energy because the signal strength is magnified by
A)the receptor.
B)a G protein.
C)an enzyme-catalyzed reaction.
D)sensory adaptation.
E)triggering several receptors at once.
Q2) Lateral inhibition via amacrine cells in the mammalian retina
A)underlies habituation of vision.
B)enhances visual contrast.
C)prevents bleaching in bright light.
D)is required for colour vision to occur.
E)recycles neurotransmitter molecules.
Q3) Calcium ions regulate contraction of smooth muscle cells by binding to A)troponin.
B)tropomyosin.
C)actin.
D)myosin.
E)calmodulin.
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Animal Behaviour
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Q1) After mating a female from the eastern population to a male from the western population, the resulting male offspring exhibited a hybrid courtship display, bobbing their heads and flapping their wings. This indicates that
A)courtship displays are a result of environmental pressures.
B)the elicited courtship display depends on female response.
C)courtship displays are under the control of more than one gene.
D)courtship displays are a learned behaviour.
E)associative learning is involved in courtship displays.
Q2) This scenario best exemplifies
A)cheating.
B)sociobiology.
C)reciprocal altruism.
D)inclusive fitness.
E)the tit-for-tat strategy.
Q3) Which of the following is true of innate behaviours?
A)Their expression is only weakly influenced by genes.
B)They occur with or without environmental stimuli.
C)They are limited to invertebrate animals.
D)They are expressed in most individuals in a population.
E)They occur in invertebrates and some vertebrates but not mammals.
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Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Q1) In the development of terrestrial biomes, which factor is most dependent on all the others?
A)the species of colonizing animals
B)prevailing temperature
C)prevailing rainfall
D)mineral nutrient availability
E)soil structure
Q2) Turnover of water in temperate lakes during the spring and fall is made possible by which of the following?
A)warm, less dense water layered at the top
B)cold, more dense water layered at the bottom
C)a distinct thermocline between less dense warm water and cold, dense water
D)the changes in the density of water as seasonal temperatures change
E)currents generated by nektonic animals
Q3) Which of the following is characteristic of most terrestrial biomes?
A)annual average rainfall in excess of 250 cm
B)a distribution predicted almost entirely by rock and soil patterns
C)clear boundaries between adjacent biomes
D)vegetation demonstrating vertical layering
E)cold winter months
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Chapter 53: Population Ecology
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Q1) Which curve best describes survivorship in elephants?
Q2) Which variables define the ecological life history of a species?
A)the age at which reproduction begins, frequency of reproduction, and the number of offspring for each reproductive episode
B)the ratio of females to males, the length of the breeding season, and the number of offspring for each reproductive episode
C)the number of offspring produced over a lifetime by a breeding pair and the survivability of the offspring
D)timing breeding sessions with optimal environmental conditions and the number of offspring produced during each breeding session
E)the amount of parental care given after birth, the number of reproductive episodes per year, and the number of years females are capable of producing viable offspring
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Community Ecology
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Q1) As you are watching dairy cattle grazing in a field you notice a flock of starlings following them and eating insects that were disturbed by the cattles' hooves. Name the kind of species interaction you have observed and the benefit, if any.
A)Mutualism; birds and cattle benefit.
B)Commensalism; birds benefit and cattle are unaffected.
C)Predation; birds benefit and cattle don't.
D)Competition; birds benefit and cattle are disturbed.
E)Consumption; both benefit from obtaining food.
Q2) Zoonotic disease
A)is caused by suborganismal pathogens such as viruses, viroids, and prions only.
B)is caused by pathogens that are transferred from other animals to humans by direct contact or by means of a vector.
C)can only be spread from animals to humans through direct contact.
D)can only be transferred from animals to humans by means of an intermediate host.
E)is too specific to study at the community level, and studies of zoonotic pathogens are relegated to organismal biology.
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Chapter 55: Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology
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Q1) How do the Taylor Glacier bacteria produce their energy?
A)photosynthesis
B)heterotrophism
C)chemoautotrophism
D)thermophobism
E)chemosynthesis
Q2) Which of the following terms encompasses all of the others?
A)heterotrophs
B)herbivores
C)carnivores
D)primary consumers
E)secondary consumers
Q3) What is secondary production?
A)energy converted by secondary consumers from primary consumers
B)solar energy that is converted to chemical energy by photosynthesis
C)food that is converted to new biomass by consumers
D)energy that is not used by consumers for growth and reproduction
E)growth that takes place during the second year of life in consumers
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Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Global Change
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Q1) The main cause of the increase in the amount of CO in Earth's atmosphere over the past 150 years is
A)increased worldwide primary production.
B)increased worldwide standing crop.
C)an increase in the amount of infrared radiation absorbed by the atmosphere.
D)the burning of larger amounts of wood and fossil fuels.
E)additional respiration by the rapidly growing human population.
Q2) How might the extinction of some Pacific Island bats called "flying foxes" threaten the survival of over 75% of the tree species in those islands?
A)The bats eat the insects that harm competitor plants.
B)The bats consume the fruit including the seeds that would disrupt the trees' reproductive cycle.
C)The bats roost in the trees and fertilize soil around the trees with their nitrogen-rich droppings.
D)The bats pollinate the trees and disperse seeds.
E)The bats pierce the fruit, which allows the seeds to germinate.
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